Exam 1 Flashcards
(237 cards)
1
Q
What area is most likely to be damaged during childbirth?
A
perineal body
2
Q
This is the tube that allows the fetus gets out of the uterus during childbirth
A
cervix
3
Q
This phase of the menstrual cycle takes place from days 1-6; it involves low estrogen levels, scant and viscous cervical mucus, and the endometrium being shed
A
menstrual
4
Q
This phase of the menstrual cycle takes place from days 7-14; it involves the endometrium and myometrium thickening and the estrogen levels peaking before ovulation
A
proliferative
5
Q
this phase of the menstrual cycle takes place from days 15-26; it involves the estrogen levels dropping sharply, progesterone dominating, vascularity of the uterus increasing, and the uterus being made ready for implantation
A
secretory
6
Q
this is the hormone of pregnancy; this hormone allows the uterus to stay relaxed to keep the baby in the uterus to grow; also thickens endometrium to ready it for zygote
A
Progesterone
7
Q
uterine bleeding that usually begins 14 days after ovulation; this is the shedding of the inner lining of the uterus
A
menstruation
8
Q
this is the 1st day of period to the 1st day of the next period (averages 28 days)
A
menstrual cycle
9
Q
this hormone is crucial for maturing of egg follicle
A
estrogen
10
Q
these hormones help release the egg in ovulation and increase labor contractions and opening of the cervix for birth
A
prostaglandins
11
Q
___________ of basal body temp predicts ovulation; then after ovulation, BBT ____________ 1/2 degree
A
lowering; increases
12
Q
cervical mucus is usually ____________
A
thick
13
Q
during ovulation, the cervical mucus _____________ to allow sperm to reach ovum; this cervical mucus is stretchy like egg whites which is called ________________
A
thins; Spinnbarkeit
14
Q
making an egg (ovum)
A
oogenesis
15
Q
making sperm
A
speratogenesis
16
Q
union of a single egg and sperm; marks the beginning of pregnancy
A
conception
17
Q
one ovum (egg) matures and releases monthly during this time
A
ovulation
18
Q
Ova is only fertile for __________ after ovulation
A
24 hours
19
Q
sperm remain viable in female reproductive tract for _________________
A
2-3 days
20
Q
this is when the ovum’s membrane is penetrated by the sperm, the nuclei fuse, and the chromosomes combine
A
fertilization
21
Q
this occurs as the zygote travels the length of the tube to the uterus (3-4 days)
A
cleavage
22
Q
a 16 cell _____________ (72 hours after fertilization) “solid ball of cells” - gives rise to the ____________ with a hollow cavity
A
morula; blastocyst
23
Q
the blastocyst has 2 structures: the ____________ becomes the embryo while the ______________ becomes the placenta
A
embryoblast; trophoblast
24
Q
involves the trophoblast cells pushing into the endometrium and the bastocyst embedding into the uterus 6-10 days after conception
A
implantation
25
if the placenta implants near the cervix, it can cause ________________, which is dangerous for the baby
placental prolapse
26
these develop out of the trophoblast and extend into the endometrium; these obtain oxygen and nutrients from the maternal bloodstream and dispose of carbon dioxide and waste
chorionic villi
27
this lasts 280 days or 40 weeks
gestation
28
this is the stage of gestation from day 15 through 8 weeks; this is the most critical time in the development of organ systems; the baby is most vulnerable to malformations caused by environmental teratogens
embryonic
29
by the end of ___________, all organ systems are present
8 weeks
30
this cushions against impacts to the maternal abdomen; this maintains a stable temp and allows symmetric development; prevents membranes from adhering to developing fetal parts; allows room and buoyancy for fetal movement
amniotic fluid
31
in the fetal membrane, the ___________ is the inner membrane and the ___________ is the outer membrane
amnion; chorion
32
this begins at third week of embryonic development; causes development at site where embryo attaches to uterine wall
placental development
33
in the placenta, the ____________ side goes toward baby and has the umbilical cord attached while the ________ side goes away from baby and toward the uterus
shiny; messy
34
What are the 4 functions of the placenta?
1. transfers oxygen and nutrients to fetus
2. removes waste products and carbon dioxide
3. makes hormones
4. transfers antibodies from mother to fetus
35
this prevents direct contact between fetal and maternal blood
placental barrier
36
in the umbilical cord, there is ____________ artery(ies) and _________ vein(s)
2; 1
37
in the umbilical cord, two arteries carry ___________ blood
deoxygenated
38
in the umbilical cord, these carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta (mother)
two arteries
39
in the umbilical cord, one vein carries _____________ blood
oxygenated
40
in the umbilical cord, the __________ carries oxygenated blood from mother to fetus
vein (main vein)
41
this is what surrounds the vessels in the umbilical cord
Wharton's jelly
42
this is the stage of gestation from 9 weeks until the end of pregnancy
fetal
43
This is low amounts of amniotic fluid
oligohydramnios
44
this is too much amniotic fluid
polyhydramnios
45
in the fetal circulation, the _______________reaches the liver first and then bypasses the liver by passing through the ________________ and to the inferior vena cava (and ultimately to the right atrium)
umbilical vein; ductus venosus
46
in the fetal circulation, the ____________ connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the lungs
ductus arteriosus
47
in the fetal circulation, blood in the right atrium goes through the _________ into the left atrium then to left ventricle to aorta and out to the body
foramen ovale
48
the heart of the fetus starts to pulse (beat) around _____________, registering as a heartbeat on the ultrasound
5-6 weeks
49
the fetal heart is fully developed by ______________
week 10
50
this is considered the point of viability
20 weeks
51
these are fetal movements that are felt by the mother at about 20 weeks
quickening
52
____________ breathing movements are seen at 20 weeks
primitive
53
this is a cheesy skin cream that is starting to be present around 20 weeks
vernix caseosa
54
this is a fine hair that is present around 20 weeks
lanugo
55
these type of twins are identical - come from 1 ovum and 1 sperm
monozygotic
56
these type of twins are fraternal - come from 2 ova and 2 sperm
dizygotic
57
in monozygotic twins, early splitting before implantation in the womb results in ________________ placenta(s) and _______________ inner sac(s)
separate; separate
58
in monozygotic twins, implanting in the womb and then splitting early results in _____________ placenta(s) and ______________ inner sac(s)
shared; separate
59
in monozygotic twins, implanting into womb and then splitting later results in _____________ placenta(s) and _________________ inner sac(s)
shared; shared
60
for monozygotic twins, splitting later is the __________________ risk for accidents and issues
highest
61
this is used as standard practice in obstetrics to identify risk for genetic issues
genetic counseling
62
the external genitalia of the female is called the ___________
vulva
63
this is a highly muscular and distensible canal that is situated in front of the rectum and behind the bladder; this connects the vulva to the cervix
vagina
64
this is the main body of the uterus
corpus
65
this phase of the ovarian cycle is when the follicles in the ovary grow and form a mature egg
follicular
66
this phase of the ovarian cycle is when ovulation (or releasing of an egg) occurs
ovulatory
67
this phase of the ovarian cycle is when the follicle ruptures as it releases an egg, closing and forming a corpus luteum; occurs between days 15-28
luteal
68
after ovulation, ____________ and _________ are secreted; if no pregnancy occur, these hormone levels drop, causing the endometrium to be shed as menstrual bleeding
estrogen; progesterone
69
What 5 hormones are produced by the placenta?
1. chorionic gonadotropin
2. prolactin
3. estrogen
4. progesterone
5. relaxin
70
this hormone preserves the progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained; this is also the basis for pregnancy tests
chorionic gonadotropin
71
this hormone works with progesterone to cause relaxation of the pelvic ligaments and softens the cervix in prep for birth
relaxin
72
this hormone causes enlargement of a woman's breasts, uterus, and external genitalia; this also stimulates contraction
estrogen
73
this pregnancy genetic test occurs between 10-13 weeks (earliest); it consists of a tissue sample of the placenta, which reflects the fetal genetic makeup
chorionic villus sampling
74
this pregnancy genetic test occurs between 15 weeks to birth; this is a sample of the amnionic fluid
amniocentesis
75
this pregnancy genetic test occurs between 15-18 weeks; this is a sample of the woman's blood to evaluate plasma protein that is produced by the fetal liver, yolk sac, and GI tract, and crosses over into the amniotic fluid from the maternal blood
alpha-fetoprotein
76
this pregnancy genetic test occurs after 18 weeks; this is used to do a complete scan of the fetal anatomy
level 2 ultrasound/targeted ultrasound
77
these signs of pregnancy are changes that a woman experiences that make her think she might be pregnant; may be a result of physiological factors other than pregnancy
presumptive
78
What are the 7 presumptive signs of pregnancy?
1. amenorrhea
2. fatigue
3. nausea and vomiting
4. urinary frequency
5. breast changes
6. quickening
7. uterine enlargement
79
these are slight fluttering movements of the fetus felt by a woman between weeks 16-20
quickening
80
these signs of pregnancy are changes that make the examiner suspect that a woman is pregnant
probable
81
What are the 7 probable signs of pregnancy?
1. abdominal enlargement
2. Hegar's sign
3. Chadwick's sign
4. Goodell's sign
5. Braxton Hicks contractions
6. positive pregnancy test
7. fetal outline felt by the examiner
82
what is Hegar's sign
softening and compressibility of lower uterus
83
what is Chadwick's sign
deepened violet-bluish color of cervix and vaginal mucosa
84
what is Goodell's sign
softening of cervical tip
85
what are Braxton Hicks contractions
these are false contractions that are painless, irregular, and usually relieved by walking
86
What are the 3 positive indicators of pregnancy?
1. auscultation of fetal heart sounds
2. fetal movements felt by the examiner
3. visualization of the embryo or fetus by ultrasound
87
At how many weeks gestation can a fetus's heart sounds be auscultated?
8 weeks
88
A fetus's heart rate should be between _____________ bpm
110-160
89
this is considered the half-way point (20 weeks and cm) of fundal height in pregnancy.
umbilicus
90
this is the total number of times a woman has been pregnant
gravidity
91
never been pregnant and currently not pregnant
nulligravida
92
what is primigravida
1st pregnancy
93
what is multigravida
2nd or more pregnancy
94
what is parity
number of pregnancies that reaches 20+ weeks
95
what is nullipara
never had pregnancy 20+ weeks
96
what is primipara
had pregnancy before with fetus delivered at 20+ weeks; fetus may or may not have been born alive
97
what is multipara
2+ pregnancies before that were delivered at 20+ weeks
98
in GTPAL, this letter is the # term deliveries (37+ weeks)
T
99
in GTPAL, this letter is the # preterm deliveries (less than 37 weeks)
P
100
in GTPAL, this letter is the # abortions (spontaneous or other) less than 20 weeks
A
101
in GTPAL, this letter is the # living children; this letter is the only one that includes multiples are separate people
L
102
by 36 weeks gestation, the fundus will reach the ______________, possibly causing shortness of breath
xiphoid process
103
stimulates the growth of mammary ductal tissue during pregnancy
estrogen
104
promotes the growth of lobes, lobules, and alveoli (in the breasts) during pregnancy
progesterone
105
cardiac output, blood volume, and heart rate all _________, leading to the heart _____________
increase; enlarging
106
What position should a pregnant woman lay in to keep the uterus from compressing the vena cava?
left lateral
107
There is an increased risk of these during pregnancy due to the uterus partially obstructing blood return from the veins in the legs
varicose veins
108
iron absorption and clotting factors are both ____________ during pregnancy
increased
109
pregnancy is considered a _______________ state due to the increased risk of clots forming; this state also protects from hemorrhage during childbirth
hypercoagulable
110
in general, blood flow _______________ during pregnancy
increases
111
maternal oxygen needs and respiratory rate both _____________ and the total lung capacity ______________ during pregnancy
increase; decreases
112
during the later stages of pregnancy, the chest _______________, allows for lung expansion as the uterus pushes upward
enlarges
113
these 2 GI symptoms typically happen in the 1st trimester
N/V
114
This GI symptom can happen in the 1st trimester but typically happens in the later part of pregnancy due to uterine growth
constipation
115
during pregnancy, there is increased urinary _____________ but the amount of _______________ remains the same
filtration; urine
116
this is a common urinary symptom during pregnancy, especially during the 1st trimester and the 3rd trimester before the baby drops
urinary frequency
117
this is an increase of pigmentation on the face; often called the mask of pregnancy
chloasma
118
this is a dark line of pigmentation from the umbilicus extending to the pubic area that goes away after pregnancy
linea nigra
119
these are stretch marks that are most notably found on the abdomen and thighs; these may not go away completely after pregnancy but they will lighten
striae gravidarum
120
What can make cholasma worse?
being in the sun
121
what is a normal weight gain for pregnancy?
25-35 lbs
122
during the first trimester, the woman should gain __________ then she should gain _____________ per week for each week afterwards
5 lbs; 1 lb
123
this musculoskeletal alteration may occur during pregnancy due to the uterus tilting forward and the center of gravity being shifted; also responsible for the waddle toward the end of pregnancy
lordosis
124
this hormone causes the pelvic joints to relax and the gait to change
relaxin
125
this is a common discomfort of pregnancy that is pain on the sides that occurs as the fetus grows
round ligament pain
126
this GI symptom of pregnancy typically occurs towards the end of pregnancy
heartburn
127
facial edema, blurred vision, seeing floaters, edema in the hands, severe headaches, and epigastric pain are warning signs of a ____________________ or ______________
hypertensive condition; preeclampsia
128
flushed dry skin, fruity breath, rapid breathing, increased thirst and urination, and headache are danger signs of __________________
hyperglycemia
129
concurrent occurrence of clammy pale skin, tremors, irritability, and lighheadedness are danger signs of _________________
hypoglycemia
130
as the fetus becomes more hypoxic, activity is __________ to conserve oxygen consumption
reduced
131
this method of counting fetal movements involves counting fetal movements within 1-2 hours; ten distinct movements occurring in 1-2 hours is the desired result
count to 10
132
these tests are used to detect congenital anomalies (structural or functional); may be used to tell us the likelihood of, increased risk of, or genetic markers for genetic diseases
screening
133
these tests are the most precise test for a given condition; these are done when there is a possibility of a genetic disease; these tests are used to confirm genetic disease
diagnostic
134
high-frequency sound waves obtain real-time images of maternal structures, placenta, amniotic fluid, and fetus
ultrasound
135
ultrasound may be done early in pregnancy to determine _________ and ________________
growth; estimation of due date
136
ultrasound may be done late in pregnancy to determine ___________ and _______________
amount of amniotic fluid; health of fetus
137
this ultrasound is used to evaluate everything about the fetus and the structures of mom; used to confirm viability, evaluate fetal anatomy, determine gestational age, assess fetal growth, compare growth of multiple fetuses, evaluate biophysical profile, look for placenta previa, and determine fetal presentation (head-down or breech)
anatomy scan
138
this uses ultrasound to visualize physical and physiological characteristics of the fetus; also observes fetus for biophysical responses to stimuli; essentially a combo of FHR monitoring and fetal ultrasound
biophysical profile
139
What are the 3 indications for a biophysical profile?
1. nonreactive stress test
2. suspected oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios
3. suspected fetal hypoxemia or hypoxia
140
condition or state where there is a low arterial oxygen supply
hypoxemia
141
What 5 things are assessed for in a biophysical profile?
1. FHR
2. fetal breathing
3. body movements
4. fetal tone
5. amount of amniotic movement
142
this score of a biophysical profile is normal and is associated with low risk of chronic fetal asphyxia
8-10
143
this score of a biophysical profile is abnormal and is suspected of chronic fetal asphyxia; if of a later gestational age, baby may be considered for delivery
4-6
144
this score of a biophysical profile is abnormal and is strongly suspected of chronic fetal asphyxia; if of a later gestational age, the baby may be delivered
<4
145
this is a noninvasive procedure done during pregnancy that monitors the response of the FHR to fetal movement; client pushes a button whenever she feels a fetal movement, allowing a nurse to assess the FHR in relationship to fetal movement
non-stress test
146
a disadvantage of a non-stress test is that it has a high rate of ______________ results
false nonreactive
147
this is the normal result for a non-stress test; this is two or more accelerations within a 20-minute period
reactive
148
this is the abnormal result for a non-stress test; this is fewer than two accelerations within a 40-minute period
nonreactive (negative)
149
if the woman has ingested medications or substances, _____________ stimulation may need to be done during a non-stress test
vibroacoustic
150
this is an invasive procedure that is an aspiration of amniotic fluid from the uterus; usually performed mid-trimester, between 15-20 weeks; used to identify abnormalities, for confirmation of disorders, to determine fetal lung maturity, and to diagnose infections and amniotic fluid volume disorders
amniocentesis
151
typically, results from an amniocentesis are not available for _______________
10-14 days
152
for an amniocentesis, the bladder needs to be __________ prior to the procedure to reduce the risk of puncture
empty
153
following an amniocentesis, the client needs to rest for _______________
30 minutes
154
______________ needs to be administered following an amniocentesis for moms that are Rh-negative
RhoGam
155
for an amniocentesis: _______________ is used to identify the largest pockets of amniotic fluid that can safely be sampled and the abdomen is prepared aseptically; a _____________ is inserted into the pocket of fluid and ________ mL of fluid is discarded; approx. ____________ mL of fluid is removed for examination
ultrasonography; spinal needle; 1-2; 20
156
_______ points indicate normal while ________ points indicates abnormal for a biophysical profile
2; 0
156
This is when the fetal head begins to descend and engage in the pelvis at the end of pregnancy
lightening
157
this is a normal finding in pregnancy that is a lowered hematocrit and hemoglobin
physiologic anemia of pregnancy
158
analysis of the FHR response to contractions (which decrease placental blood flow) determines how the fetus will tolerate the stress of labor
contraction stress test
159
hyperstimulation of the uterus, which is uterine contraction longer than _________ seconds or ________ or more contractions in 10 minutes, should be avoided during a contraction stress test
90; 5
160
during a contraction stress test, contractions started with _____________ can be difficult to stop and can lead to preterm labor
oxytocin
161
avoid oxytocin-stimulated contraction stress test with ___________ incision from C-section, due to high-risk of rupturing uterus from previous c-section
classic
162
assessment of a portion of the developing placenta (chorionic villi); first-trimester alternative to amniocentesis to provide an earlier diagnosis of any abnormalities
chorionic villus sampling
163
CVS is ideally performed at ______________ weeks gestation, which is the earliest intrauterine test available
10-13
164
a ___________ is necessary for CVS testing
full bladder
165
this is a blood test that provides info about the likelihood of fetal birth defects, but it does not diagnose
quad marker screening
166
quad marker screening is ____________ reliable than the maternal AFP blood level
more
167
What 4 substances are screened in quad marker screening
1. hcg
2. AFP
3. Estriol
4. Inhibin A
168
low levels of AFP can indicate a risk for _____________
down syndrome
169
high levels of AFP can indicate a risk for _______________ or __________________
neural tube defects; open abdominal defect
170
levels _______________ than the expected reference range of hCG and inhibin A indicates a risk for down syndrome
higher
171
______________ levels than the expected reference range of estriol can indicate a risk for down syndrome
lower
172
a screening tool used primarily to detect neural tube defects
maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
173
What 2 conditions can bleeding early in pregnancy indicate?
spontaneous abortion or ectopic pregnancy
174
What 2 conditions can bleeding late in pregnancy indicate?
previa or abruption
175
end of pregnancy due to natural causes before 20 weeks
spontaneous abortion
176
This type of spontaneous abortion causes possible mild cramps, slight spotting, no tissue passage, and a closed cervical opening; in this type, which can usually save the fetus and allow the woman to continue the pregnancy
threatened
177
This type of spontaneous abortion causes mild to moderate cramps, moderate bleeding, no tissue passage, and a (usually) dilated cervical opening; membranes may also be ruptured; when this happens, there is a good chance the fetus cannot be saved
inevitable
178
This type of spontaneous abortion causes severe cramps, heavy and profuse bleeding, tissue passage, and cervical dilation with tissue in the cervical canal or passage of tissue
incomplete
179
This type of spontaneous abortion causes mild cramps, minimal bleeding, tissue passage, and no cervical opening (due to cervix closing after the tissue passed)
complete
180
This type of spontaneous abortion causes no cramps, none or minimal spotting, no tissue passed (due to prolonged retention of tissue) and a closed cervix; this type may progress to inevitable type; this one is usually caught when the woman is having a checkup and no heart tones are heard - ultrasound confirms fetal death
missed
181
2 surgical procedures that are done to dilate the cervix and clear out all remaining fetal tissue
D&C or D&E
182
these 2 medications may be used to help the body expel the fetus in a miscarriage
prostaglandins and oxytocin
183
when a miscarriage has occurred, a small amount of discharge is normal for _________________
1-2 weeks
184
this is abnormal implantation of the ovum outside of the uterine cavity (most often the fallopian tubes)
ectopic pregnancy
185
What are the 3 expected findings of an ectopic pregnancy?
1. unilateral stabbing pain
2. tenderness in lower quadrant
3. scant dark red/brown vaginal spotting
186
in an ectopic pregnancy, bleeding may be ____________ if rupture of fallopian tube occurs
red
187
this is done in an ectopic pregnancy to confirm an empty uterus
transvaginal ultrasound
188
this type of management is done in an ectopic pregnancy if rupture has not occurred and tube preservation is desired
medical
189
this is used in an ectopic pregnancy to inhibit cell division and embryo enlargement, which dissolves the pregnancy
methotrexate
190
this surgical procedure is done in an ectopic pregnancy to salvage the fallopian tube if it is not ruptured
salpinostomy
191
this is done in an ectopic pregnancy when the tube has ruptured; this is removal of the fallopian tube
salpingectomy
192
if a fallopian tube is lost, her chances of pregnancy _______________
decrease
193
this occurs when the placenta implants in the lower segment of the uterus, covering all or part of the cervical opening
placenta previa
194
in a normal pregnancy, the placenta implants into the ______________ of the uterus
fundus
195
for a placenta previa, the main symptom will be __________________ during 2nd or 3rd trimester, with a ______________ than expected fundal height
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding; higher
196
What 3 fetal presentations may be present in a previa?
breech, oblique, or transverse
197
this type of previa is characterized by a placenta that has implanted low in the uterus but is not covering the cervical opening
low-lying placenta
198
this type of previa is characterized by a low-implanted placenta that is covering the cervical opening very little
margical placenta
199
this type of previa is characterized by a low-implanted placenta that is covering the cervical opening between 50-100%
partial previa
200
this type of previa is characterized by a low-implanted placenta that is completely covering the cervical opening
complete previa
201
What should not be done when a woman has a previa?
vaginal exams
202
this medication is used to help stimulate fetal lung development in a pre-term pregnancy
betamethasone
203
this is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus
placental abruption
204
this type of abruption is characterized by the placenta partially pulling away from the uterus
partial
205
this type of abruption is characterized by the placenta completely pulling away from the uterus
complete
206
an abruption occurs after ___________ gestation
20 weeks
207
What are the 4 main expected findings of an abruption?
1. sudden onset of intense localized uterine pain
2. dark red vaginal bleeding
3. uterine tenderness
4. "board-like" uterus
208
What is the only management for an abruption?
delivery
209
describes a weak, structurally defective cervix that spontaneously dilates in the second/early third trimester, leading to loss of pregnancy unless dilation and effacement is stopped
cervical insufficency
210
What are the 4 expected findings of cervical insufficiency?
1. possible increase in pelvic pressure
2. pink-stained discharge/bleeding
3. ROM
4. uterine contractions
211
this is the treatment for cervical insufficiency; this is when a tie/rubber band/purse-string stitch is put on the cervix to keep it closed; removed before giving birth
cerclage
212
severe form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy
hyperemesis gravidarum
213
hyperemesis may only go away with ____________
delivery
214
this is impaired glucose tolerance that is first recognized or begins during pregnancy
gestational diabetes
215
What are the 4 fetal complications of (uncontrolled) gestational diabetes?
1. macrosomia
2. birth trauma
3. electrolyte imbalance
4. hypoglycemia
216
infants blood glucose should be above ____________
45
217
this is hypertension (>140/90) that begins after 20 weeks gestation with no proteinuria; blood pressure will return to normal by 12 weeks PP
gestational hypertension
218
this is gestational hypertension with possible headaches, possible edema (of the hands/face), and possible proteinuria (kidney involvement)
preeclampsia
219
this is preeclampsia with a BP>160/110, greater than 3+ proteinuria, an elevated blood creatinine (>1.1), headaches and blurred vision, hyperreflexia, extensive peripheral edema, and epigastric and RUQ pain (liver involvement)
severe preeclampsia
220
this is when you pull the foot back and let good and their foot taps against your hand; the number of taps is the beats of this; tied to hyperreflexia
clonus
221
this is severe preeclampsia and onset of seizure activity or coma
eclampsia
222
What are the 3 symptoms that eclampsia is usually preceded by?
1. Headache
2. severe epigastric pain (liver involvement)
3. hyperreflexia
223
this grade of DTRs is when the reflex is absent with no DTR elicited
0
224
this grade of DTRs is when there is a hypoactive, sluggish response
1
225
this grade of DTRs is when there is a reflex in the lower half of normal range
2
226
this grade of DTRs is when there is a reflex in the upper half of normal range
3
227
this grade of DTRs is when there is a hyperactive, brisk reflex; clonus is present
4
228
this is a variant of gestational hypertension that causes hemolysis resulting in anemia and jaundice, elevated liver enzymes (elevated ALT/AST, epigastric pain, nausea/vomiting), and low platelets (less than 100000) (thrombocytopenia, abnormal bleeding and clotting time, petechiae, and possible DIC)
HELLP syndrome
229
this may be the only way to reverse the syndrome, even if not at term yet
delivery
230
this is the main medication used to treat severe preeclampsia and eclampsia; this is an anticonvulsant that is the medication of choice to depress CNS and prevent seizures)
magnesium sulfate
231
magnesium sulfate needs to be infused on a ____________
pump
232
What is the most common side effect of magnesium sulfate?
warm and flushed feeling
233
magnesium sulfate can also be used to prevent ____________
preterm labor
234
the mom will need a ________________ when on magnesium sulfate
urinary catheter
235
What are the 5 main manifestations of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
1. absence of DTRs
2. urine output less than 30 mL/h
3. RR less than 12
4. decreased LOC
5. cardiac dysrhythmias
236
What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate?
calcium gluconate
