Respiratory Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What are the main topics covered in Module 1 of the NRSE 4610 Final Exam?

A

Dysrhythmias, Acute Coronary Syndrome, Cardiac Problems, Vascular Problems

Approximately 15-20 items will focus on these topics.

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2
Q

What are the key areas of focus in Module 2 of the NRSE 4610 Final Exam?

A

Emergency, Disaster, Trauma, Shock, Burns

Approximately 15-20 items will focus on these topics.

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3
Q

What topics are included in Module 4 of the NRSE 4610 Final Exam?

A

Kidney disease, Spinal cord injuries, Biliary and pancreas problems

Approximately 15-20 items will focus on these topics.

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4
Q

What are the main subjects covered in Module 5 of the NRSE 4610 Final Exam?

A

Noninfectious and infectious respiratory problems

Approximately 40-50 items will focus on these subjects.

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5
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Nosebleed

Causes include trauma, inflammation, hypertension, and other factors.

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6
Q

What are common causes of anterior epistaxis?

A

Trauma to the nose, inflammation, hypertension, blood dyscrasias, decreased humidity, blowing or picking nose, cocaine use

Older adults tend to bleed from the posterior portion of the nose.

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7
Q

What is a key assessment finding for posterior epistaxis?

A

Bleeding is not visible, making it harder to assess the amount of blood loss

Can lead to airway obstruction.

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8
Q

What is the initial intervention for treating epistaxis?

A

Head forward, apply pressure, and use ice on the nose

This prevents aspiration and helps control bleeding.

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9
Q

What intervention is used for posterior epistaxis?

A

Nasal tampon

It applies pressure and absorbs blood, preventing it from going into the throat.

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10
Q

What should patients avoid after an episode of epistaxis?

A

Blowing nose, sneezing, bending down, lifting objects, exercise

Saline nasal spray can help prevent recurrence.

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11
Q

What are the two types of nasal fractures?

A

Displaced and nondisplaced

Displaced fractures are misaligned, while nondisplaced fractures remain in alignment.

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12
Q

What is a key assessment for nasal fractures?

A

ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and patency of the airway

Assess for bruising and crepitus.

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13
Q

What is the treatment for a displaced nasal fracture?

A

Closed reduction within 24 hours

May involve manually manipulating the nasal bones back into alignment.

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14
Q

What is a risk associated with mandibular fractures?

A

Jaw stabilization and possible ORIF (Open Reduction and Internal Fixation)

Patients may have jaw wired shut for 6-10 weeks.

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15
Q

What are the signs of laryngeal trauma?

A

Aphonia, hoarseness, subcutaneous emphysema, tracheal deviation, stridor

These symptoms warrant immediate medical attention.

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16
Q

What is the primary risk factor for head and neck cancer?

A

Smoking and alcohol use

Poor oral hygiene and exposure to irritants are also contributing factors.

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17
Q

What are the common presenting symptoms of head and neck cancer?

A

Cough, difficulty swallowing, lumps in neck, voice changes, sores not healing

Change in fit of dentures and ear pain may also occur.

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18
Q

What is pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Increased pressure inside the lungs due to constricted blood vessels

Can lead to right-sided heart failure.

19
Q

What is the primary treatment for idiopathic pulmonary hypertension?

A

Symptom management, lung transplant, or heart transplant

No cure exists; treatment focuses on slowing progression.

20
Q

What are common symptoms of pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Dyspnea, fatigue, symptoms of right-sided heart failure

Can include fluid overload, JVD, and edema.

21
Q

What is the diagnostic procedure for right-sided heart failure?

A

Heart catheterization

Different from left-sided heart catheterization.

22
Q

What medications are used for pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

Endothelin-Receptor antagonists, prostacyclin agents, guanylate cyclase stimulators

Each has specific risks and side effects.

23
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

A restrictive lung disease characterized by scarring and thickening of alveoli

Diagnosis is often made via CT scan showing a honeycomb pattern.

24
Q

What is the primary concern following lung cancer surgery?

A

Nutrition and oral care

Patients may have difficulty eating and managing saliva post-surgery.

25
What are common risk factors for seasonal influenza?
Older adults, immunocompromised individuals, children, diabetics, those with chronic diseases ## Footnote Vaccination is crucial for prevention.
26
What is the preferred diagnostic test for influenza?
RT-PCR ## Footnote It distinguishes between influenza A and B with high accuracy.
27
What treatment is recommended for patients at risk for severe influenza?
Antivirals ## Footnote Should be administered within 24-48 hours of symptom onset.
28
What are the risk factors for tuberculosis?
Immunocompromised individuals, homeless, elderly, and community-type settings ## Footnote Most people infected will remain asymptomatic.
29
What are common symptoms of tuberculosis?
Fatigue, cough at night, fever, productive cough with blood, chest pain ## Footnote Crackles may also be heard upon assessment.
30
What is the first line treatment for tuberculosis?
Combination drug therapy including isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol ## Footnote Treatment duration can extend up to 2 years.
31
What should patients taking isoniazid be aware of?
Take on an empty stomach and report liver toxicity symptoms ## Footnote It can deplete B-complex vitamins.
32
What is a common complication of rifampin?
Reddish-orange staining of skin and urine ## Footnote It also decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
33
What should be reported if a patient experiences dark urine, yellowing of eyes or skin, or easy bruising?
These indicate liver toxicity or failure ## Footnote It's important to monitor liver function in patients on certain medications.
34
What is the expected effect of Rifampin on urine and skin?
Reddish-orange staining of skin and urine is expected ## Footnote This is a common side effect of Rifampin.
35
What should females who are sexually active do when taking certain medications?
Decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives ## Footnote It is important to add an alternative contraceptive method.
36
What effect does PZA have on uric acid levels?
Increases uric acid formation and will make gout worse ## Footnote Patients should be advised to drink 80 oz of water with the tablet.
37
What precaution should be taken due to photosensitivity?
Increases risk of sunburn ## Footnote Patients should be advised to limit sun exposure.
38
What is the effect of Ethambutol on gout?
Makes gout worse ## Footnote It is important to take this medication with water.
39
What complication is associated with all drugs mentioned?
Risk of liver failure ## Footnote Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol.
40
Fill in the blank: Patients should report _______ as it indicates liver toxicity.
dark urine, yellowing of eyes or skin, or easy bruising
41
True or False: Rifampin causes green staining of urine.
False ## Footnote Rifampin causes reddish-orange staining.
42
What should be avoided while taking medications that risk liver failure?
Alcohol ## Footnote Alcohol can exacerbate liver toxicity.
43
What is the recommended water intake with PZA to prevent worsening of uric acid levels?
80 oz ## Footnote This helps to dilute uric acid and prevent gout flare-ups.