Exam #1 Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
the suspensory muscle of the duodenum or ligament of Treitz is an anatomic landmark used to identify what
A
the duodenojejunal flexure
2
Q
what type of fracture is characterized by separation of the bone into numerous fragments at the midshaft
A
comminuted
3
Q
LD50/30 refers to the dose of radiation expected to cause death in 50% of exposed individuals within
A
30 days
4
Q
a patient with pertussis or influenza needing transmission-based precautions would most likely be placed in which isolation
A
droplet precaution isolation
5
Q
the point of articulation between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone is known as what
A
lambda
6
Q
on the average patient, the esophagus ends at what vertebral level
A
T11
7
Q
a dosimeter that can measure doses from both beta and gamma radiation is what
A
thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
8
Q
how many facial bones are there
A
14
9
Q
according to the American College of Radiology (ACR), what is the typical dosage of contrast media for a pediatric patient
A
1.5-2.0 mL/kg
10
Q
which cellular component is most directly affected by ionizing radiation, leading to potential biologic damage
A
nucleus
11
Q
the styloid process is located on which bone of the skull
A
temporal bone
12
Q
a antient presents with suspected fractures of the glenoid cavity and proximal humerus. what special position would be most appropriate to evaluate the injury with minimal movement
A
posterior oblique (grashey method)
13
Q
what structure is located at the posterior aspect of the pelvic inlet
A
sacral promontory
14
Q
which of the following describes the sternoclavicular joint
A
synovial, gliding
15
Q
what two conditions could potentially cause a patient to experience syncope
- patient has been lying on the right side for 20 min in preparation for a myelogram
- patient has has nothing by mouth for 12 hours in prep for a lower GI study
- patient is lying in the fowler position on a cart in the waiting area
- patient is under intense emotional stress before an imaging procedure
A
- B and D
16
Q
the medical condition ketoacidosis refers to what
A
acute hyperglycemia
17
Q
which of the following is a characteristic of stochastic effects
- they do not have a threshold dose below which they do not occur
- the probability of occurrence does not increase with dose
- they cannot include cancer and genetic mutations
- severity of the effect depends on the dose
A
they do not have a threshold dose below which they do not occur
18
Q
what is the first stage of the grieving process
A
denial
19
Q
the hospice concept involves family-centered care with an emphasis on what
A
palliative treatment - provides comfort and relieves pain
20
Q
what unit is used to express a tech’s whole-body effective dose
A
sievert
21
Q
what condition is a complication of GERD
- achalasia
- Barrett’s esophagus
- gastritis
- varices
A
Barrett’s esophagus
22
Q
what tissue type shows the highest level of x-ray beam attentuation
A
bone
23
Q
what is the largest and most superior part of the hip bone
A
ilium
24
Q
which of the following tissues is most radiosensitive
- bone marrow
- muscle tissue
- nerve tissue
- adult brain tissue
A
bone marrow
25
where is CR for an AP projection of the thumb
metacarpophalangeal joint
26
in situations where a prosthetic de vice is present, which two options would a radiologic tech have when using AEC
- disable AEC and manually set exposure parameters
- position the device directly over the AEC detectors
- avoid positioning the device directly over the AEC detectors
- increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors
A and C
27
what angulation is used for an AP sacrum
15 degrees cephalad
28
what type of joint is a costotransverse joint
synovial gliding
29
what is the third part of the alimentary canal
esophagus
30
what part of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra
tubercle
31
the gain or loss of an electron is called what
ionization
32
what is the appropriate AEC adjustment when imaging a patient who has undergone silicone breast implant surgery
decrease sensitivity of the AEC detectors
33
how many half-value layers would it take to decrease the energy of an x-ray beam from 100% t0 12.5%
3
34
what is considered a normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) lab values in an adult
7-21 mg/dL
35
what is the objective of testing the reproducibility of kilovoltage across different exposures in a radiography system
to ensure the system accurately replicates the set kV
36
a tech is calibrating a new radiographic imaging system. which parameter should be prioritized to ensure the highest quality of displayed images
- the alignment of the monitor to the viewing angle
- the frequency of preventive maintenance checks
- the luminance uniformity across the monitor
- the ergonomic setup of the imaging station
the luminance uniformity across the monitor
37
a radiographer is evaluating different display monitors for optimal image resolution. which characteristic of display monitors is crucial for accurate radiographic image interpretation
pixel pitch
38
what is the significance of assessing the dead pixel ratio in a digital radiographic detector
- it evaluates the percentage of non-functional pixels in the detector
- it measures the radiation leakage around non-functional pixels
- it assesses the power consumption required to fix non-functional pixels
- it checks the ability of the system to correct non-functional pixels
it evaluates the percentage of non-functional pixels in the detector
39
a patient with a known history of osteoarthritis is scheduled for a radiographic exam of the knee. what procedural adaptation may be requested
weight-bearing projections
40
how does the application of a low-pass filter impact the appearance of a digital radiographic image
reduces image noise and contrast - filters out high frequencies
41
when conducting a quality control test for spatial resolution of a digital imaging system, what tool is commonly used
line pair gauge
42
what factor is critical to maintaining high DQE in digital radiography systems
- high exposure levels
- regular calibration of the system
- application of noise reduction algorithms
- frequent use of AEC
regular calibration of the system
43
which is the most superior portion of the sternum
- 1st sternocostal joint
- manubrium
- sternal angle
- xiphoid
manubrium
44
for a patient with a foreign body in the lower leg, which procedural adaptation should be utilized
- use of a higher grid ratio
- increase kvp
- perform imaging with a longer exposure time
- utilize a soft tissue technique
utilize a soft tissue technique
45
what role do transformers within x-ray generators play in the production of x-rays
- they cool the x-ray tube to prevent overheating
- they modify the electrical resistance within the circuit
- they control the voltage applied to the x-ray tube
- they rectify the electrical current from AC to DC
they control the voltage applied to the x-ray tube
46
the normal adult skeleton has how many thoracic vertebrae
12
47
a projection of the abdomen is shown to visualize gastric air bubbles and the diaphragm
upright AP
48
what 3 factors are true of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)
- ARS is a stochastic effect
- ARS is not considered a radiation emergency
- ARS is dose related
- ARS is more likely in a nuclear accident than in radiography
- ARS often causes death
- ARS is dose related
- ARS is more likely in a nuclear accident than in radiography
- ARS often causes death
49
which 2 of the following are characteristics of microorganisms
- single celled
- non-living
- colonizing
- visible with the naked eye
-single celled
- colonizing
50
where should CR be directed for AP cervical spine
hyoid bone and C4
51
what term is used to describe inflammation of the tongue
glossitis
52
a tech observes that a foot radiograph lacks clarity and appears fogged. what is the most likely cause of poor contrast resolution in this radiograph
- suboptimal kvp setting
- inadequate detector calibration
- misalignment of the grid
- insufficient collimation
suboptimal kvp settings
53
an elderly patient with osteoporosis and a suspected humeral fracture has limited mobility. which positioning technique ensures minimal discomfort while obtaining a clear image
- perform an AP projection with the arm elevated on a pillow
- perform a transthoracic lateral projection with the patient seated
- perform a lateral projection with the arm resting against the body
- perform a PA projection with the arm in a neutral position
perform a transthoracic lateral projection with the patient seated
54
a radiographer wants to reduce the appearance of scatter radiation on a digital image. what technique should be employed
use a grid
55
when administering contrast media, the tech should alwaus consider the 6 rights of medication administration. which 3 of the following are included in these rights
- dose
- height
- documentation
- route
- weight
-dose
- documentation
- route
56
what role does the rotor play in an x-ray tube
to rotate the anode, allowing it to handle more heat
57
what is the minimum amount of total filtration required for an x-ray machine operating above 70 kvp
2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
58
equivalent dose is a measurement that takes into consideration which of the following variables
- beam energy
- exposure rate
- radiation weighting factor
- tissue type
radiation weighting factor
59
what vein is found in the antecubital fossa and commonly used for venipuncture during an IVU
median cubital (cephalic or basilic too)
60
what is the function of a capacitor in a mobile x-ray machine
to store electrical energy for sudden high demands
61
a patient has come to the imaging department for an IVU. as you obtain the patient's medical history, what 3 of the following should you ask
- any known allergies
- family history of renal disease
- current medications
- previous iodine contrast reactions
- time of last bowel movement
- any known allergies
- current medication
- previous iodine contrast reactions
62
at what point is a person at risk of irreversible brain damage if they develop cerebral hypoxia
- less than 5 minutes
- 5-10 minutes
- 10-15 minutes
- 15-20 minutes
less than 5 minutes
63
the effectiveness of radiation in causing biologic damage is increased by the presence of
- high temperature
- oxygen
- low LET radiation
- high energy photons
oxygen
64
why is it important for radiologic techs to rotate duties and limit time spent in high-radiation areas
to minimize cumulative exposure
65
what is the definition of achalasia
rare disorder where the inferior esophageal sphincter fails to relax
66
what is the eye of the scotty dog
pedicle
67
what type of shock could result from a pulmonary embolus
obstructive
68
which 2 are accurate guidelines for cleaning contaminated surfaces
- clean from least contaminated to most
- clean from most contaminated to least
- clean from bottom to the top
- clean from top to the bottom
- clean from least contaminated to most
- clean from top to the bottom
69
what 3 are considered symptoms of ARS
- headache
- nausea
- cataracts
- cancer
- fever
- headache
- nausea
- fever
70
a patient with an infectious microorganism that can be transmitted in dust particles or minute droplets, such as measles, might be placed in an isolation room with what type of precautions
airborne
71
what is the role of MTF in the assessment of imaging system performance
- it measures the system's ability to reproduce various shades of gray
- it evaluates how well the system resolves image detail
- it determines the max exposure limits for safe operation
- it assesses the ergonomic design of the imaging equipment
it evaluates how well the system resolves image detail
72
the class of medications that are used to treat nausea and vomiting
antiemetics
73
long term condition of the lungs that manifests as obstruction of airway outflow
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
74
which three statements are accurate regarding the foot
- the base of the 5th metatarsal ends in a prominent tuberosity
- the 1st metatarsal is the shortest and thickest
- the heads of the metatarsals articulate with the distal tarsals
- the inferior surface is referred to as the dorsal surface
- the metatarsal heads form the "ball" of the foot
A, B, E
75
what bone contains the coronoid fossa
humerus
76
which of the following statements is true regarding the potential genetic effects of radiation exposure
- genetic effects are well-documented in human populations
- genetic effects only occur if the radiation dose is extremely high
- genetic effects can be passed to future generations if germ cells are affected
- there is no risk of genetic effects from diagnostic imaging procedures
genetic effects can be passed to future generations if germ cells are affected
77
an avulsion fracture is characterized as what
fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls of a piece of bone
78
what is the purpose of assigning a ring dosimeter to a radiologic tech
to measure the radiation exposure to the hands during procedures
79
what is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube
actual focal spot
80
what anatomic structure should be aligned with the midline of the image receptor for an AP pelvis
pubic symphysis
81
what type of joint is a costovertebral joint
synovial gliding
82
what facial bone is found in the medial wall of the orbit between the ethmoid and the maxilla
lacrimal
83
diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disease resulting from a chronic disorder of what
blood glucose metabolism
84
which of the following describes the effect of beam filtration on the x-ray spectrum
- it increases the number of low energy photons
- it decreases the average energy of the beam
- it increase the average energy of the beam
- it increases patient dose
it increases the average energy of the beam
85
if a dose of Benadryl is needed for an anaphylactic reaction to intravascular iodinated contrast, what is the best route of administration
intravenous
86
which 2 of the following are ways a rad tech could adjust the AEC settings for pediatric patients to avoid overexposure
- decrease sensitivity of the AEC detectors
- increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors
- extend the backup time
- utilize a lower energy x-ray beam
- increase the sensitivity of the AEC detectors
- utilize a lower energy x-ray beam
87
what is the primary biological effect of ionizing radiation of human cells
- ionizing radiation causes cells to swell and burst
- it induces DNA damage which can lead to mutations
- ionizing radiation directly converts cells into cancer cells
- it immediately kills all exposed cells
it induces DNA damage which can lead to mutations
88
in the context of imaging morbidly obese patients, which of the following is the most critical adjustment to minimize patient exposure
increase the kvp within appropriate limits
89
radiation with a high rate of linear energy transfer (LET) will result in which 2 of the following
- concentrated tissue damage
- decreased tissue damage
- decreased risk of biologic harm
- rapid energy deposition
- concentrated tissue damage
- rapid energy deposition
90
what is the primary result of electrons decelerating in the anode during x-ray production
production of heat
91
what degree of angulation is required for lateral knee
5-7 degrees cephalad
92
according to NCRP #102 guidlines, what is the primary difference between controlled and uncontrolled areas in radiographic facilities
- controlled areas require security clearance
- uncontrolled areas have higher radiation levels
- controlled areas allow for higher exposure limits
- uncontrolled areas are for patient use only
controlled areas allow for higher exposure limits
93
the drug nitroglycerin is indicated for the treatment of which 2 of the following
- angina
- hives
- heart attack
- stroke
- angina
- heart attack
94
which 2 of the following factors most influence the amount of scatter radiation produced during a radiographic exam
- the type of radiographic procedure
- the size of the patient
- the type of image receptor
- the brand of the x-ray equipment
- the type of radiographic procedure
- the size of the patient
95
for an AP oblique (Judet mothod) projection with the affected side up, where should the CR be directed
2" below ASIS
96
what is the main focus of the quality assurance program in radiography
- ensuring all staff are properly certified
- guaranteeing the economic efficiency of the department
- maintaining high standards of imaging quality and safety
- promoting faster imaging prodcedures
maintaining high standards of imaging quality and safety
97
which technology improvement is most important for enhancing the contrast resolution in digital radiography systems
- decreased pixel size in the detector
- increase bit depth in image acquisition
- increased pixel pitch in the display
- decreased mAs during image acquisition
increased bit depth in image acquisition
98
which bone in the lower leg is the primary weight-bearing bone
tibia
99
the term that is used to refer to the cavity between the lungs
mediastinum
100
what measure is most effective for reducing occupational radiation exposure to rad techs
increasing the distance from the radiation source
101
according to the ACR manual on contrast media, which 3 of the following are considered moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media
- wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
- cyanosis
- facial edema without dyspnea
- metallic taste in the mouth
- diffuse urticaria
- wheezing with mild or no hypoxia
- facial edema without dyspnea
- diffuse urticaria
102
where should the CR be directed for AP shoulder with internal rotation
1" inferior to the coracoid process
103
what body part should be radiographed if the patient has a Bennett fracture
1st metacarpal
104
which feature of a mobile radiographic unit primarily contributes to its ability to be used in varied clinical environments
- high-capacity battery packs
- fixed anode x-ray tube
- integrated cooling systems
- advanced post-processing software
high-capacity battery packs
105
what two of the following are potential effects of radiation exposure to the gonads
- sperm count reduction
- stroke-like symptoms
- miscarriages
- hypothyroidism
- sperm count reduction
- miscarriages
106
what principle explains why anoxic tissues are less susceptible to radiation damage
oxygen effect
107
during a radiographic procedure, a tech accidentally comes into contrast with a patient's blood. which immediate action should be taken according to standard precautions
- continue the procedure
- use hand sanitizer on the affected area
- wash the affected area with soap and water
- notify the supervisor
wash the affected area with soap and water
108
the proximal end of the tibia features which structure that provides attachment of the menisci and cruciate ligaments of the knee
intercondylar eminence
109
radiographs that present with significantly decreased exposure on the lateral edges of the image and normal exposure in the center is most likely caused by which focused grid error
upside-down grid error
110
a patient presents with suspected cervical injury. the radiologic tech is tasked with performing an AP projection to visualize the odontoid process and atlas. what is the correct positioning technique for this projection
supine with the mouth open, and the CR perp to the IR
111
a patient with ascites is scheduled for an abdominal radiograph. what adjustment should be made to the exposure technique to improve the quality of the image
increase mAs 30-50%
112
what is an alternative to a photomultiplier tube (PMT) in a computed radiography (CR) plate reader
charge-coupled device (CCD) - capture light photons and convert them to an electrical signal
113
what component collects the electrical signal in indirect digital receptors
detector array
114
what does a contrast detail phantom test evaluate in a radiographic imaging system
the system's ability to detect variations in tissue density
115
what is the main reason for integrating advanced data compression techniques in radiographic image processing
to decrease the file size without compromising data integrity
