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Adult Care 3 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the normal range for the PR interval?

A

0.12 to 0.20 seconds

This range indicates the time it takes for electrical impulses to travel from the atria to the ventricles.

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2
Q

What is the normal range for the QRS complex?

A

<0.10 seconds

A normal QRS complex duration indicates proper ventricular depolarization.

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3
Q

What is the normal range for the QT interval?

A

<0.44 seconds

The QT interval reflects the time from the onset of ventricular depolarization to the end of repolarization.

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of sinus rhythm?

A
  • Atrial and ventricular rates of 60-100 bpm
  • P waves are present and consistent
  • P waves are in a 1:1 ratio with QRS complexes
  • PR interval between 0.12-0.20 seconds
  • QRS complexes are consistently spaced

Sinus rhythm is the normal rhythm of the heart.

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5
Q

What defines sinus tachycardia?

A
  • Atrial and ventricular rates of >100 bpm
  • Regular rhythm
  • P waves are in a 1:1 ratio with QRS complexes
  • PR interval 0.12 to 0.20 seconds, QRS <0.10 seconds

Treatment for sinus tachycardia depends on the underlying cause.

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6
Q

What are the symptoms of sinus bradycardia?

A
  • Syncope
  • Dizziness
  • Weakness
  • Confusion
  • Hypotension
  • Diaphoresis
  • Shortness of breath
  • Chest pain

Treatment for symptomatic bradycardia includes atropine.

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7
Q

What are premature atrial contractions (PACs)?

A
  • Ventricular rate of 60-100 bpm
  • P wave and PR interval may vary
  • Early beats initiated by the atrium

PACs can be asymptomatic or cause palpitations.

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8
Q

What characterizes atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Rate may be normal or rapid
  • P waves are not identifiable
  • PRI is undeterminable
  • QRS <0.10 seconds
  • Irregularly irregular

Treatment includes rate control and anticoagulation.

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9
Q

What are the treatment options for atrial flutter?

A
  • Correct rhythm and rate
  • Similar methods as atrial fibrillation

Atrial flutter is characterized by a fast and regular atrial rate.

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10
Q

What defines premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

A
  • Atrial and ventricular rates of 60-100 bpm
  • Regular rhythm (excluding PVC)
  • Unifocal vs Multifocal

Unifocal PVCs originate from the same area, while multifocal vary in appearance.

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11
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Ventricular rate of >140 bpm
  • No P waves
  • Wide and bizarre QRS complexes

Treatment differs if the patient has a pulse or not.

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of ventricular fibrillation?

A
  • Indiscernible rate
  • No identifiable P, QRS, or T waves

This is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.

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13
Q

What does asystole indicate?

A

No electrical activity

Requires assessment using 2 leads to confirm.

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14
Q

What are the characteristics of supraventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Atrial and ventricular rate of 100-280 bpm
  • Regular rhythm
  • P waves and PR interval indiscernible

Treatment includes beta blockers and vagal maneuvers.

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15
Q

What are the nonmodifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease?

A
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Family history

Men over 45 and women over 55 are at increased risk.

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16
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease?

A
  • Smoking
  • Inactivity
  • Obesity
  • High cholesterol
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension

Addressing these factors can significantly reduce risk.

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17
Q

What is stable angina?

A
  • Chest discomfort with exertion
  • Pain is reproducible and relieved by rest

Treatment focuses on lifestyle changes and education.

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18
Q

What distinguishes unstable angina from stable angina?

A
  • Chest pain may occur at rest
  • Associated with temporary vessel occlusion
  • May show T wave inversion or ST depression

Troponin levels are usually normal in unstable angina.

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of myocardial infarction?

A
  • Complete deprivation of O2 to heart
  • STEMI shows ST elevation and + troponin
  • NSTEMI shows no ST elevation and + troponin

Immediate intervention is critical for patient survival.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of a stress test?

A
  • Assesses myocardial perfusion changes with exertion

Can be done via exercise or pharmacologic methods.

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21
Q

What is the significance of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)?

A

ABI of <0.9 is diagnostic of peripheral artery disease (PAD)

This test compares blood pressure in the ankle with that in the arm.

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22
Q

What are the 6 P’s of ischemia?

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Paresthesia
  • Paralysis
  • Poikilothermia

These symptoms help in assessing ischemic conditions.

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23
Q

What is MONA in the context of acute coronary syndrome treatment?

A
  • Morphine
  • Oxygen
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Aspirin

This acronym helps remember the initial treatment steps for ACS.

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24
Q

What is the role of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors in ACS?

A

Stops thrombus formation

Examples include abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban.

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25
What are some contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy?
* Prior intracranial hemorrhage * Known structural vascular lesion * Active bleeding * Ischemic stroke within 3 months ## Footnote These factors must be considered before administering tPA.
26
What are the complications associated with peripheral artery disease?
* Ulcer formation * Limb weakness * Skin color changes * Poor or absent hair growth ## Footnote These symptoms indicate poor perfusion and require prompt attention.
27
What medications are used to treat peripheral artery disease?
* Antiplatelets (ASA, Clopidogrel) * Antihypertensives * Statins * Pentoxifylline ## Footnote These medications help manage symptoms and improve blood flow.
28
What does 'mia' refer to in a medical context?
Cool to touch
29
What should be assessed for in patients with potential cardiac issues?
Medical history of CAD or previous cardiac diagnoses
30
What are key components of patient education regarding cardiac health?
Risk factors, disease management, exercise programs
31
How does smoking affect blood vessels?
1 cigarette = 1 hour of vasoconstriction
32
What should be avoided to prevent complications related to decreased sensation?
Trauma, heat, or sunburn to legs or feet
33
What lifestyle factors should patients avoid to improve vascular health?
Stress, caffeine, nicotine
34
What position should the legs be in to promote blood flow?
Freely hanging
35
What are common medications used for cardiac patients?
* Antiplatelets (ASA & Clopidogrel) * Antihypertensives * Statins * Pentoxifylline (Trental) * Cilostazol (Pletal)
36
What procedures are related to vascular interventions?
* Percutaneous Vascular intervention * Mechanical rotational abrasive atherectomy * Angioplasty * Stenting * Endarterectomy * Bypass surgery (e.g., fem-pop bypass)
37
What are the signs and symptoms of Peripheral Venous Disease?
* Venous eczema * Phlebitis * DVT * Unilateral swelling * Unilateral pain * Warmth * Erythema * Hardening along the vessel
38
What is a common treatment for venous insufficiency?
Elastic compression stockings during the day and evening
39
What should patients with venous issues be taught regarding leg elevation?
Elevate legs for 20 minutes 4-5 times/day
40
What is the purpose of calf-pumping exercises?
To promote venous return and prevent stasis
41
What should be avoided to prevent venous ulcers?
Prolonged periods of inactivity
42
What is an example of a device used to treat venous ulcers?
Sequential gradient compression device
43
What topical agent is used for treating open venous ulcers?
Occlusive dressings and topical agents like Una boot containing zinc oxide
44
What procedures are used for treating venous disease?
* Ligation * Vein stripping * Sclerotherapy * Endogenous ablation
45
What are assessment findings for Valve Disease?
* HF symptoms * S3 and S4 heart sounds * Wide pulse pressure * Murmur
46
What is mitral stenosis characterized by?
Decreased volume of blood traveling from left atrium to left ventricle
47
What can mitral stenosis lead to as a complication?
Right-sided heart failure
48
What is a major concern with mitral regurgitation?
Poor valve closing allows backflow of blood from left ventricle to left atrium
49
What condition can aortic stenosis lead to?
Left heart failure first, then right heart failure
50
What is a key diagnostic tool for valve disease?
Bedside echocardiogram
51
What medications are commonly prescribed for valve diseases?
* Diuretics * Beta-blockers * ACE inhibitors * Digoxin
52
What is the purpose of endocarditis prophylaxis?
To prevent infection in patients with valve repair or replacement prior to dental procedures
53
What is balloon valvuloplasty used for?
To open a valve using a balloon
54
What types of valves are used in valve replacement?
* Prosthetic (synthetic) * Biologic (tissue)
55
What is infective endocarditis most commonly caused by?
Streptococcus or Staphylococcus bacteria
56
What are the signs and symptoms of infective endocarditis?
Increased clotting in the heart due to vegetative lesions on the valves
57
What is the primary complaint in pericarditis?
Chest pain
58
What is a characteristic sound associated with pericarditis?
Pericardial friction rub
59
What is Beck's triad associated with cardiac tamponade?
* JVD * Muffled or distant heart sounds * Low blood pressure
60
What condition is characterized by thin heart muscle and poor contraction?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
61
What is a genetic condition that leads to thickened ventricular muscle?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
62
What is a potential treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
AICD (defibrillator)
63
What surgical options exist for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
* Myomectomy * Ablation * Heart transplant

Adult Care 3 (5 decks)

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