Exam 1 Flashcards
(54 cards)
0
Q
Which of the following is the common name for osteogenesis imperfecta? (p. 767) A. Fractures syndrome B. Brittle bone disease C. Thinned-bone disease D. Osteopetrosis
A
B. Brittle bone disease
1
Q
Osteoblast and osteoclast activity is highly regulated by vitamin D and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 766) A. Parathyroid hormone B. Vitamin C C. Whey proteins D. Osteometalerins
A
A. Parathyroid hormone
2
Q
Which of the following may manifest with the appearance of blue sclerae? (p. 767) A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Achondroplasia C. Osteopetrosis D. Osteoporosis
A
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
3
Q
Type II osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal in utero due to severe instability of Type I collagen fibers. (p. 767)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
4
Q
Thanatophoric dwarfism is a lethal condition associated with an FGFR3 mutations and is present in 1 out of every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ live births. (p. 767) A. 5,000 B. 20,000 C. 100,000 D. 400,000
A
B. 20,000
5
Q
The most common pattern of inheritance for osteopetrosis is autosomal _________, which has mild clinical features. (p. 767)
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
A
A. Dominant
Recessive is lethal/severe
6
Q
Which of the following is a group of disorders that produces dense, solid, stone-like bone? (p. 767) A. Osteoporosis B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Osteodysplasia D. Osteopetrosis
A
D. Osteopetrosis
7
Q
Bone mass begins to decline as soon as age \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 768) A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 45 years D. 55 years
A
A. 25 years
8
Q
Which of the following is not commonly associated with the development of osteoporosis? (p. 769) A. Corticosteroids B. Alcohol C. Animal fats D. Malabsorption
A
C. Animal fats
9
Q
Plain radiographs (x-rays) require a \_\_\_\_\_ loss of bone mass before osteopenia becomes evident. (p. 770) A. 5% B. 25% C. 40% D. 55%
A
C. 40%
10
Q
The axial skeleton or the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is involved in approximately 80% of all cases of Paget disease. (p. 771) A. Humerus B. Femur C. Pelvis D. Knee
A
B. Femur
11
Q
Which of the following is the “adult counterpart” of rickets? (p. 771) A. Paget disease B. Osteomalacia C. Chalkstick syndrome D. Osteomyelitis
A
B. Osteomalacia
12
Q
This image best demonstrates a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fracture. (p. 772) A. Osteonecrotic B. Closed C. Comminuted D. Osteoporotic
A
C. Comminuted
13
Q
Which of the following manifests with pronounced subperiosteal resorption on the radial aspect of the middle phalange? (p. 772) A. Paget disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Osteomalacia D. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
A
B. Hyperparathyroidism
14
Q
Which of the following is the microbial agent associated with most cases of osteomyelitis in adults? (p. 773) A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella spp. C. Cytomegalovirus D. Staphylococcus aureus
A
D. Staphylococcus aureus
15
Q
Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly spreads from the lungs to the bone via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ system to causes tuberculous osteomyelitis. (p. 774) A. Respiratory B. Hematogenous C. Lymphatic D. Ventricular
A
B. Hematogenous
16
Q
Hematogenous spread of tuberculous osteomyelitis is most likely to cause infection of the long bones or the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 774) A. Spleen B. Calvaria C. Vertebral column D. Femur
A
C. Vertebral column
17
Q
The majority of bone tumors develop ______ in life and are asymptomatic. (p. 775)
A. Early
B. Late
A
A. Early
18
Q
A benign, solitary, exophytic tumor on the skull of a 44-year-old male is most likely to be a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 775) A. Chondrosarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Osteoma D. Osteoblastoma
A
C. Osteoma
19
Q
Which of the following bone tumors appears as a round-to-oval mass with a rim of sclerotic bone? (p. 776) A. Osteoid osteoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Osteoma D. Ewing sarcoma
A
A. Osteoid osteoma
Also osteoblastoma
20
Q
Which of the following commonly involves the bones of the spinal column and may manifest poorly-localized pain? (p. 776) A. Osteoma B. Osteoid osteoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteoblastoma
A
D. Osteoblastoma
Does NOT respond to aspirin
21
Q
Which of the following is a malignant bony neoplasm that is commonly diagnosed near the knee among individuals age 10-20 years? (p. 776) A. Chondrosarcoma B. Osteoblastoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Giant cell tumor
A
C. Osteosarcoma
22
Q
Cartilage-forming bone tumors are most frequently malignant neoplasms. (p. 777)
A. True
B. False
A
B. False - benign
23
Q
The lesion shown in the image to the right is most likely a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 777) A. Osteoid osteoma B. Osteochondroma C. Giant cell tumor D. Osteosarcoma
A
B. Osteochondroma
24
```
When a chondroma arises within the medulla of the bone it is termed a(n) _________. (p. 778)
A. Medullary chondroma
B. Juxtacortical chondroma
C. Enchondroma
D. Chondromasaurus
```
C. Enchondroma
25
Which is larger, a fibrous cortical defect or a nonossifying fibroma? (p. 779)
A. Fibrous cortical defect
B. Nonossifying fibroma
B. Non-ossifying fibroma
| 5-6cm vs 0.5cm
26
```
Fibrous dysplasia is monostotic in _____ of all cases. (p. 779)
A. 3%
B. 30%
C. 70%
D. 90%
```
C. 70%
27
```
Which form of fibrous dysplasia is most likely to be a progressive disease with severe skeletal complications? (p. 780)
A. Monostotic
B. Giant cell tumor of bone
C. Polyostotic
D. McCune-Albright syndrome
```
C. Polyostotic
28
```
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with distortion of the facial bones? (p. 780)
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Fibrous cortical defect
C. Osteochondroma
D. Fibrous dysplasia
```
D. Fibrous dysplasia
29
```
Which of the following does not have well-established malignant potential? (p. 781)
A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Giant-cell tumor of bone
D. Osteosarcoma
```
C. Giant cell tumor of bone
30
```
Most giant-cell tumors of bone are ________ and _________. (p. 781)
A. Solitary, osteolytic
B. Multiple, osteolytic
C. Solitary, osteoblastic
D. Multiple, osteoblastic
```
A. Solitary, osteolytic
31
```
A small percent of giant-cell tumor of bone cases metastasize to the _____. (p. 781)
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Heart
D. Lungs
```
D. Lungs
32
```
Early osteoarthritis is associated with changes to the articular cartilage that include reduced _________ and increased water content. (p. 783)
A. Eburnation
B. Heberden nodes
C. Inflammation
D. Proteoglycans
```
D. Proteoglycans
33
```
Rheumatoid arthritis is up to ________ more common among females. (p. 784)
A. 2 times
B. 5 times
C. 20 times
D. 100 times
```
B. 5 times
34
```
Which of the following is most likely to result in synovitis? (p. 784)
A. Vertebral compression fracture
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Fibrous cortical defect
```
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
35
```
Pannus formation is associated with ________. (p. 785)
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Chondrosarcoma
```
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
36
```
Rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to involve which of the following joints? (p. 785)
A. Sacroiliac
B. Ankles
C. Hips
D. Temporomandibular joints
```
B. Ankles
37
```
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is categorized as arthritis that onsets prior to age _____ and lasts for atleast ______. (p. 786)
A. 12, 4 weeks
B. 16, 6 weeks
C. 18, 2 weeks
D. 12, 6 weeks
```
B. 16, 6 weeks
38
```
Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy? (p. 786)
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Acute gouty arthritis
```
C. Psoriatic arthritis
39
Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are negative for Rheumatoid Factor and HLA-B27. (p. 786)
A. True
B. False
B. False
40
```
Gout is associated with and accumulation of monosodium urate crystals, which develop secondary abnormal ________ metabolism. (p. 786)
A. Pyrimidine
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Lipid
D. Purine
```
D. Purine
41
```
Which of the following conditions may result in secondary gout? (p. 787, Table 20-3)
A. Anemia
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Leukemia
D. Osteomyelitis
```
C. Leukemia
42
Your 59-year-old patient has recurrent knee pain and you take this x-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis? (p. 789) (bilateral calcification of knee menisci)
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Secondary gout
C. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease
D. Hydroxyapatite deposition disease
C. Calcium pyro phosphate deposition disease
43
```
Your 35-year-old patient has suppurative arthritis. Which microbe is most likely to be contained within the joint aspiration? (p. 789)
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Staphylococcus aureus
```
D. Staphylococcus aureus
44
```
Following an untreated Borrelia burgdorferi infection, chronic polyarthritis and encephalitis may develop within _______. (p. 789)
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
```
D. 3 years
45
A ganglion is commonly located near the tendinous sheaths of the wrist and communicates with the joint space. (p. 790)
A. True
B. False
B. False
| Ganglions do not communicate with the joint space, cysts do
46
```
The most common location for soft tissue tumor development is the _________. (p. 791)
A. Thorax
B. Upper extremity
C. Lower extremity
D. Hand
```
C. Lower extremity
47
Liposarcomas are malignant neoplasms of adipocytes that commonly affect adults in their 50s. (p. 792)
A. True
B. False
A. True
48
If a soft tissue tumor is located in a ________ structure, it has a more favorable prognosis. (p. 792)
A. Deep
B. Superficial
B. Superficial
49
```
Metaplastic bone that commonly develops in the proximal muscles of the extremities following localized trauma is most likely to be ___________. (p. 793)
A. Osteoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Myositis ossificans
```
D. Myosotis ossificans
50
```
Deformities resulting from fibroblastic proliferations, such as Peyronie disease, are considered _____________. (p. 793)
A. Fasciitis
B. Myositis fobrossificans
C. Fibromatoses
D. Nodular fasciitis
```
C. Fibromatoses
51
```
Rhabdomyosarcoma is most commonly diagnosed during _________. (p. 794)
A. Infancy
B. Adolescence
C. Young adulthood
D. Older adulthood
```
B. Adolescence
52
```
A painless abdominal neoplasm with cigar-shaped nuclei is most likely to be a ________. (p. 795)
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Nodular fasciitis
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Leiomyoma
```
C. Leiomyosarcoma
53
```
Synovial sarcomas commonly involve an (X;18) translocation and tend to develop _______________. (p. 795)
A. Near the knee
B. In the retroperitoneal space
C. Near the inferior vena cava
D. Within the proximal thigh
```
A. Near the knee
