exam 1 Flashcards

(138 cards)

1
Q

A slider board or sliding mat can be used to

A

facilitate a stretcher transfer

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2
Q

When a patient arrives by wheelchair and cannot stand to get onto the x-ray table, which of the following methods is most appropriate

A

hydraulic lift

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3
Q

Patients who have not stood or walked since an accident, surgery, stroke, or heart attack should be transported by:

A

stretcher

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4
Q

When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from a sitting position, you should place your arms under the shoulders and

A

knees

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5
Q

Infants and toddlers are usually transported in:

A

cribs

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6
Q

A feeling of faintness or light-headedness that occurs with changes in body position after long periods of rest is termed

A

orthostatic hypotension

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7
Q

When an ambulatory patient has a weak leg as a result of a stroke or other condition, it is helpful to:

A

position yourself onto the patients weak side

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8
Q

Patients who have undergone which of the following procedures must not flex at the hips more than 90 degrees

A

hip replacement via posterior approach

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9
Q

Which of the following items is useful for facilitating a stretcher transfer?

A

Slider Board, Sliding Mat, Draw Sheet

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10
Q

When transferring a patient who is unable to assist with transfer to or from a stretcher, you should position the patient’s arms

A

across the chest

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11
Q

a single sheet folded in half that is placed under the patient and over the middle third of the bed; may be used to facilitate patient transfer

A

draw sheet

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12
Q

also called a transfer; strap for use when assisting patients who are weak or unsteady

A

gait belt

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13
Q

stretcher; wheeled device for transporting patients in a recumbant or semirecumbant position

A

gurney

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14
Q

a transient state of cerebral anoxia and low blood pressure occuring when an individual assumes a standing posture; same as postural hypotension

A

orthostatic hypotension

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15
Q

an induced state of quiet, calmness, or sleep, as by means of a sedative or hypnotic medication

A

sedative

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16
Q

a method of patient transfer that uses a strong sheet of smooth plastic large enough to support the patients body with handholds cut into the edges

A

slider board

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17
Q

a method of patient transfer that uses a soft, tubular sheet of flexible plastic features a low friction surface is used somewhat like a

A

sliding mat

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18
Q

wheeled device for transporting patients in a recumbant or semirecumbant position; also called a gurney

A

stretcher

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19
Q

the first step you should follow in assisting a patient from a wheel chair to the x ray table is to

A

position the wheelchair parallel to the table and lock the brakes

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20
Q

infection control guidelines with regard to the handling of patient linens

A

used linen is considered contaminated even when no soil is there, no item should be used for more than one patient without being laundered first, fold the edges of used linens to the middle without shaking or flapping

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21
Q

upon completion of an isolation procedure, the first step is to

A

untie your waist belt

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22
Q

according to the cdc and prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against HIV is a solution of

A

1 part sodium hypochloate (bleach) to 10 parts water

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23
Q

treatment used to make an item germ-free is called

A

sterilization

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24
Q

which of the following methods of sterilization is a safer method of heat and moisture sensitive items in hospitals

A

gas plasma technology

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25
X-rays were discovered in 1895 in
Germany
26
The inventor of the hot cathode x-ray tube was
Coolidge
27
The majority of radiography education programs are based in/on
colleges
28
A cassette containing a photostimulable phosphor plate is one form of
image receptor
29
are a basic requirement for the production of x-rays
vacuum, source of electrons, target
30
When fast-moving electrons collide with the target of an x-ray tube, the kinetic energy of their motion is converted into x-rays and
heat
31
Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength
gamma rays
32
these are all accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays
they can penetrate matter, they have an exposure effect on photographic emulsions, they cannot be detected by human sense
33
The characteristic most often used to describe the energy of an x-ray beam is its
wavelength
34
An x-ray beam that has been attenuated by matter is called
remnant radiation
35
A device used to indicate the location of the radiation field and to control its size is called a
collimator
36
An x-ray machine that permits viewing of the x-ray image in motion in real time is called a
fluroscope
37
The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, kilovoltage, and
source-image distance
38
The prime factor that controls the wavelength of the x-ray beam is
kilovoltage
39
The prime factor that controls the rate at which x-rays are produced is
milliamprage
40
The mAs value of an exposure is varied to provide control of
radiation intensity
41
The imaging system that provides an instantaneous digital image on a monitor is called
digital radiography
42
The hardware and software for managing digital images is called
PACS
43
Which of the following factors is not affected by a change in the mA setting
object image distance
44
Which of the following factors is used to control image contrast
kVp
45
The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the
SID
46
A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called
distortion
47
The product of dose in grays times the WR is equal to the equivalent dose, which in the SI system is measured in units called
sieverts
48
One centigray (cGy) is equal to
1 rad
49
The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that the sensitivity of cells to radiation injury depends on four principal factors. These factors are cell age, cell complexity, the rate of replication, and
the rate of the energy use by the cell
50
Short-term, predictable radiation effects typically occur as a result of
high doses of radiation exposure, such as those recieved in radiation therapy
51
The term radiation sickness refers to
short-term gastrointestinal effects
52
The effective dose-equivalent limit for whole-body occupational radiation exposure to nonpregnant radiation workers older than 18 years is
50 mSv per year
53
Long-term radiation effects that are apparently random, and have no threshold amount of exposure that must be received for them to occur, are termed
stochastic
54
Genes that are expressed in the individual are said to be
dominant
55
Which of the following is a type of personal radiation dosimeter
OSL
56
When a pregnant patient requires abdominal or pelvic radiography, the decision to do a limited study and the determination of the exact limitations to be imposed are the prerogatives of the
radiologist
57
The only recognized professional society open to all radiologic technologists in the United States today is the
ASRT
58
Fee-for-service–type health insurance is often appealing to patients because
patients can seek care from their choice of physicians and hospitals
59
The nationwide increase in patient visits to the emergency department is principally due to
the inability of patients to obtain low cost health insurance
60
Medicare Advantage Plans help to cover health care costs for which type of patients
seniors older than 65 years
61
The day-to-day scheduling of staff in the radiography department is the responsibility of the
lead radiographer or manager
62
A pulmonologist who practices exclusively in a hospital intensive care unit may be referred to as
an intensivisit
63
The designated eligibility groups for Medicaid are recognized by the __________, although the _____________regulates who falls within these eligibility groups
federal government, state government
64
The Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy may be used
to develop job descriptions and performence appraisals AND by a lawyer to determine negligence or malpractice
65
The ASRT has approximately how many members
160,000-200,000
66
Which criterion does The Joint Commission (the accrediting agency for hospitals) not use to certify that a hospital meets certain minimum standards
education
67
A moral agent is one who
is resonsible for implementing an ethical decision
68
“A response in which understanding and compassion are accompanied by an objective detachment that enables you to act appropriately.” This phrase describes the characteristic of
empathy
69
Which of the following is not a component of ethical analysis
determining who is at fault
70
The neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed
malpractice
71
Which of the following statements about diagnostic images is true
they are part of the legal medical record
72
Arm and leg restraints applied without either the patient’s permission or a physician’s order could result in charges of
false imprisonment
73
Standards of correct behavior for professional groups are called
code of ethics
74
A patient has the right to revoke consent with regard to a risky procedure
before the procedure begins AND during the procedure
75
Health care providers may disclose a patient’s protected health information without the patient’s consent to
another physician providing care to the patient
76
In which of the following states is there a law protecting a patient’s right to die with dignity
oregon
77
Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior
firm
78
When instructions are given to a non–English-speaking patient, it is best to
use a trained interpreter
79
Deaf patients and hearing impaired patients differ in that the deaf patients
will not respond to sounds outside their field vision, may use ASL as their primary means of communication, often move socially within a deaf community
80
When dealing with a hostile patient it is important to
ask for help before the situation escaltes
81
Which of the following statements is true with respect to individuals with decreased levels of consciousnes
they are not responsible for their actions or answers
82
When dealing with preschool children, it is important to
keep directions simple, direct, and honest
83
Grief caused by death or loss may be characterized by expressions of
anger, denial, depression
84
Cultural differences can result in differing perceptions of which of the following behaviors
eye contact, a casual hug, a loud firm voice
85
The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the following life stages
middle adult
86
Which of the following characteristics is not typical of adolescents
they tend to move at a slower pace
87
Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as
normal flora
88
Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on
staining, oxygen requirements, shape
89
Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of
bacteria
90
Yeasts are one type of
fungus
91
Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called
endospores
92
Tuberculosis, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are diseases caused by
bacteria
93
The term “reservoir of infection” refers to the
place where the pathogen resides
94
The term nosocomial applies to infections that are
hospital acquired
95
An object that has been contaminated with a pathogenic organism is called a
fomite
96
Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 μm or smaller are called
droplet nuclei
97
The immunity transferred from mother to child at birth or via breast milk is classified as
passive immunity
98
HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as
nosocomial
99
The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the United States is the
CDC
100
A gastrointestinal HAI that causes diarrhea and is caused by a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus is
clostridium difficile
101
Mucocutaneous Candida, disseminated herpes, cytomegalovirus, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are all examples of
opportunistic infections associated with AIDS
102
The risk of contracting HIV from a needlestick injury is
less than 1%
103
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination
hepatitus b
104
A particulate respirator is essential for protection from exposure to which of the following diseases
tuberculosis
105
Under the system of protective or neutropenic precautions, the “dirty” technologist touches the
x-ray quipment
106
Which of the following forms of hepatitis has no vaccine
type c
107
What is the most likely mode of transmission for hepatitis A
vehicle or direct contact
108
The most likely cause of a fire in an imaging department is
an electrical problem
109
The federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States is
OSHA
110
Which of the following is typical components of a spill kit
nitrile gloves, kitty litter, plastic bags
111
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire
112
The most common types of workplace disabilities reported by health care workers are
musculoskeletal disorders
113
MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of
a chemical spill
114
The study of workplace injury prevention is called
ergonomics
115
Fires start when three elements occur in the same place at the same time. These three elements are oxygen, excessive heat, and
fuel
116
Eighty percent of imaging technologists experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist, if their area of specialization is
sonography
117
Stress due to repetitive motion, overreaching, or maintaining the same positions for long periods causes
microtrauma to muscle tissue
118
It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients
request a drink of water
119
When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to
wear protective gloves, measure the quantity emptied, record the quantity in the chart
120
Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit
lateral recumbant
121
The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to
lack of adequate circulation
122
What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet
trendelenburg
123
The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is
incontinence
124
It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned
in the semi fowler position and with a bolster under the knees
125
A physician’s order is legally required order to
use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient in bed
126
Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of
nonaccidental trauma
127
Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse
bruises, abrasions, and burns
128
The standard principles of surgical asepsis include
not passing between the surgeon and the sterile field, never reaching across a sterile field, discarding items that become contaminated
129
Which of the following methods of sterilization is the quickest and most convenient method for items that can withstand heat and moisture
autoclaving
130
The fastest and safest method for sterilizing items that cannot withstand heat is
gas plasma technology
131
Which of the following sterilization methods requires the dissipation of poisonous gas
gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide
132
A microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment is called a
sterile field
133
When a sterile procedure is delayed, which of the following is an appropriate method of dealing with the sterile tray
if the tray is open, do not open it if the tray is open, cover it with a sterile drape if the tray is open, discard it
134
When you contaminate a field or observe its contamination by someone else, the ethical awareness that requires you to tell the person in charge is referred to as a
a sterile conscience
135
The surgical hand rub is an alternative to
the surgical hand scrub
136
When preparing for a surgical procedure that requires complete sterile attire, which of the following steps takes place after the surgical hand scrub
put on surgical gown
137
Which of the following is NOT worn by a radiographer when performing imaging procedures in surgery
sterile gown. what IS worn are surgical mask, cap or hood, scrub clothes
138
Microorganisms are
Bacteria Virus Protozoa