Prep Exam Questions 1 Flashcards
(216 cards)
1
Q
what is the purpose of an analgesic
A
pain relief
2
Q
what does the incubation stage of infection refer to
A
period of initial contact prior to the appearance of signs or symptoms
3
Q
what should breathing instructions be for a lateral sternum
A
inspiration
4
Q
to view the lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile medially, how should the patient be positioned
A
AP with internal rotation of arm
5
Q
heparin and coumadin are examples of what type of drug
A
anticoagulants
6
Q
which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs
A
right ventricle
7
Q
an exposure is made with 400 mA, 82 kVp and AEC system. if the AEC system has a minimum response time of 20 milliseconds and a backup timer setting of 50 milliseconds, what is the largest mAs setting that may be used for the exam
A
20 mAs
8
Q
of the following, who is repsonsible for reporting radiographic equipment malfunctions that could lead to safety issues
- department managers
- radiographers
- regiologist
- service engineers
A
all of the above
9
Q
how does decreasing the anode angle affect the severity of the anode heel effect
A
increases the anode heel effect
10
Q
to evaluate the luminance response of a digital display monitor, one would need to utilize what
A
photometer
11
Q
a small fluid-filled sac that helps to reduce friction near a joint is called
A
bursa
12
Q
anoxia refers to a cell having what
A
no oxygen
13
Q
the gray-scale of a digital image is affected by what
A
bit depth
14
Q
a patient scheduled to receive intravenous iodinated contrast is severely overweight. the radiologist’s orders were 40% more than the standard 50 cc dose of contrast. the tech should prepare how much of the contrast agent
A
70 cc
15
Q
patient participation in a research study is voluntary and should be accompanied by what
A
informed consent
16
Q
what radiographic landmark corresponds to the location of the anterior nasal spine
A
acanthion
17
Q
what 2 are types of filtration found in the x-ray imaging system
- added
- target
- inherent
- lead
A
added and inherent
18
Q
which condition would be an indication for retrograde urethrography
- bladder cancer
- evaluation of the renal pelvis
- history of kidney stones
- urethral obstruction
A
urethral obstruction
19
Q
the first cervical vertebra is commonly known as
A
atlas
20
Q
civil law includes which of the following
- dispute
- felony
- misdemeanor
- tort
A
tort
21
Q
as the matric size increase, the pixel size
A
decreases
22
Q
pathogenic microorganisms that require a living host’s cells to survive and reproduce are called
A
viruses
23
Q
which of the following changes increases the severity of the anode heel effect
- decreasing OID
- decreasing SID
- increasing OID
- increasing SID
A
decreasing SID
24
Q
it is important that medical physicists perform tests annually on x-ray equipment as it ensures which two of the following
- technologists are using dosimeters properly
- collimation is within parameters
- the right amount of radiation is being produced for each exam
- technologists are up to date on all training
A
-collimation is within parameters
- the right amount of radiation is being produced for each exam
25
for a cross-table hip radiograph, where should the CR be directed
perp to the femoral neck
26
the thickness of material needed to decrease the intensity of an x-ray beam by 50% of its original value is called
half-value layer
27
the most severe convulsive seizure in which a person may have a loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions is called
grand mal seizure
28
which of the following principles defines the relationship between mA and exposure time
reciprocity law
29
the main purpose of adding filtration to the x-ray tube is to
decrease patient dose
30
sterilization using an autoclave involves the use of
pressurized steam
31
how many pairs of floating ribs are there
2
32
where should the CR enter for a PA projection of the finger
PIP joint
33
which of the following imaging studies is commonly used if the results of a radiographic metastatic bone survey are inconclusive
positron emission tomography (PET)
34
what layer of the CR imaging plate captures and stores x-ray photons transmitted through the patient
phosphor layer
35
what compound is used in flat-panel image receptors to convert incoming x-ray photons directly into an electrical signal
amorphous selenium (a-Se)
36
because of the line focus principle, the effective focal spot size decreases with decreasing
target angle
37
the primary barriers in an x-ray room must have a thickness of what
1/16" (1.6 mm) lead equivalent
38
"touching a patient without permission or justification" is the legal definition of what
battery
39
what is the largest known sesamoid bone in the body
patella
40
what radiation measurement is used to assess how much biological damage is expected from the absorbed dose
equivalent dose
41
1 joule per kilogram (J/kg) is equal to what
1 Gray
42
the ileocecal valve is primarily located within which quadrant of the abdomen
RLQ
43
which of the following technical factor adjustments should be made when positive contrast media agents are used
increased kVp
44
what is the unit for electric current
ampere
45
the grieving stage in which patients act as though nothing is wrong with them best describes
denial
46
when performing an AP axial weight-bearing projection of the feet, what degree and direction of CR angle is used
10-15 degrees toward the heel
47
current federal standards limit general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units with max technique factors engaged to a max entrance absorbed dose rate of what
88 mGy per minute
48
the isotropic nature of the x-ray beam indicates that the photons
travel in all directions
49
according to NCRP guidelines, a medical x-ray tube must include aluminum equivalent filtration equal to a minimum of what
2.5 mm
50
which imaging study of the urinary system is a structural study rather than a functional study
- intravenous urography (IVU)
- nephrotomography
- retrograde pyelogram
- voiding cystourethrogram
retrograde pyelogram
51
what position is the first digiti in when the palm is pronated and resting on the IR
oblique
52
changing the x-ray tube filtration from 3.5 mm to 4.0 mm would have what effect on x-ray beam quality
increased quality
53
if the patient's ASIS measures 17 cm to the tabletop, how much and in which direction should the CR be angled for an AP knee
5 degrees caudad
54
what type of joint is an interphalangeal (IP) articulation
hinge
55
what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the hand
third MCP joint
56
which of the following display monitors are particularly effective in brightly lit rooms
liquid crystal display (LCD)
57
which of the following anatomic structures of the humerus is located just distal to the tubercles
surgical neck
58
the relationship between kVp and image receptor exposure is described according to what principle
15% rule
59
the head of the femur articulates with which structure of the pelvis
acetabulum
60
which portion of the bowel has numerous mucosal folds that give it a feathery appearance on contrast-enhanced studies
jejunum
61
the articulation of the frontal bone with the nasal bones is known as what
nasion
62
what does ESE stand for
entrance skin exposure
63
within digital radiography, bit depth defines what
total number of gray shades that can be produced by the digital system
64
what palpable anatomical landmark is generally used to determine the CR for an AP projection of the knee
apex of the patella
65
which of the following would provide fluoroscopic imaging personnel with the BEST radiation protection
- controlling the fluoroscopic system remotely
- decreased distance from the patient
- reducing time spend in the fluoroscopic procedure
- wearing protective shielding
controlling the fluoroscopic system remotely
66
in the image of a radiographic histogram, what does the y-axis represent
frequency of specific exposure values captured by the IR
67
the bones of the forearm are crossed when the hand is
pronated
68
why is the chest imaged in PA rather than AP position
to minimize the magnification of the heart
69
processing an AP lower leg radiograph as an AP abdomen may result in what
incorrect brightness and contrast
70
when preparing for a hysterosalpingography study, the patient should be placed in what position
lithotomy position
71
the AP axial projection of the knee, Beclere method, is used to demonstrate what
intercondylar fossa
72
what shielding material is most commonly used for personal protective equipment in radiology to protect against scatter radiation
lead
73
during compton interactions, the incident x-ray photon interacts with what portion of an atom
outer-shell electron
74
destruction or alteration of medical records, such as a radiology report, by an unauthorized person, is referred to as
spoliation
75
photons produced outside the actual focal spot are known as
off-focus radiation
76
what is the greatest source of scatter radiation during fluoroscopic procedures
patient
77
a correct position to wear a personnel dosimeter during fluoroscopy is
over the lead apron, at the collar level
78
what does LET stand for
linear energy transfer
79
values of interest (VOI) are determined during what
histogram analysis
80
the proper medical term for a partial or total collapse of lung tissue
atelectasis
81
a patient is brough to the ER with a suspected intertrochanteric fracture. the tech should obtain an AP projection of the affected hip and what additional view
axiolateral hip, Danelius-Miller method
82
what is the electronic technique chart with preprogrammed technical factors called
anatomically programed technique
83
an AP axial outlet projection of the pelvis is used to evaluate what
superior and inferior pubic rami
84
all fluoroscopic machines must have an exposure switch that is of a deadman type. this type of switch is one that stops when
when the pressure on it is released
85
when performing a lower GI study, the enema tip should be inserted with the patient in what position
sim's position
86
how many HVL are required to decrease beam intesnity from 100% to 12.5%
3
87
assuming there are no other technical changes, using a grid has what effect on IR exposure
decreased IR exposure
88
what is the most effective and often used material in protective barriers
lead
89
which of the following factors influence the fluoroscopic tabletop exposure rate
- filtration
- kVp
- position of the table
- target-to-panel distance
filtration
kVp
target-to-panel distance
90
the normal pulse rate for an adult is
60-100 beat per minute (bpm)
91
where should the CR enter for a lateral projection of the coccyx
3.5" posterior and 2" inferior to the ASIS
92
the os coxae are found in what
pelvis
93
when imaging a patient with severe osteoporosis, failing to adjust the exposure factors could have what effect on image receptor exposure
increase IR exposure
94
which of the following is the primary absorber of x-ray photons during fluoroscopic procedures
patient
95
increasing diagnostic filtration results in which of the following
decreased patient dose
96
which of the following factors affect both the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam
kVp
97
during x-ray production, what electron shell is capable of producing the highest energy photons
k-shell
98
what type of bone is the clavicle
long bone
99
when using AEC which of the following can be employed to reduce patient motion while maintain proper image receptor expsoure
increased mA
100
the NCRP requires that leakage radiation from the fluoroscopic tube must be below what
1 mGy/hour at 1 meter from the tube
101
which of these anatomic structures can be used as an indicator of the spatial resolution
- bowel loops
- fatty tissues
- muscle tissues
- trabecular bone
trabecular bone
102
the risk of cancer is estimated by calculating what
effective dose
103
which two of the following is an appropriate use of electronic annotation during digital radiographic imaging
- indicating laterality (R/L)
- indicating technologist initials
- indicating sequencing of the projections
- indicating time of the exam
-indicating sequencing of the projections
- indicating time of the exam
104
in the CR imaging plate, the initial response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photons is to release what
light photons
105
the bony process on the proximal, medial side of the femur is known as the
lesser trochanter
106
which 2 of the following devices may be used by an oncology patient for the delivery of chemotherapy medication
- central venous catheter (CVC)
- chest tube pigtail catheter
- implantable venous access port
- Swan-Ganz catheter
- central venous catheter (CVC)
- implantable venous access port
107
if the joint spaces associated with the metatarsals on the lateral side of the foot are the anatomy of interest, which of the following projections would best demonstrate this area
medial oblique foot
108
which of the following imaging modalities is most commonly used to diagnose osteoporosis
bone densitometry
109
dynamic range is defined as the
range of exposures that can be captured by a detector
110
what is the most superior portion of the lung
apex
111
which 2 of the following exams require the patient to be NPO for 8-12 hours prior to procedure
- barium enema
- cervical myelogram
- shoulder arthrogram
- upper GI
- barium enema
- upper GI
112
microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are termed
microbial flora
113
which of the following individuals may perform fluoroscopic procedures
- certified radiologic tech
- certified tech under physician's supervision
- certified tech with physician's permission
- physician
physician
114
the prefix "milli-" stands for
1/1000
115
do not resuscitate (DNR) orders are specific instructions regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), intubation, and what other life-saving measure
defibrillation
116
a person's core body temperature is regulated by what structure
hypothalamus
117
what is the minimum requirement for the evaluation of holes and cracks of shielding accessories
annually
118
the process of liberating electrons from a heated filament is known as
thermionic emission
119
streptococcal infections are caused by what
bacteria
120
personnel dosimeters should always be worn where
collar, outside of the lead apron
121
the flow of electrons from the cathode to the anode is referred to as what
tube current
122
why is a compensating filter, such as the boomerang filter, helpful in radiographing the shoulder
compensates for the large difference in part thickness and tissue density
123
what subatomic particle is negatively charged
electron
124
if a patient scheduled for an arthrogram states that they have an allergy to an iodinated contrast medium, what other imaging methods could be used to demonstrate the desired anatomy without putting the patient at risk
MRI
125
which of the following models was used to establish radiation protection standards for stochastic effects of radiation
linear non-threshold model
126
which bony landmark is directly medial and within the same plane as the most prominent point of the greater trochanter
pubic symphysis
127
what is the appropriate CR angle for an AP axial foot radiograph on a patient with a very high arch
15 degrees
128
elimination of extraneous light from the edges of a digital radiographic image is achieved through what
the application of electronic masking
129
what effect does adding more HVL have on the quality of the x-ray beam
increased quality
130
which of the following would cause excessive IR exposure while using AEC
incorrect radiation detector selection
131
spatial resolution in digital radiography is defined as what
structural sharpness recorded in the radiograph
132
in the imaging department, lidocaine (xylocaine) is often used to
provide a topical anesthetic for invasive procedures
133
which of the following is used to change the grayscale values in the recorded image to a new range of values in order to improve the displayed image
LUT
134
which two of the following guidelines are important to remember when taking trauma cross table lateral projections of the cervical spine
- do not move the head or neck
- carefully remove metal earrings or jewelry prior to imaging if possible
- remove the immobilization collar so it doe not obscure the cervical spine
- use a 40" SID
- do not move the head or neck
- carefully remove metal earrings or jewelry prior to imaging if possible
135
the ability to produce quality radiographs using a wide range of technical factors is called
exposure latitude
136
when using fluoroscopic equipment, which of the following is directly proportional to the exposure delivered to the patient
- exposure field size
- mA
- target-to-panel or target-to tabletop distance
- thickness of the filter
mA
137
what is the name for a disease or infection caused by a healthcare professional or by medical treatment
iatrogenic disease
138
when compression is ordered as part of an intravenous urogram (IVU) procedure, where should the compression paddles be applied
at the distal ends of the ureters
139
which shell of an atom has the lowest binding energy
outer shell
140
which of the following is considered an intentional tort
- failure to obtain consent
- assault
- breach of confidentiality
- malpractice
assault
141
what effect does decreasing the primary beam field size (increasing collimation) have on the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR
decreases the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR
142
which of the following imaging modalities is considered the gold standard screening tool for breast disease
mammography
143
which of the following bony structures are commonly associated with two small sesamoid bones
head of first metatarsal
144
which of the following is the main controlling factor of image receptor exposure
mAs
145
which of the following is a common legal consideration when omitting radiographic markers
the omission could result in patient and/or part misidentification
146
which two of the following are true when performing an AP projection of the scapula
- arm is abducted 90 degrees with the elbow flexed
- CR enters the body at the level of T7
- exposure may be made during shallow breathing
- patient should reach across the chest and grasp the opposite shoulder
- arm abducted 90 degrees with elbow flexed
- exposure may be made during shallow breathing
147
what is the term for the rounded bony prominence on the anterior surface of the proximal tibia
tibial tuberosity
148
what is done to reduce the OID between the IR and the carpal bones for a PA wrist
slightly arch the hand by curling the fingers under the palm
149
with cassette based digital radiography, the device used to extract the latent image from the image receptor is what
plate reader
150
radiation-induced cataracts are classified as what
deterministic effect
151
what law describes the relationship between absorbed dose and the distance from a radiation source
inverse square law
152
which of the following components is used to release information stored in a photostimulable phosphor (PSP) for processing
laser light
153
the general term for legal documents describing a person's wishes if one becomes unable to make decisions about one's own medical care are called what
advanced health care directives
154
in order to demonstrate the ankle mortis, how much should the leg and foot be rotated
15-20 degrees
155
the process used to identify the useful exposure values in the digital image is called
histogram analysis
156
which two of the following are included in the total filtration of the x-ray beam
- added filtration
- collimation
- gravity filtration
- inherent filtration
added filtration
inherent filtration
157
which is the shortest portion of the small intestine
duodenum
158
the distance, measured from center to center, between the detector elements (DELs) is called what
pitch
159
which cervical vertebrae is also called the vertebra prominens
7th
160
what is the degree and direction of tube angle for an AP axial of the sacrum
15 degrees cephalad
161
when radiographing the pelvis, the top of the IR should be
1-1.5" superior to the iliac crests
162
the preferred fluoroscopic technique utilizes
high kVp and low mAs
163
which of the following are major vessels supplying blood to the brain
internal carotid arteries
164
which paranasal sinuses are best demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection of the sinuses
maxillary
165
what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the barium filled large intestine of a sthenic patient
MSP at the level of the iliac crests
166
an abnormally exaggerated posterior convex curve in the thoracic spine is called
kyphosis
167
what thickness of protective shielding is required in the bucky slot cover of a fluoroscopic imaging unit
0.25 mm lead equivalent
168
which action taken by the tech would BEST reduce occupational expsoure during a mobile chest x-ray in the ER
standing 6 ft from the x-ray tube during the exposure
169
which of the following statements is true about an AP chest x-ray with a patient in a seated position
- the CR is angled 20 degrees cephalad
- the heart will be magnified more than with a PA position
- the patient can take a deeper breath
- this positioning is easier for a patient with dyspnea
the heart will be magnified more than with a PA position
170
what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the upper ribs
MSP at the level of T7
171
which two of the following positioning guidelines should be used when performing an AP axial projection of the chest in the lordotic position when the patient is unable to lean back
- CR enters the MSP at the level of the midsternum
- use a 48" SID
- CR is angled 15-20 degrees cephalad
- make exposure at the end of second expiration
- CR enters the MSP at the level of the midsternum
- CR is angled 15-20 degrees cephalad
172
what group of drugs are used to speed up defecation
cathartics
173
each of the images were acquired using a different mA, with each exposure resulting in an acceptable patient dose and acceptable image quality. this series of images exemplifies what
exposure latitude
174
when preparing to assist a patient with a fractured leg from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, the tech should
- position the wheelchair perp to the table and help the patient use the nonfractured leg
- position the wheelchair parallel to the table and enlist an assistant to lift the patient on to the table
- position the wheelchair so that the fractured leg is on the side closer to the table
- position the wheelchair so that the non-fractured leg is on the side closest to the table
position the wheelchair so that the non-fractured leg is on the side closest to the table
175
the phosphor layer in a CR imaging plate is composed of what
barium fluorohalide
176
an x-ray exposure above the level of the detector's dynamic range may result in what
saturation artifact
177
which three post-processing manipulations may lead to a legal issue
- electronically changing the field of view and cropping anatomy off of an image
- a tech adds a digital left or right anatomic marker after failing to add their own prior to exposure
- adding a post-processing time stamp for delay images, example 30 minutes
- not including the patient name and date of the exam on the image
- electronically changing the field of view and cropping anatomy off of an image
- a tech adds a digital left or right anatomic marker after failing to add their own prior to exposure
- not including the patient name and date of the exam on the image
178
exposure latitude is defined as what
the range of exposures that produces quality images at an appropriate patient dose
179
a patient is unable to elevate their hand during a PA axial scaphoid projection. how should the tech angle the CR to compensate
10-15 degrees proximally
180
which projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine
lateral
181
which projection would BEST demonstrate the mortise joint
AP oblique with 15-20 degree medial rotation
182
what type of personnel dosimeter uses aluminum oxide as the absorbing material
optically stimulable luminescent dosimeter (OSL)
183
when is it acceptable for a radiographer to stand in the path of the primary beam
a radiographer should never stand in the path of the primary beam
184
in the following radiographic histogram, what does the x-axis represent
specific exposure values captured by the image receptor
185
radiation safety standards require that collimators be accurate within what percentage of the SID
2%
186
a cumulative timer must be provided and used with each fluoroscopic unit. this resettable device times the x-ray beam on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarliy interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for
5 minutes
187
on a lateral projection of the knee, what is the best way to prevent the joint from being obscured by the magnified shadow of the medial femoral condyle
angle the CR 5 degrees cephalad
188
what is the correct CR angle and entrance point for an AP axial projection of the coccyx
10 degrees caudad, 2" superior to the pubic symphysis
189
where would the distal tip of a tunneled line, such as a Hickman catheter, be located
superior vena cava
190
the purpose of a grid is to prevent scatter radiation from
reaching the IR
191
which of the following terms refers to the radiologic interventional procedure that is performed to remove calculi from within the renal pelvis or proximal ureter
percutaneous nephrolithotomy
192
the patient is lying on their left side and leaning slightly forward. the right knee and hip are bent and place in front of the left leg. this particular position is called what
sim's position
193
the international system of units (SI) associated with the measurement of effective dose is what
sievert
194
collimator misalignment must be within what percentage of the SID
2%
195
which two of the following are considered paralanguage
- tone of voice
- verbal interaction
- content of speech
- vocal identifiers
- tone of voice
- vocal identifiers
196
a histogram in digital radiography refers to what
frequency of recorded exposure values
197
a decrease in oxygen supply is called what
hypoxia
198
during digital image formation, quantization occurs in what
analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
199
the document in which patients identify the type and amount of nutritional and life-sustaining treatments desired at the end of life is referred to as which of the following
living will
200
how should linens or bedding that are soiled with body fluids be disposed of
placed in a bag marked "biohazard"
201
antiseptic agents are used to what
impeded the growth of microorganisms on living tissue
202
when positioning an elbow for an AP projection, what is the relationship between the humeral epicondyles and the IR
parallel to the IR
203
what is the primary site of drug metabolism
liver
204
a jones fracture is associated with which of the following bony strucutres
tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal
205
the dorsal surface of the foot refers to what
top surface
206
which radiation interaction with matter results in the greatest occupational exposure
compton
207
the safety features of fluoroscopic equipment include all of the following except
- bucky slot cover
- cumulative timer
- deadman switch
- high grid ratio
high grid ratio
208
according to the NRC, how frequently are occupational dose reports required to be made available to techs
annually
209
a reduction in the normal number of erythrocytes circulating in the blood is called
anemia
210
which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that is commonly first evident at the metacarpophalangeal joints
rheumatoid arthritis
211
according to the NCRP, the total filtration that is permanently fixed in the useful beam for fluoroscopic equipment that operate higher than 70 kVp may not be less than what
2.5 mm aluminum equivalent
212
cassette-based digital radiography is also known as what
computed radiography (CR)
213
a patient with a history of ulcerative colitis is scheduled for a lower GI study. what type of contrast media will be required for the exam
water soluble iodinated agent
214
which method of drug administration will achieve the highest serum concentrations of medication in the shortest time
intravenous (IV)
215
which part of a cassette less, indirect digital radiography (DR) image receptor produces light photons
scintillator layer
216
increasing the OID from 1" to 2" will result in
- decreased scatter production
- decreased spatial resolution
- increased scatter production
- increased spatial resolution
decreased spatial resolution
