Ethics

Question 1

The Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical Standards. The Introduction:

Answer 1

The Introduction “discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code.”

Question 2

The purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to

Answer 2

provide “aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology.”

Question 3

The Ethical Standards section of the Ethics Code:

Answer 3

The Ethical Standards “set forth enforceable rules.”

Question 4

Decision-making accuracy can improve on a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient when:

Answer 4

the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

Question 5

Fiedler’s contingency model: low LPC

Answer 5

task oriented
do best with v high or v low ability employees

Question 6

Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory:

Answer 6

Fiedler’s (1971) contingency theory proposes that a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. He described a leader’s style in terms of scores on his Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) Scale. High LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker in positive terms (e.g., as pleasant and friendly) and are primarily relationship-oriented. Low LPC leaders describe their least preferred co-worker negatively (e.g., as unpleasant and unfriendly) and are task and achievement-oriented.

Fiedler described the situation’s “favorableness” in terms of the degree to which it enables the leader to control and influence subordinates. The favorableness of the situation is affected by three factors: the relationship between the leader and the subordinates; the structure of the task; and the leader’s ability to enforce compliance. A situation is very favorable, for example, when the leader has good relationships with subordinates, the task is highly structured, and the leader has control over rewards and punishments.

According to Fiedler, a low LPC leader performs best in situations that are either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of control, while a high LPC leader is most effective when the situation is moderately favorable. An important implication of Fiedler’s theory is that no single leadership style is most effective in all situations.

Question 7

holland

Answer 7

environ personality match

Question 8

incremental validity

Answer 8

A job selection test’s incremental validity is the increase in predictive accuracy that is obtained by using the test as compared to not using it. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test’s validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).

Question 9

Process consultation

Answer 9

centers on distinguishing and changing obvious behaviors that disrupt the normal social processes of a job. A distinctive feature of process consultation is its assertion that behavior change is the main concern and precedes attitude change.

Question 10

House’s Path-Goal Theory of Leadership

Answer 10

: House’s (House and Baetz, 1978) path-goal theory of leadership predicts that subordinates satisfaction and motivation are maximized when they perceive that their leader is helping them achieve desired goals. A leader can accomplish this by adopting a style that 1) helps subordinates identify specific ways to achieve goals; 2) removes obstacles to goals; and 3) rewards subordinates for accomplishing goals. House distinguishes between four leader styles:

Instrumental (directive) leaders provide specific guidelines and establish clear rules and procedures.

Supportive leaders focus on establishing supportive relationships with subordinates.

Participative leaders include subordinates in decision-making.

Achievement-oriented leaders set challenging goals and encourage higher levels of performance.

Like other contingency models, path-goal theory predicts that the best leadership style depends on the attributes of the situation. For path-goal theory, these include certain characteristics of subordinates (e.g., ability level, need for affiliation, locus of control) and of the work environment (e.g., task structure, formal authority system).

Question 11

Demand characteristics*

Answer 11

are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them

Question 12

contrast effect

Answer 12

refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees

Question 13

Criterion contamination

Answer 13

occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor’s ratings of the employee’s on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees’ predictor scores.

Question 14

gender differences - mgmt

Answer 14

males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions.

Question 15

Distributive justice

Answer 15

refers to the perceived fairness of outcomes

Question 16

Interactional justice*

Answer 16

refers to the exchange between an individual and supervisor or third party. Recent research suggests interactional justice consists of two distinct justice dimensions, informational and interpersonal. I

Question 17

Informational justice*

Answer 17

refers to the amount of information or the appropriateness of the explanations provided about why procedures were used or outcomes were distributed in a certain way

Question 18

Procedural justice*

Answer 18

refers to the perceived fairness of the process by which outcomes were allocated.

Question 19

Validity generalization, or generalized evidence of validity

Answer 19

is evidence of validity that generalizes to setting(s) other than the setting(s) in which the original validation evidence was documented and is accumulated through strategies such as synthetic validity/job component validity, transportability. Synthetic validity/job component validity is based on previous demonstration of the validity of inferences from scores on the selection procedure or battery with respect to one or more domains of work (job components). Transportability refers to a strategy for generalizing evidence of validity in which demonstration of important similarities between different work settings is used to infer that validation evidence for a selection procedure accumulated in one work setting generalizes to another work setting.

Question 20

French and Raven identified six categories of power

Answer 20

, which reflect the sources of influence upon which the power holder relies. Even if you were familiar with these categories, this question may have been difficult to answer, because all four of the choices could have been operating here. The way to choose the best answer is to work with the information you have at hand and not to add your own inferences to the question. Legitimate power refers to formal authority delegated to the individual in the form of rank, title, decree, etc. This question indicates that the requester is a high-ranking executive; i.e., he has a title and the formal authority and right to exercise power within the organization. Therefore, based on the available information, legitimate power is the best answer. Coercive power stems from the ability of the power-holder to punish others. Reward power arises from the ability to reward others. Referent power is based on personal qualities, and operates to the degree others identify with the power holder. As noted, all three of these power bases could have been at work here: the employee may have feared that the executive would fire him or otherwise punish him if he didn’t work overtime; he may have thought the executive would give him a raise or reward him some other way if he did work overtime; or he may have accepted the request out of admiration for or loyalty to the executive. However, the question does not explicitly refer to any of these scenarios. The only source of power that is obvious–due to the wording that the request comes from a “high ranking executive”–is legitimate power. The other two sources of power are expert power, which stems from a belief that the power holder has specialized knowledge or expertise, and informational power, which stems from the ability to control the availability of information.

Question 21

Total Quality Management

Answer 21

One of the most recent Japanese influences is the emphasis on product quality, which is reflected in the adoption of total quality management (TQM) by many American companies. Although the application of TQM varies from company to company, it usually involves changes in the organization’s structure and culture and in job characteristics. Changes in structure include a “flattening” of the traditional managerial hierarchy, increased teamwork, and a reduced ratio of managers to nonmanagers. Changes in culture include an increased emphasis on cooperation and fairness in the treatment of employees. Finally, jobs that reflect a TQM approach are characterized by the following (Morgan and Smith, 1996):

Skill Variety: Workers are cross-trained to increase their range of knowledge and skills; constant learning and development is required.

Task Variety: Workers work on a whole product or component of a product and see how their work fits into the “bigger picture.”

Autonomy, Participation, and Empowerment: Workers have a high degree of decision-making authority.

Task Significance: Contact and communication with external customers is part of the work process.

Feedback: Feedback comes directly from the work process (rather than from management).

Question 22

Theory Z

Answer 22

Theory Z
A more recent trend in American organizations is the incorporation of the traditional Japanese management philosophy. Ouchi and Jaeger (1978) summarize the differences between the traditional American philosophy (“Theory A”) and the traditional Japanese philosophy (“Theory J”) as follows:

American Japanese

Employment duration Short-term Long-term
Decision-making Individual Consensual
Responsibility Individual Collective
Evaluation/Promotion Rapid Slow
Career Path Specialized Nonspecialized
Employee’s knowledge
of organization Segmented Holistic
Ouchi’s “Theory Z” combines what he views as the best aspects of Theory J and Theory A. Like Theory J, Theory Z advocates consensual decision-making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization; like Theory A, it supports individual responsibility. Theory Z also emphasizes long-term (rather than short-term or lifelong) employment and a moderately specialized career path, which represent a middle ground between Theories J and A.

Question 23

Gottfredson’s

Answer 23

Gottfredson’s (1981; 1996; 2002) theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences.

Question 24

Super

Answer 24

proposed a five stage model of career development wherein people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles

Question 25

Krumboltz

Answer 25

Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors.

Question 26

speech act theory

Answer 26

A locutionary act is an utterance of a meaningful sentence or statement, the act of saying something. An illocutionary act* intends to communicate. It is the way in which something is said. A perlocutionary act* seeks to change behavior. It is the effect of what was said on the listener or speech acts that have an effect on the feelings, thoughts or actions of either the speaker or the listener. A propositional act* is something referenced, but no communication may be intended (* incorrect options). According to the theory, a speech act necessarily involves a locutionary act but may or may not involve an illocutionary act and a perlocutionary act.

Question 27

According to Searle's Speech Act theory (1969)

Answer 27

According to Searle's Speech Act theory (1969), an individual is doing one of five things when talking: asserting, directing, commiserating, expressing and declaring. Searle's five illocutionary/perlocutionary points include: assertives, which are statements that may be viewed as true or false because they strive to describe a state of affairs in the world; directives, which are statements that attempt to make the other person's actions fit the propositional content; commissives are statements which commit the speaker to a course of action as described by the propositional content; expressives are statements that express the "sincerity condition of the speech act" ; and declaratives are statements that attempt to change the world by "representing it as having been changed."

Question 28

strange situation - attachment patterns

Answer 28

Babies who have a "resistant" attachment pattern are anxious in the presence of their mother and become more upset when she leaves. They are also ambivalent when she returns and may resist her attempts at physical contact. Babies with an "avoidant" attachment pattern may also avoid contact with their mother when she returns, but will show little distress when she leaves. Babies with a "disoriented" pattern alternate between the avoidant and resistant patterns and are apprehensive and confused.

Question 29

The doctrine of comparable worth states that

Answer 29

workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth.

Question 30

Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model:

Answer 30

Hersey and Blanchard (1974) describe leader style in terms of task and relationship orientation. They propose that the optimal style depends on the job maturity of subordinates, which is determined by the subordinate's ability and willingness to accept responsibility: If the employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low, the leader should adopt a "telling" style (high task orientation and low relationship orientation). If the employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility, the leader should adopt a "selling" style (high task orientation and high relationship orientation). If the employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility, the leader should adopt a "participating" style (low task orientation and high relationship orientation). If the employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both high, the leader should adopt a "delegating" style (low task and low relationship orientation).

Question 31

Landy's (1978) Opponent Process Theory of job satisfaction

Answer 31

hypothesizes that job attitudes emanate from a person's physiological state. Opponent process theory assumes that when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality. In returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state. In this case, Patrick initially felt elated when informed of the praise then when the positive emotional state waned over time it continued to the opposite emotional state of anger. (See: Landy, F. J. (1978). An opponent process theory of job satisfaction. Journal of Applied Psychology, 63, 533-547.) Lawler's (1973) Model of Facet Satisfaction* posits that job satisfaction is conceived in terms of different facets of an individual's job; a compilation of feelings of satisfaction on an array of situational, biological, social and educational factors. Lawler's model specifies that workers compare what their jobs should provide in terms of job facets to what they currently receive from their jobs. Examples of facets include: gender, age, race, work load, job security, working conditions, workplace location, supervisor-subordinate relations, status and prestige of job, compensation, etc. (See: Lawler, E.E. (1973), Motivation in Work Organizations, Brooks/Cole, Monterey CA.). Warr's (1987) Vitamin Model* of work and mental health suggests that certain features in the workplace act in much the same way as vitamins. The level and combination of stressors have an effect on well-being and as with vitamins, some of the features start to have a negative effect if they increase beyond a recommended daily dose. The nine proposed stressors include: opportunity for control, opportunity for skill use, externally generated goals, variety, environmental clarity, availability of money, physical security (freedom from physical threat or danger), opportunity for interpersonal contact and valued social position . There is substantial empirical support for the particular stressors identified by Warr as he developed the stressor content of his model by reviewing the empirical literature on workplace stressors. (See: Warr, P. (1987). Work, Unemployment, and Mental Health, Clarendon Press, Oxford.) The job satisfaction/job dissatisfaction* theory is the basis of Herzberg's concept of job satisfaction which distinguishes two separate groups of factors influencing individual job satisfaction and dissatisfaction (* incorrect choices). The first group, called "motivators," leads to job satisfaction; the second group, called "hygienes," leads to job dissatisfaction. Motivator or "intrinsic" factors of job satisfaction include achievement, recognition, the work itself, and the intrinsic interest of the job. Hygiene or "extrinsic" factors of the job include pay, job security, working conditions, policy and administration, and relationships with peers and supervisors.

Question 32

An iatrogenic condition is

Answer 32

one that is produced by the treatment.

Question 33

types of biofeedback

Answer 33

Electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback, measures impulses in the muscles and indicates the degree of relaxation or contraction/tension. It is commonly used for conditions such as stress, tension headaches, chronic pain, muscle stiffness, incontinence, urinary urgency and frequency, and when muscles are healing. Electrodermal response (EDR) biofeedback, also referred to as galvinic skin response training (GSR), measures skin surface changes, giving feedback on the relation between emotional state and the activity of the sympathetic system via sweat gland activity, and is utilized for stress and hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating). Electroencephalogram (EEG) or neurofeedback provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes. Heart rate variability (HRV), sometimes referred to as electrocardiogram (ECG), biofeedback monitors heart rate and cardiac reactivity from sensors placed on a person's fingers or wrist. It is useful for managing stress, high blood pressure, anxiety, and heartbeat irregularities. Other recognized types of biofeedback include: thermal or skin temperature (ST) biofeedback, which involves skin temperature and blood flow control; Respiratory Feedback (RFB), which involves control of breathing type and frequency; and Respiratory Sinus Arrhythmia (RSA); which involves the synchronous control of heart rate and respiration, in which there is a small rise in heart rate during inhalation and a corresponding decrease during exhalation. Depending on the reason for biofeedback, more than one type is often used. For example in this question, Michael might also use EDR to control his general stress response in addition to EMG to control the muscle tensing and teeth clenching responses. Behavioral skills training such as relaxation training, guided imagery and stress-coping techniques are also frequently used in addition to the actual biofeedback.

Question 34

two medications for use in opioid addiction treatment:

Answer 34

buprenorphine monotherapy (Subutex) (beginning of tx) and a buprenorphine/naloxone combination (Suboxone)

Question 35

diabetes mellitus

Answer 35

Insulin, which is released by the pancreas, is involved in the uptake and use of glucose and amino acids. Hypoinsulinism produces diabetes mellitus (excessive blood glucose). When untreated, diabetes mellitus results in increased appetite with weight loss, apathy, confusion, mental dullness, polyuria, polydipsia, and increased susceptibility to infection.

Question 36

cushings

Answer 36

emotional lability, memory loss, depression, obesity

Question 37

hyperthyroidism, or Grave's disease

Answer 37

accelerated heart rate, agitation, nervousness, fatigue, insomnia, a speeded up metabolism, elevated body temperature, heat intolerance, and increased appetite with weight loss

Question 38

hypothyroidism

Answer 38

slowed heart rate, depression, lethargy, impaired concentration and memory, a slowed metabolism, reduced appetite with weight gain, lowered body temperature, and decreased libido)

Question 39

associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS

Answer 39

lower IQ, older age and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death

Question 40

Symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal

Answer 40

have a rapid onset and are characterized by insomnia, decreased heart rate*, increased appetite* and depressed or dysphoric mood*

Question 41

remission from SUD

Answer 41

Early full remission, early partial remission, sustained full remission, or sustained partial remission are specifiers used to describe a substance dependence diagnosis. "Early" means that there is more than one month but less than 12 months of remission. "Sustained" means that there is 12 months or longer of remission. "Full" means that the person no longer meets any of the criteria for substance dependence or abuse, and "partial" means that one or more of the criteria for substance dependence are still met but the full criteria are no longer met.

Question 42

schiz in twins?

Answer 42

The term "proband" refers to the index population, that is, those persons identified with a particular disorder. Studies have found that the risk for a monozygotic (identical) twin of a schizophrenic proband to be diagnosed with Schizophrenia is about 46%. The risk for dizygotic (fraternal) twins is about 17%.

Question 43

parkinsons - dopamine?

Answer 43

low. comorbid depression, though not linked w/ sx severity