exam 1 Flashcards

(251 cards)

1
Q

which type of parasite can be described as a “tube within a tube”

A

roundworms - nematodes

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2
Q

roundworms are _____ meaning they have a body cavity filled with fluid under pressure

A

pseudocoelomates

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3
Q

roundworms exhibit ____, inhibited larval development to avoid adverse conditions for development and maturation

A

hypobiosis

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4
Q

dorsoventrally flattened worm with segmented body, no GIT and covered in tegument

A

tapeworms - cestodes

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5
Q

tapeworms infect by forming a ____, infective larvae in the tissues in the final IH

A

metacestode

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6
Q

how do tapeworms reproduce

A

self/cross fertilization

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7
Q

what is the intermediate host for tapeworms

A

vertebrates; some arthropods

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8
Q

infective stage of tapeworms

A

metacestode

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9
Q

what is the organ of attachment for cyclophilidea tapeworms

A

suckers

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10
Q

how are the eggs of cyclophilidea tapeworms

A

with hooks, non-operculated

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11
Q

what is the organ of attachment for pseudophylidea tapeworms

A

bothria

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12
Q

how are the eggs of pseudophylidea tapeworms

A

with operculum (cap)

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13
Q

leaf like body with 2 suckers, incomplete GIT, non-segmented and covered by tegument with operculated eggs

A

flukes - trematodes

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14
Q

first IH of flukes

A

snail

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15
Q

dx of flukes by

A

fecal sedimentation

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16
Q

main hosts swine and canine; retractable spiny attachment, no GIT

A

thorny-headed worms - acantheocephalans

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17
Q

IH of thorny headed worms

A

beetle

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18
Q

identifying parts of a mite

A

pedicel and caruncle
celicera mouthpart
anus and anal plate

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19
Q

where is the mites’ lifecycle done

A

entire cycle on host

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20
Q

which type of lice has stout mandibles with its head wider than the thorax

A

chewing/biting lice

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21
Q

main host of chewing lice

A

birds

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22
Q

type of lice with piercing mouthparts and head narrower than thorax

A

sucking louse

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23
Q

main host of sucking louse

A

mammals

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24
Q

what parasite group has 5 nymph instar stages

A

bugs

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25
maggots; fly larvae in the tissue
myiasis
26
how do flagellates reproduce
asexually by binary fission
27
lifecycle of mucoflagellates
direct
28
lifecycle of hemoflagellates
indirect
29
IH of hemoflagellates
blood sucking insects
30
lifecycle and reproduction of intestinal coccidia
direct; sexual gametogony
31
lifecycle and reproduction of systemic coccidia
indirect; asexual (IH) and sexual (H)
32
IH of systemic coccidia
mammals
33
lifecycle and reproduction of blood coccidia
indirect; asexual (RBC) and sexual (ticks)
34
IH of blood coccidia
ticks
35
which coccidia is transmitted by ingestion of sporulated cysts
systemic
36
what type of dx test would be good for moving protozoa or mobile amoeba
direct fecal smear
37
most common fecal test
fecal flotation
38
types of fecal flotation
passive/standing centrifugal
39
why is centrifugal flotation the better method
more sensitive
40
modified passive fecal flotation to increase sensitivity; common to dx helminths in livestock
McMaster method
41
dx test for eggs with higher specific gravity that don't float easily
fecal sedimentation
42
dx test for parasites that shed larvae in the feces; a fresh sample must be used
baerrmann method
43
dx test for when L3s are morphologically distinguishable
coproculture
44
limitations of fecal tests
chances of false negatives and positives
45
dx test for rapid detection and ID of microfilariae
modified knott's test
46
types of skin scraping
superficial deep
47
what can be done if the skin scraping contains a lot of debris and mites are suspected but not found
KOH digestion
48
what test can be done for parasites that have their larval/adult stages in host tissues
tissue digestion
49
preferred method to detect eggs of pinworms in LA
peri-anal tape method
50
dx test for parasite Ag in feces
coproantigen test
51
blood Ag test
snap test IDEXX
52
Ab tests for protozoal infections
complement fixation immunodissusion haemagglutination florescent antibody
53
DNA based dx method
PCR
54
development time inside the definitive host
prepatent period
55
total duration of shedding
patent period
56
developmental time outside the definitive host; influenced by external environmental factors
translation
57
infective larvae in the environment
infective stage
58
esophageal worm
spirocerca lupi
59
distribution of spirocerca lupi
tropical/subtropical cold areas travel related
60
spirocerca lupi main host
dogs
61
spirocerca lupi IH
beetles
62
spirocerca lupi site
esophagus
63
key pathology of spirocerca lupi
nodules in esophagus or aorta
64
shed stage of spirocerca lupi
eggs
65
infective stage of spirocerca lupi
L3
66
dx test for spirocerca lupi
fecal flotation
67
control for spirocerca lupi
control IH; clear feces rapidly
68
how long do spirocerca lupi larvae migrate before settling in the esophagus
3 months
69
stomach worm
physaloptera sp.
70
distribution of physaloptera
worldwide; higher mid-eastern US
71
main host of physaloptera
coyotes and foxes
72
IH of physaloptera
arthropods - beetles, crickets, cockroaches
73
lifecycle of physaloptera
indirect
74
physaloptera site
stomach
75
transmission route of physaloptera
ingestion of IH or paratenic host
76
physaloptera key pathology
gastritis; vomiting
77
shed stage and infective stage of physaloptera
eggs; L3
78
the eggs of physaloptera have a thick shell and contain _____
fully developed larvae
79
canine roundworm
toxocara canis
80
distribution of toxocara canis
worldwide
81
toxocara canis main host
dogs
82
morphology of toxocara canis
3 prominent lips on anterior end cervical alae
83
toxocara canis lifecycle
direct
84
toxocara canis site
small intestine
85
toxocara canis transmission route
ingestion of infective eggs or paratenic host transuterine/transmammary
86
toxocara canis key pathology
respiratory signs vomiting, mucoid diarrhea, pot-bellied appearance
87
shed stage and infective stage of toxocara canis
eggs; eggs w/ L3
88
dx of toxocara canis
fecal flotation, clinical signs
89
control of toxocara canis
deworming puppies and dam; environmental sanitation
90
in toxocara infected puppies of <6m, the larvae go through _____, where they will eventually be coughed up and then swallowed so they can develop into adults in the small intestine
hepato-tracheal migration
91
in toxocara infected dogs of >6m, the larvae go through ____, where they become arrested in tissues and only become reactivated during pregnancy (otherwise a dead end)
somatic migration
92
if a dog becomes infected with toxocara canis through ingestion of a paratenic host, there is ____; the larvae only develop in the intestine
no systemic migration
93
feline roundworm
toxocara cati
94
toxocara cati main host
cats
95
toxocara cati have a ____ than toxocara canis
more prominent cervical ale
96
transmission route of toxocara cati
ingestion of PH; transmammary
97
lower prevalence roundworm of dogs/cats
toxocara leonina
98
transmission route of toxocara leonina
ingestion of infective eggs
99
key pathology of toxocara leonina
diarrhea
100
raccoon roundworm
baylisascaris procyonis
101
baylisascaris procyonis IH
dogs
102
baylisascaris transmission route
ingestion of infective eggs or PH
103
baylisascaris key pathology
asymptomatic in DH larva migrans and severe neuro signs in IH
104
canine/southern hookworm
ancylostoma caninum
105
ancylostoma caninum distribution
most prevalent in SE states seasonal preference for warmer/humid months
106
ancylostoma caninum main host
dogs
107
ancylostoma caninum lifecycle
direct
108
ancylostoma caninum site
small intestine or muscle/organs
109
ancylostoma caninum transmission route
ingestion of L3/PH skin penetration transmammary
110
ancylostoma caninum key pathology
anemia; dark tarry feces; weight loss
111
dx test of ancylostoma caninum
centrifugal flotation
112
when do arrested ancylostoma caninum L3 reactivate
deworming, stress, pregnancy
113
reactivation of tissue arrested L3 ancylostoma caninum results in ___; the intestine is repopulated by arrested larvae; leads to refractory egg shedding
larval leak syndrome
114
where do anyclostoma caninum larvae develop
outside of egg when egg hatches takes 5-7 days in warm, moist soil
115
feline hookworm
anyclostoma tubaeforme
116
ancylostoma tubaeforme transmission route
ingestion of L3/PH L3 skin penetration
117
unless heavy infection, ancylostoma tubaeforme is generally ____
asymptomatic
118
distribution of ancylostoma brazilense
warmer, coastal areas; gulf coast
119
ancylostoma brazilense is ___
zoonotic
120
ancylostoma brazilense transmission route
percutaneous
121
ancylostoma brazilense key pathology
cutaneous larva migrans linear eruptive lesions intense pruritis
122
northern hookworm
uncinaria stenocephala
123
uncinaria stenocephala distribution
northern US, canada, northern europe
124
uncinaria stenocephala main hosts
dogs and wild canids
125
morphology of uncinaria stenocephala
buccal cavity with cutting plates
126
uncinaria stenocephala transmission route
ingestion of L3
127
threadworm of humans/dogs
strongyloides stercoralis
128
strongyloides stercoralis distribution
worldwide; warm and humid more common
129
strongyloides stercoralis main hosts
humans, dogs, cats, primates
130
strongyloides stercoralis lifecycle
direct
131
strongyloides stercoralis site
crypts of small intestine
132
strongyloides stercoralis transmission route
ingestion of L3 L3 skin penetration transmammary
133
strongyloides stercoralis key pathology
diarrhea - young dogs cutaneous larval migrans - people
134
strongyloides stercoralis shed stage
L1
135
strongyloides stercoralis dx test
baermann
136
exclusive to strongyloides
sexuallu reproducing free-living stage and parthenogenic adult parasitic stage
137
oral infection of strongyloides leads to ____ migration
hepato-tracheal
138
skin penetration of strongyloides leads to ___ migration
semi-tracheal
139
strongyloides L1 may develop into L3 in the small intestine and cause ____
auto-infection
140
canine whipworm
trichuris vulpis
141
trichuris vulpis distribution
worldwide; warm and humid common in kennels
142
trichuris vulpis main host
dogs
143
trichuris vulpis lifecycle
direct
144
trichuris vulpis site
large intestine - cecum and colon
145
trichuris vulpis transmission route
ingestion of eggs containing L1
146
trichuris vulpis key pathology
anemia, freq. defecation and straining; typhilitis, colitis, rectal prolapse
147
trichuris vulpis infective stage
eggs with L1
148
trichuris vulpis dx test
centrifugal flotation
149
trichuris vulpis common co-infection with
hookworm
150
spirocerca lupi
151
physaloptera sp.
152
toxocara canis
153
toxocara cati
154
toxocara leonina
155
baylisascais procyonis
156
ancylostoma caninum
157
uncinaria stenocephala
158
trichuris vulpis
159
heartworm
dirofilaria immitis
160
heartworm has highest prevalence in
southeastern US
161
heartworm main host
dogs (less common in cats)
162
heartworm IH
mosquitoes
163
heartworm lifecycle
indirect
164
heartworm site
adults - heart and pulmonary artery microfilaria - blood
165
heartworm transmission route
mosquito gets L1 from blood meal, develops to L3, infects dog with blood meal
166
caval syndrome
worms block caudal vena cava and tricuspid valve
167
heartworm shed stage
microfilariae
168
heartworm infective stage
L3
169
heartworm dx test
dogs- Ag test (adult F); direct blood smear (Mf) cats - Ab test (+Ag test to see if current infection)
170
what other microfilariae make be mistaken for HW causing a false positive
acanthocheilonema reconditum
171
why can feline HW have more false negatives
have more M only infections and in low numbers
172
french heartworm
angiostrongylus vasorum
173
angiostrongylus vasorum distribution
endemic to newfoundland; emerging in the US
174
angiostrongylus vasorum main host
foxes, canids, dogs
175
angiostrongylus vasorum IH
mollusks
176
angiostrongylus vasorum lifecycle
indirect
177
angiostrongylus vasorum site
lung capillaries, pulmonary artery, RV
178
angiostrongylus vasorum transmission route
ingestion of L3
179
angiostrongylus vasorum key pathology
cardiopulmonary disease; chronic cough, exercise intolerance
180
angiostrongylus vasorum shed stage
L1 in feces
181
angiostrongylus vasorum infective stage
L3 in IH/PH
182
rat lungworm
angiostronyglus cantonensis
183
angiostronyglus cantonensis distribution
endemic in dogs in Aus emerging in N america
184
angiostronyglus cantonensis main host
rats
185
angiostronyglus cantonensis IH
mollusks
186
angiostronyglus cantonensis lifecycle
indirect
187
angiostronyglus cantonensis site
lungs
188
angiostronyglus cantonensis transmission route
ingestion of IH with L3
189
angiostronyglus cantonensis key pathology
neuroangistrongyliasis (canine and human)
190
_____ can be accidental hosts of angiostronyglus cantonensis
dogs and humans
191
feline lungworm
aelurostrongylus abstrusus
192
aelurostrongylus abstrusus distribution
british columbia, atlantic canada
193
aelurostrongylus abstrusus main host
cats
194
aelurostrongylus abstrusus IH
mollusks
195
aelurostrongylus abstrusus site
lungs
196
aelurostrongylus abstrusus key pathology
verminous pneumonia gray nodules on surface of lungs with milky fluid containing egg and larvae
197
fox lungworm/bronchial lungworm
crenosoma vulpis
198
crenosoma vulpis distribution
common in NE US and E Canada
199
crenosoma vulpis main host
foxes, wolves, dogs
200
crenosoma vulpis site
bronchi and bronchioles
201
crenosoma vulpis key pathology
mimic allergy respiratory rxn (dog) cough elicited on tracheal palpation
202
crenosoma vulpis shed stage
L1 in feces
203
canine lungworm
filaroides spp.
204
high transmission of filaroides in ___
kennels
205
filaroides lifecycle
direct
206
filaroides site
tracheal bifurcation, lungs
207
filaroides transmission route
ingestion of L1 from feces/regurgitation autoinfection of L1
208
filaroides key pathology
cough/retch triggered by exercise or cold nodules in trachea
209
filaroides shed stage
L1 in feces
210
filaroides infective stage
L1
211
tracheal worm
eucoleus (capillaria) spp
212
eucoleus main host
hunting dogs
213
eucoleus lifecycle
direct
214
eucoleus site
trachea and bronchi
215
eucoleus key pathology
dry cough dyspnea
216
eucoleus shed stage
eggs
217
eucoleus dx test
fecal flotation
218
eye worm
thelazia spp.
219
thelazia main host
dogs cats deer mammals
220
thelazia IH
fruit flies and house flies
221
thelazia site
eyes
222
thelazia key pathology
ocular lesions, conjunctivitis, nodules, ocular edema, photophobia, red eye
223
filaroid nematode
onchocerca lupi
224
onchocerca lupi main host
dogs, cats
225
onchocerca lupi IH
black flies
226
onchocerca lupi site
eyes
227
onchocerca lupi life cycle
indirect
228
black flies need ___ to complete the onchocerca lupi lifecycle
waterways
229
giant kidney worm
dioctophyme renale
230
dioctophyme renale main host
minks, dogs, fish eating animals
231
dioctophyme renale IH
earthworm
232
dioctophyme renale is the
largest known parasitic nematode
233
dioctophyme renale site
kidney (usually R)
234
dioctophyme renale transmission route
ingestion of PH or IH containing L3
235
dioctophyme renale key pathology
kidney infections, hematuria, dysuria, R renomegaly, UTI
236
dioctophyme renale shed/infective stage
eggs/L3
237
dioctophyme renale dx test
UA
238
___ is the most important source of dioctophyme renale infection
raw fish
239
rhabdtid nematode
rhabditis strongyloides
240
rhabditis strongyloides site
skin
241
rhabditis strongyloides transmission route
adults and larvae are free living; L3 can cause skin lesions
242
rhabditis strongyloides key pathology
skin lesions, alopecia, crusting on feet, ventral thorax and abdomen
243
guinea worm
dracunculus insignis
244
dracunculus insignis main host
dogs and cats that hunt frogs; racoons
245
dracunculus insignis IH
crustaceans
246
dracunculus insignis site
skin
247
dracunculus insignis PH
frogs
248
dracunculus insignis transmission route
drinking water containing infected copepods or ingestion of PH w/ L3
249
dracunculus insignis key pathology
SQ nodules, pruritis, dermatitis
250
how are dracunculus insignis larvae released
when uterus breaks
251
this nematode causes skin lesions in areas that come in contact with the ground
rhabditis strongyloides