Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BSCI201 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define anatomy.

A

The study of the parts of the body and how they relate to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define physiology.

A

The study of the function of the body parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the directional term for above?

A

Superior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the directional term for below?

A

Inferior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the directional term for “toward or at the front of the body?”

A

Ventral; anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the directional term for “toward or at the back of the body?”

A

Dorsal; posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the directional term for “toward or at the midline of the body; on the inner side of?”

A

Medial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the directional term for “away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of?”

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Between a more medial and a more lateral structure

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the floor criteria of anatomical position.

A

Body erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, thumbs pointing away from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which body plane is a vertical cut that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts?

A

Frontal (Coronal) Plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which body plane is a vertical cut that divides the body into right and left parts?

A

Sagittal plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between a midsagittal plane and a parasagittal plane?

A

Midsagittal: a sagittal cut exactly on midline, equal right and left parts
Parasagittal: sagittal cut not on the midline, unequal right and left parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which body plane is a horizontal cut that divides the body into superior and inferior parts?

A

Transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the two body cavities.

A

Dorsal and ventral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cavities are in the dorsal body cavity?

A

Cranial cavity (brain) and vertebral cavity (spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cavities are in the ventral body cavity?

A

Thoracic (heart and lungs) and abdomino (digestive)– pelvic (urinary, reproductive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the membrane that surrounds the organs in the dorsal body cavity.

A

Meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the membrane that surrounds the organs of the ventral body cavity.

A

serous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A

Nasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

Orbital (eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

Cervical (neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A

Frontal (forehead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A

Buccal (cheek)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A

Mental (chin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

Sternal (breastbone/sternum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A

Thoracic (chest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A

Mammary (breast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A

Umbilical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A

Coxal (hip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A

Inguinal (groin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A

Femoral (thigh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A

Fibular, or peroneal (side of leg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
A

Hallux (Great toe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

Oral (mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A

Cervical (neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
A

Acromial (point of shoulder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
A

Axillary (armpit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
A

Abdominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
A

Brachial (arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
A

Antecubittal (front of elbow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
A

Pelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A

Carpal (wrist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A

Pollex (Thumb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

Palmar (Palm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
A

Digital (fingers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A

Pubic (genittal region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
A

Patellar (anterior knee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
A

Pedal (foot); Tarsal (ankle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
A

Pedal (foot); Digital (toes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A

Antebrachial (forearm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A

Otic (ear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
A

Occipital (back of head or base of skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
A

Acromial (point of shoulder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
A

Vertebral (spinal column)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
A

Scapular (shoulder blade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
A

Brachial (arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
A

Dorsum or dorsal (back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
A

Olecranal (back of elbow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
A

Lumbar (loin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
A

Sacral (between hips)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A

Gluteal (Buttock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A

Perineal (region bettween anus and external genitalia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A

Femoral (thigh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
A

Popliteal (back of knee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
A

Sural (calf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
A

Calcaneal (heel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
A

Plantar (sole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
A

Cephalic (head)

70
Q
A

Upper extermity

71
Q
A

Manus (hand)

72
Q
A

Lower extremity

73
Q

Name some advantages of compartmentalization.

A
  1. Membrane surrounds each organ to physically isolate organs in the same body cavity.
  2. Membranes hold each organ in its correct anatomical position.
  3. Functional isolation of each organ – neighboring organs do not interfere with the functioning of each other even when located in the same body cavity.
  4. Protection against the spread of infection – pathogens infecting one organ will not easily infect neighboring organs
74
Q
A

right hypochondriac region

75
Q
A

Epigastric region

76
Q
A

Left hypchondriac region

77
Q
A

Right lumbar region

78
Q
A

Umbilical region

79
Q
A

Left lumbar region

80
Q
A

Right iliac (inguinal) region

81
Q
A

Hypogastric (pubic) region

82
Q
A

Left iliac (inguinal) region

83
Q

List the levels of structural organization from smallest to largest.

A

Chemical, Cellular, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism

84
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

Maintenance of relatively stable internal conditions even though the internal and external environments are changing

85
Q

Explain the difference between positive and negative feedback loops.

A

A positive feedback is when a body deviates from the norm and increases the
original stimulus. A negative feedback is when the body deviates from its normal
range and works to reduce the original stimulus by working against it.

86
Q

T/F: All 11 organ systems are required to maintain homeostasis.

A

F; reproductive system is not involced in maintaining homeostasis.

87
Q

List the levels of structural organization from smallest to largest.

A

Chemical → Cellular → Tissue → Organ → Organ System → Organismal

88
Q

List the chemical bonds in order from weakest to strtongest

A

Hydrogen bonds < Ionic bonds < Polar covalent bonds < Nonpolar covalent bonds

89
Q

What is the ideal blood pH level?

A

7.35-7.45

90
Q

How do buffer systems work?

A

When pH is high, H+ is released by chemicals that resist abrupt changes in pH. When pH is low, H+ is bound to increase the pH.

91
Q

Why are buffer systems useful?

A

They help our body maintain homeostasis

92
Q

What is the difference between organic and inorganic compounds?

A

Organic compounds contain carbon chains that are covalently bound, while inorganic compounds do not have carbon.

93
Q

What is the general formula for monosaccharides? Name an example.

A

(CH2O)n; Hexose → (CH2O)6→ glucose, fructose, galactose

94
Q

What are the disaccharides maltose, sucrose, and lactose composed of?

A

Maltose → Glucose + Glucose

Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose

Lactose → Glucose + Galactose

95
Q

What is the storage form of glucose?

A

Glycogen

96
Q

T/F Lipids are hydrophilic substances that are soluble in water

A

F; They are hydrophobic and insoluble in water.

97
Q

What is the universal solvent? Why is it labeled this?

A

Water; all biochemical reactions in the body need water

98
Q

What is a salt and how does it act in the presence of water?

fsdfWhat is a?

A

Salts are ionic compounds that dissociate in the presence of water.

99
Q

What are the 4 types of lipids?

A

Neutral, Phospholipid, Steroids, Eicosanoids

100
Q

What are eicosanoids derived from?

A

Arachidonic acids

101
Q

What are steroids derived from?

A

Cholesterol

102
Q

What are phospholipids composed of?

A

a glycerol backbone, 2 free fatty acid chains and a phosphorus containing group

103
Q

What are neutral fats composed of?

A

glycerol backbone and 3 fatty acid chains

104
Q

What type of neutral fats are liquids at room temp and solid at room temp?

A

Saturated → solid

Unsaturated → liquids

105
Q

What type of fat has a double bond?

A

Unsaturated

106
Q

What is known as bad cholesterol?

A

LDL

107
Q

Saturated fats increase LDL which increases risk of __.

A

MI and stroke

108
Q

What terminal of amino acid acts as base? Acid?

A

Amino terminal → base

Carboxyl terminal → acid

109
Q

What are the 2 types of secondary structures?

A

Alpha Helix; Beta Pleated Sheet

110
Q

Fibrous proteins are known as ___ proteins. Globular proteins are known as ___ proteins.

A

structural; functional

111
Q

What is the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A

To stabilize the plasma membrane

112
Q

What are the types of membrane proteins?

A
  1. Integral proteins: span the plasma membrane and exposed on at least one side of the membrane; if spans both sides → transmembrane proteins
    1. peripheral proteins → atttached to extracellular surface of integral proteins
113
Q

What are some functions of membrane proteins?

A
  1. Transport
  2. intercellular joining
  3. enzymatic activity
  4. cell-cell recognition
  5. receptors for signal transduction
    1. attachment to cytoskeleton
114
Q

What are the three types of junctions in the membrane?

A
  1. Tight junction
  2. Desmosome
  3. Gap Junction
115
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

fusion of integral proteins in plasma membrane of adjacent cells that
prevent the transfer of substances directly between adjacent cells hence, tight junctions
are also known as “impermeable junctions”een adjacent cells hence, tight junctions
are also known as “impermeable junctions”

116
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

linker proteins extending from plaques on the cytoplasmic surface of the
plasma membrane of adjacent cells connected together to hold the cells together and
prevent their separation. Desmosomes are also known as “anchoring junctions”

117
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

formed by hollow cylinders called connexon; it allows for the rapid
transfer of ions between cells; gap junctions are also known as “communication
junctions.” Cells connected by gap junctions are electrically coupled.

118
Q

What are the two types of passive transport?

A

Diffusion (simple,facilitated, osmosis)→ substances going from high to low concentration and filtration → solutions moving from high pressure to lower pressure.

119
Q

What are the two types of active transport?

A

active transport (solute pumping) and vesicular transport (bulk transport)

120
Q

what are the types of vesicular transport?

A

phagocytosis, pinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis

121
Q

“Power plant” of the cell

A

mitochondria

122
Q

“membrane factories” of the cell

A

Rough ER; membrane proteins are synthesized here before becoming part of the plasma membrane

123
Q

“Traffic director” of the cell

A

Golgi apparatus

124
Q

“demolition crew” of the cell

A

lysosome

125
Q

What are the non-membranous cytoplasmic organelles?

A

Ribosomes and cytoskeleton

126
Q

Name and describe the two types of ribosomes.

A

Free ribsomes → float in cytoplasm and make proteins that stay in cell

bound ribosomes → bound to rough ER, make proteins that go to GOlgi for packaging

127
Q

What is the function of the smooth ER?

A

synthesis of fats, cholesterol, steroid receptors. also detoxification of drugs and carcinogens

128
Q

Where in the golgi are proteins delivered and where are they released?

A

delivered to cid face, released from trans face

129
Q

name the three types of vesicles that are released from the Golgi.

A
  1. secretory vesicles which contain proteins
  2. vesicles containing integral proteins and lipids that go to the plasma membrane
  3. lysosomes
130
Q

Whatt are the three components of cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments

131
Q

What is the function of microtubules?

A

serve as tracks for vesicles; vesicular trafficking

132
Q

what is the difference between cilia and flagellum?

A

Cilia → beat to move substances across the surface of cells (like moving mucus away from lung). Cilia are cellular extensions that occur in large numbers on the apical surface of cells

Flagellum → beat to move the cell it is attached to (sperm the only example). Flagellum is a singular, long cellular extension (sperm tail)

133
Q

Which cytoskeleton structure provides tensile strength by resisting pulling forces

A

intermediate filaments

134
Q

Which cytoskeleton structure is present in cells connected via desmosomes?

A

intermediate filaments

135
Q

The arrangement of ___ is unique to each cell.

A

microfilamentts

136
Q

Which type of cytoskeleton is involved in cytokinesis?

A

microfilaments

137
Q

What are the 3 main regions of the nucleus?

A
  1. Nuclear envelope
  2. nucleolus
  3. chromatin
138
Q

How is the nuclear envelope different from the plasma membrane?

A

No glycocalyx; nuclear pores present that allow molecules to enter/exit the nucleus

139
Q

What does the nucleolus assemble?

A

ribosomal RNA; to create the 2 ribosomal subunits

140
Q

What is prominent in cells producing large amounts of proteins?

A

nucleoli since they synthesize ribosomal subunits.

141
Q

What is chromatin composed of?

A

DNA and histone proteins

142
Q

what is the structural unit of chromtin?

A

nucleosomes

143
Q

What are the differences between DNA and RNA

A

DNA → deoxyribose, double stranded, thymine, found only in nucleus

RNA → ribose, single stranded, uracil, found in nucleus and cytoplasm

144
Q

Name the codon and anticodon for the triplets: AGT, TTC, CGA

A

Codons: UCA, AAG, GCU

Anticodons: AGU, UUC, CGA

145
Q

List the phases of the cell cycle in sequential order.

A

G1 → S → G2 → M

146
Q

What tis the longest phase of the cell cycle?

A

G1; growth

147
Q

What happens in the S phase?

A

DNA replication

148
Q

What happens in the G2 phase?

A

protein synthesis to initiate and maintain mitosis

149
Q

What are the 2 phases of cell division?

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis

150
Q

What processes exhibit saturation and specifcity?

A

Facilitated diffusion; active transport; receptor-mediated endocytosis

151
Q

Which organelles would be abundant in a mettabolically/aerobically active cell?

A

Mitochondria and Peroxisomes

152
Q

what do peroxisomes do?

A

Break down harmful free radicals

153
Q

Which organelles would be prominent in a protetin-secreting cell?

A

Ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi

154
Q

Which organelle would be abundant in a cell involved in drug detox and steroid hormone synthesis?

A

smooth ER

155
Q

Which organelles would be prominent in a phagocyte?

A

ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi

156
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

growth by increase in cell number via mitosis

157
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Growth by increase in Cell size

158
Q

What is neoplasm?

A

abnormal and excessive proliferation of cells (can be benign or malignant)

159
Q

What are the 4 primary tissues in the human body? Name their functions.

A
  1. Epithelial → Covering
  2. Connective → Support
  3. Muscle → Movement
  4. Nervous → Control
160
Q

What are the 2 main classes of epithelial tissues

A

membranous epithelia and glandular epithelia

161
Q

List the 4 types of simple epithelia.

A
  1. simple squamous
  2. simple cuboidal
  3. simple columnar
  4. pseudostratified columnar
162
Q

List the 4 types of stratified epithelia.

A
  1. stratified squamous
  2. stratified cuboidal
  3. stratified columnar
  4. transitional epithelium
163
Q

Describe the composition and location of the endothelium.

A

Composed of simple squamous epithelium; lines the heart and blood vessels. Also, lymphatic vessels.

164
Q

Describe the composition and location of the mesothelium.

A

composed of simple squamous epithelium; lines the ventral body cavity.

165
Q

Describe the composition and location of the respiratory epithelium.

A

Pseudostratified columnar; lines the upper respiratory tract

166
Q

Describe the composition and location of transitional epithelium.

A

bladder, ureters

167
Q

What are the 2 main types of glandular epithelia?

A

Exocrine; secrete products onto body’s surfaces and endocrine glands: secrete hormones into extracellular fluid.

168
Q

What are the two types of multicellular exocrine glands?

A

Simple (unbranched ducts) and compound (branched ducts)

169
Q

List and describe the 3 modes of secretion.

A
  1. Apocrine: apex of secretory cell pinches off to release products
  2. Merocrine: exocytosis used to release products
  3. Holocrine: secretory cell ruptures to release its contents.
170
Q

What are the 4 types of connective tissue?

A
  1. connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, blood
171
Q

Match each cell in its immature form to its respective connective tissue: fibroblast, chondroblast, osteoblast, hematopoietic

A

Fibroblast: connective tissue proper

chondroblast: cartilage
osteoblast: osseous (bone)
hematopoietic: blood

BSCI201 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions