Exam 4 Flashcards
(102 cards)
0
Q
Which of the following is an intraepithelial antigen-presenting cells located in the skin and mucosa? (p. 851) A. Keratinocytes B. Lentiginous histiocytes C. Langerhans cells D. Basement membrane
A
C. Langerhans cells
1
Q
Which of the following results from a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor, which causes uncontrolled activation of the complement system? (p. 852) A. Urticaria B. Hereditary angioedema C. Acute eczematous dermatitis D. Lichen planus
A
B. Hereditary angioedema
2
Q
Urticaria is most likely to affect which population? (p. 852) A. Infants B. Adolescents C. Young adults D. Older adults (elderly)
A
C. Young adults
20-40 years old
3
Q
What is the characteristic histological feature for all forms of acute eczematous dermatitis? (p. 853) A. Spongiosis B. Plaque formation C. Salmon-colored plaques D. Dermal scarring
A
A. Spongiosis
4
Q
Please select the 2 best answers for the following question.
Children with atopic dermatitis are likely to demonstrate the “atopic triad,” which involves atopic dermatitis and which 2 other conditions? (p. 853)
A. Asthma
B. Lichen simplex chronicus
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Pemphigus foliaceus
A
A. Asthma
C. Allergic rhinitis
5
Q
A targetoid skin lesion developed immediately following the administration of penicillin and is most likely to be diagnosed as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 853) A. Erythema multiform B. Psoriasis C. Lyme disease D. Urticaria
A
A. Erythema multiforme
6
Q
Individuals with psoriasis are more likely to suffer from a heart attack. (p. 854)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
7
Q
Well-demarcated, pink-to-salmon colored plaque covered by loosely adherent silver-white scale is the characteristic appearance of which chronic inflammatory dermatosis? (p. 854) A. Herpes simplex virus B. Psoriasis C. Bullous pemphigoid D. Actinic keratosis
A
B. Psoriasis
8
Q
When local trauma induces the development of psoriasis, it is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 854) A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Koebner phenomenon C. Pruritus D. Erythema
A
B. Koebner phenomenon
9
Q
Please select the 2 best answers for the following question.
Which bacterial agents are commonly associated with the development of impetigo? (p. 856)
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
A
B. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
10
Q
Fungal infections located within the dermis are likely to produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and may be angioinvasive (invade the blood vessels). (p. 857) A. Angiogenesis B. Granulomas C. Verrucae D. Vesicles
A
B. Granulomas
11
Q
Most verrucae are caused by distinct low-risk human papillomavirus types that lack potential for malignant transformation. (p. 857)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
12
Q
Blistering disorders are traditionally classified according to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ involved. (Figure 23-8, p. 858) A. Body quadrant B. Immunoglobulin C. Cutaneous layer D. Leukocyte
A
C. Cutaneous layer
13
Q
Which of the following involves subcorneal acantholysis? (p. 858)
A. Pemphigus foliaceus
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
A
A. Pemphigus foliaceus
14
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by a subepidermal, non-acantholytic blister. (p. 860) A. Acantholytic bullous B. Pemphigus foliaceus C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Bullous pemphigoid
A
D. Bullous pemphigoid
15
Q
Which of the following is triggered by the linear deposition of IgG antibodies at the epidermal basement membrane? (p. 861) A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Pemphigus foliaceus D. Bullous pemphigoid
A
D. Bullous pemphigoid
16
Q
Bullous pemphigoid is more resistant to rupture than a pemphigus because the roof of the bullous involves the full-thickness of the epidermis (p. 861)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
17
Q
Dermatitis herpetiformis is commonly pruritic. (p. 961)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
18
Q
Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop dermatitis herpetiformis? (p. 861) A. A 12-year-old female B. A 20-year-old female C. A 31-year-old male D. A 55-year-old male
A
C. A 31-year-old male
20-30 years old, male
19
Q
Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with a herpes simplex virus infection. (p. 861)
A. True
B. False
A
B. False
Celiac’s disease
20
Q
Which dysplastic skin lesion precedes cancer of the epidermis? (p. 862) A. Common melanocytic nevus B. Melanoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Actinic keratosis
A
D. Actinic keratosis
21
Q
Local eradication is the standard management for actinic keratosis. (p. 862)
A. True
B. False
A
A. True
Cryotherapy (Freezing) is MC
22
Q
Which of the following is a slowly progressive skin cancer that rarely metastasizes and frequently involves dysregulation of the Hedgehog pathway? (p. 864) A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Malignant mesothelioma
A
B. Basal cell carcinoma
23
Q
Dysplastic nevus syndrome is most likely to cause the development of hundreds of dysplastic nevi on areas of __________. (p. 866)
A. Little sun exposure
B. High sun exposure
A
A. Little sun exposure
24
```
Which of the following is the most aggressive form of skin cancer? (p. 867)
A. Melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Small cell lung cancer
```
A. Melanoma
25
Melanoma is most likely to develop in areas of __________. (p. 867)
A. Little sun exposure
B. High sun exposure
B. High sun exposure
26
Please select the 2 best answers for the following question.
The most important clinical signs of an aggressive melanoma is a change in _______ or ______. (p. 868)
A. Color
B. Elevation
C. Size
D. Vascularity
A. Color
| C. Size
27
```
Which condition is the most common? (p. 657)
A. Hypospadias
B. Testicular cancer
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Epispadias
```
A. Hypospadias
28
```
Smoking and __________ increase the risk of development of penile squamous cell carcinoma? (p. 657)
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Human papillomavirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Chlamydia virus
```
B. Human papillomavirus
| HPV 16 and 18
29
```
Squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the penis gives rise to infiltrating squamous cell carcinoma inapproximately _____ of cases. (p. 657)
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 90%
D. 99%
```
B. 10%
30
Cryptorchidism may cause testicular atrophy by age 6 years and is associated with an increased risk of testicular cancer. (p. 658)
A. True
B. False
A. True
31
```
Cryptorchidism is bilateral in approximately ______ of affected patients. (p. 658)
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 95%
D. 99%
```
A. 10%
32
```
Testicular seminomas are most likely to be diagnosed in which of the following patients? (Table 17-1, p. 660)
A. 3-year-old male
B. 25-year-old male
C. 31-year-old female
D. 48-year-old male
```
D. 48-year-old male
| 40s and 50s
33
```
Which nonseminomatous germ cell tumor of the testes always produces hCG? (Table 17-1, p. 660)
A. Embryonal carcinoma
B. Seminoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Teratoma
```
C. Choriocarcinoma
A. None
B. 10%
D. None
34
```
Testicular germ cell neoplasms most commonly present as ________ masses that are _______ upon transillumination. (p. 662)
A. Painful, non-translucent
B. Painless, non-translucent
C. Painful, translucent
D. Painless, translucent
```
B. Painless and non-translucent
35
Testicular seminomas are sensitive to radiation therapy and have a favorable prognosis following treatment. (p. 663)
A. True
B. False
A. True
36
```
Prostate cancer is most likely to develop in which region of the prostate? (p. 663, 667)
A. Central zone
B. Transitional zone
C. Peripheral zone
D. Urethral aqueduct of Sylvius
```
C. Peripheral zone
37
```
Which of the following is the most common type of prostatitis? (p. 664)
A. Acute bacterial
B. Chronic bacterial
C. Acute nonbacterial
D. Chronic nonbacterial
```
D. Chronic nonbacterial
| 90-95%
38
```
Approximately ____ of men with evidence for BPH will have clinical manifestations. (p. 664)
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 99%
```
A. 10%
39
Prostate cancer is the most common cause of cancer-related death among males. (p. 665)
A. True
B. False
B. False
| MC diagnosed in males
40
```
Which of the following is the most common form of prostate cancer? (p. 665, 666)
A. Teratoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Papilloma
D. Adenocarcinoma
```
D. Adenocarcinoma
41
Osteoblastic metastasis to the axial skeleton is common in the early stages of prostatic cancer. (p. 667)
A. True
B. False
B. False
| Common in advanced stages
42
Diverticula of the urinary bladder are most commonly _________. (p. 668)
A. Congenital
B. Acquired
B. Aquired
43
```
Bladder cancer most commonly presents as _____________. (p. 670)
A. Melena
B. Painless hematuria
C. Painful hematuria
D. Cystitis
```
B. Painless hematuria
44
```
Which of the following is the non-painful ulcerative lesion associated with primary syphilis? (p. 672)
A. Chancroid
B. Chancre
C. Condylomata lata
D. Condylomata acuminata
```
B. Chancre
Condylomata lata - 3* lesion
45
```
A chancre associated with primary syphilis will resolve within _______ without treatment. (p. 672)
A. The first 2 weeks
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 2-4 months
```
C. 4-6 weeks
46
```
Mulberry molars are associated with ________ syphilis. (p. 674)
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Congenital
```
D. Congenital
| Also saddle nose deformity, periostitis, Hutchinson's teeth
47
```
The primary concern for an infant who contracts a transcervical Neisseria gonorrhoeae infectionis damage to the infant’s ___________. (p. 675)
A. Bone marrow
B. Liver
C. Eyes
D. Heart
```
C. Eye
| Ophthalmia neonatorum
48
Please select the 2 best answers for the following question.
The clinical features of which 2 infections are nearly indistinguishable in males? (p. 676)
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chancroid
C. Human papillomavirus
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
| D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
49
```
Which of the following is most likely to produce a painful ulceration on the penis? (p. 677)
A. Syphilis
B. Chancroid
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Prostatitis
```
B. Chancroid
50
```
Which of the following is commonly asymptomatic infection among males? (p. 678)
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Treponema palladium
```
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
51
```
Which of the following causes thinning and fibrosis of the epidermis of the vulva? (p. 682)
A. Lichen simplex chronicus
B. Condylomata lata
C. Lichen sclerosis
D. Condylomata acuminata
```
C. Lichen sclerosis
52
```
Which vulvar condition causes hyperkeratosis secondary to chronic irritation? (p. 682)
A. Lichen sclerosis
B. Lichen simplex chronicus
C. Condylomata lata
D. Herpes simplex chronicus
```
B. Lichen simplex chronicus
53
Condylomata _________ is associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) infections. (p. 683)
A. Lata
B. Acuminata
B. Acuminata
54
```
The majority of vulvar cancers are _________. (p. 683)
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Urothelial carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma
```
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
| 90%
55
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) commonly develops prior to the onset of vulvar carcinoma in women who have been infected with high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (HPV). (p. 683)
A. True
B. False
A. True
56
Most cases of vaginitis indicate the presence of vaginal carcinoma. (p. 684)
A. True
B. False
B. False
57
Acute cervicitis among reproductive-age women is ___________ than compared to chronic cervicitis. (p. 685)
A. More common
B. Less common
B. Less common
58
```
Which percent of low-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasms (CIN) will spontaneously regress? (p. 686)
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 60%
D. 95%
```
C. 60%
59
Please select the 2 best answers for the following question.
Which 2 forms of human papillomavirus (HPV) have the strongest association with invasive cervical carcinoma? (p. 686, 688)
A. HPV-6
B. HPV-11
C. HPV-16
D. HPV-18
C. HPV-16
| D. HPV-18
60
```
Which of the following is the most common form of cervical cancer? (p. 687)
A. Carcinoid
B. Teratoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma
```
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
| 75%
61
Most of the mortality related to cervical cancer is the result of local invasion, not distant metastasis. (p. 687)
A. True
B. False
A. True
| MC from renal failure
62
```
Which of the following involves inflammation of the endometrium? (p. 689)
A. Endometriosis
B. Leiomyoma
C. Cervical cancer
D. Endometritis
```
D. Endometritis
63
```
A “chocolate cyst” is associated with which condition? (p. 690)
A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Endometriosis
C. Endometritis
D. Gynecomastia
```
B. Endometriosis
64
```
Which of the following is most likely to produce endometrial hyperplasia? (p. 691)
A. Leiomyoma
B. Reduce estrogen
C. Excessive estrogen
D. Leiomyosarcoma
```
C. Excessive estrogen
65
```
An endometrial carcinoma is most likely to develop in which of the following patients? (p. 692)
A. A 17-year-old female
B. A 31-year-old female
C. A 42-year-old female
D. A 68-year-old female
```
D. A 68-year-old female
66
```
Which of the following is a benign uterine tumor, commonly referred to as a uterine fibroid? (p. 693)
A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Leiomyoma
C. Endometrial polyp
D. Leiomyosarcoma
```
B. Leiomyoma
67
Leiomyosarcomas develop from high-grade leiomyomas. (p. 694)
A. True
B. False
B. False
| Develop from mesenchyme cells of the myometrium
68
Salpingitis commonly produces pelvic pain and increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy or becoming sterility. (p. 695)
A. True
B. False
A. True
69
```
Most ovarian malignancies develop from ___________. (p. 696)
A. Trophoblastic cells
B. Surface epithelial cells
C. Germ cells
D. Multiple germ cell layers
```
B. Surface epithelial cells
70
A malignant serous tumor of the ovary is most likely to develop in a woman who is _________. (p. 697)
A. Younger
B. Older
B. Older
| 45-65 years old
71
```
If an ovarian mass is discovered, it is most likely to be a teratoma if the patient is a __________. (p. 696, 698)
A. 15-year-old female
B. 30-year-old female
C. 40-year-old male
D. 50-year-old female
```
A. 15-year-old female
72
Which of the following is the most common mechanism of placental infection? (p. 701)
A. Ascension through the birth canal
B. Transplacental hematogenous spread
A. Ascension through the birth canal
73
```
All gestational trophoblastic tumors produce __________. (p. 701)
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Norepinephrine
C. Calcium
D. Human chorionic gonadotrophon
```
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
74
```
Which is the most common location for implantation during an ectopic pregnancy? (p. 701)
A. Ovary
B. Abdominal peritoneum
C. Oviduct
D. Cervix
```
C. Oviduct
75
```
The development of hypertension, accompanied by proteinuria and edema during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy occurs in ____ of all pregnancies. (p. 703-704)
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 65%
D. 95%
```
A. 10%
76
```
Which of the following is the most common benign neoplasm of the female breast? (p. 707)
A. Invasive lobular carcinoma
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Fat necrosis
D. Fibroadenoma
```
D. Fibroadenoma
77
```
The lifetime risk for a female living in the United States to develop breast cancer is 1 in ____. (p. 708)
A. 8
B. 40
C. 150
D. 700
```
A. 8
78
```
Ionizing radiation to the breast tissue prior to the age of _________ have an increased risk of breast cancer development. (p. 709)
A. 9 years
B. 30 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years
```
B. 30
79
Which of the following is more likely to produce calcifications? (p. 710)
A. Lobular carcinoma in situ
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Ductal
80
```
The most common form of breast cancer is __________. (p. 711)
A. Invasive lobular carcinoma
B. Tubular carcinoma
C. Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma
D. Invasive ductal carcinoma
```
D. Invasive ductal carcinoma
81
Breast cancer demonstrating estrogen receptors have a ________ prognosis. (p. 713)
A. More favorable
B. Less favorable
A. More favorable
82
```
Which of the following is the least likely location for breast cancer to metastasize to? (p. 713)
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Adrenal glands
```
C. Skeletal muscle
83
```
Gynecomastia is most likely to develop in a patient with which of the following conditions? (p. 714)
A. Ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Turner syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Retinoblastoma
```
C. Klinefelter syndrome
84
```
Extramedullary hematopoiesis is least likely to occur within the __________. (p. 408)
A. Spleen
B. Bone marrow
C. Liver
D. Thyroid
```
B. Bone marrow
85
Disorders of erythrocytes are most likely to cause __________. (p. 408)
A. Polycythemia
B. Anemia
B. Anemia
86
```
A newly formed red blood cell is a _________. (p. 408)
A. Leukocyte
B. Reticulocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Stalactite
```
B. Reticulocyte
87
```
Extravascular hemolysis is most likely to take place within the spleen and the _________. (p. 409)
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Central nervous system
D. Heart
```
B. Liver
88
Which of the following types of hemolysis is most common? (p. 409)
A. Intravascular hemolysis
B. Extravascular hemolysis
B. Extravascular hemolysis
89
Severe forms of hemolytic anemia may result in extramedullary hematopoiesis. (p. 409)
A. True
B. False
A. True
90
An inherited enzyme deficiency resulting in hemolytic anemia is an example of an ___________defect. (p. 409)
A. Extracorpuscular
B. Intracorpuscular
B. Intracorpuscular
91
```
Splenectomy provides relief from the anemic symptoms associated with ___________. (p. 411)
A. Leukemoid reactions
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Anemia of blood loss
D. Sickle cell anemia
```
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
92
```
Sickle cell disease may lead to hypoxia-induced fatty changes in the heart, liver, and ________. (p. 412)
A. Renal tubules
B. Distal extremities
C. Periungual region
D. Neurons
```
A. Renal tubules
93
```
The leading causes of death among patients with sickle cell anemia are stroke and __________. (p. 413)
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Acute chest syndrome
C. Hemosiderinuria
D. Heart attack
```
B. Acute chest syndrome
94
```
Patients with β-thalassemia major, receiving repeated blood transfusions, are at risk for developing which condition? (p. 416)
A. Hematopoiesis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Hemosiderinuria
D. Hemochromatosis
```
D. Hematochromatosis
95
Iron excretion is regulated in the proximal convoluted tubule. (p. 420)
A. True
B. False
B. False
96
```
The most frequent cause of anemia is ______. (p. 420)
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Prosthetic heart valves
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Iron deficiency
```
D. Iron deficiency
97
```
If you have a patient who explains the symptoms of pica and fatigue, your probability of _________ should increase. (p. 421)
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
B. Folate deficiency anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
```
D. Iron deficiency anemia
98
```
Deficiencies of folate and vitamin B12 produces ___________. (p. 422)
A. Trinucleotide repeats
B. Megaloblasts
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Demyelination disorders
```
B. Megaloblasts
99
Your (future) patient explains she is “always tired,” and is “unsteady” on her feet. You also notice pallor and mild scleral jaundice. Which form of megaloblastic anemia is most likely present in this patient? (p. 423)
A. Folate deficiency anemia
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
100
```
Bone marrow infiltration by secondary metastasis of lung cancer cells is a common cause of which one of the following? (p. 424)
A. Polycythemia
B. Prosthetic heart valves
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Myelophthisic anemia
```
D. Myelophthistic anemia
101
Aplastic anemia commonly results in a total reduction of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. (p. 424)
A. True
B. False
A. True
