Exam 1 Flashcards
(182 cards)
1
Q
What is health defined as?
A
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being (it is not merely the absence of disease)
2
Q
What are three determinants of health?
A
Individual’s biology and behavior, physical and social environments, and access to quality healthcare
3
Q
What is disease defined as?
A
An interruption of the normal structure or function of the body
4
Q
What is the difference between organic and functional disease?
A
Organic disease causes structural changes in the body while functional disease causes no changes
5
Q
What is an example of a functional disease?
A
Irritable bowel syndrome
6
Q
What is an example of a condition that causes damage but has no symptoms?
A
High blood pressure
7
Q
What are the four types of etiologic factors?
A
Biological, physical forces, chemical agents, and nutritional excesses and deficits
8
Q
What are two examples of a physical force as an etiologic factor?
A
Trauma, burns
9
Q
What is an example of a chemical agent as an etiologic factor?
A
Alcohol
10
Q
Can a single disease affect more than one organ?
A
Yes
11
Q
What does pathophysiology provide the basis for?
A
Preventative and therapeutic health measures and nursing practice
12
Q
What does it mean to say that a disease is multifactorial?
A
This means that it has many causes
13
Q
What are the two different types of predisposing risk factors?
A
Congenital and acquired
14
Q
What is a congenital risk factor?
A
One that is present at birth
15
Q
What are some treatment-associated risk factors? (Name 3).
A
Allergies, immunizations, medications
16
Q
What is pathogenesis?
A
The sequence of cellular events that takes place from the initial contact with the pathogen until the disease is expressed
17
Q
What is morphology?
A
The fundamental structure of cells or tissues
18
Q
What are gross anatomic changes?
A
Changes on the large scale
19
Q
What is a lesion?
A
A general term for a traumatic discontinuity of a body organ
20
Q
What is a syndrome?
A
A compilation of signs and symptoms characteristic of a specific disease state
21
Q
What are complications?
A
Possible adverse extensions of a disease or adverse outcomes of a treatment
22
Q
What are sequelae?
A
A result of a complication (ex, your liver is cirrhotic and you become jaundiced)
23
Q
What is a diagnosis?
A
The designation as to the nature or cause of a health problem
24
Q
What two factors is a diagnosis based on?
A
The health history and physical exam
25
What is deductive reasoning?
It goes from general info to specific info
26
What is inductive reasoning?
It goes from specific info to general
27
Syllogism is a form of what type of reasoning?
Deductive
28
How do we use probability theory to solve problems?
By drawing a conclusion given the probability of which evidence of most likely
29
What are three major categories of diagnostic tests?
MRIs, x-rays, ultrasounds
30
What does validity measure?
Does the test measure what it is supposed to measure?
31
What does reliability measure?
Are the test results consistent?
32
Are the reference ranges for diagnostic tests in all hospitals the same?
No
33
What percent of normal, healthy individuals fall within normal reference ranges?
95%
34
How are reference ranges defined?
By testing normal volunteers and plotting the frequency distribution
35
What is an acute disorder? (three characteristics)
It is usually self-limiting, severe, and has a sudden onset
36
What is a chronic disorder?
A long-term disorder with variations in severity
37
What is a subacute disease?
A disease that is not as severe as acute and not as prolonged as chronic
38
What does it mean to say a disease is in the preclinical stage?
It is not currently clinically evident, but it will definitely progress to clinical disease
39
What is a subclinical disease?
A disease that is not clinically apparent and will not become so
40
What is "clinical disease"?
A disease with signs and symptoms
41
What is a "carrier" of a disease?
A person who carries the disease but has no signs/symptoms -- can still infect others
42
What three things can a congenital disease be due to?
Genetic abnormalities, intrauterine injuries, or environmental factors
43
What is a degenerative disease?
It involves the breakdown of various parts of the body
44
What is a metabolic disease?
A disease that involves a disruption in cell energy processes
45
What is a neoplastic disease?
A disease characterized by abnormal cell growth
46
What is homeostasis?
The maintenance of a stable internal environment
47
What kinds of feedback systems maintain homeostasis, negative or positive?
Negative
48
What are Cannon's four features of homeostasis?
1. Homeostasis requires mechanisms to maintain it. 2. Homeostasis requires that any tendency toward change meet with factors that resist change. 3. The system that maintains homeostasis consists of a number of systems acting simultaneously or successively 4. Homeostasis does not happen by chance
49
What are control systems?
A collection of interconnected components that work to keep the physical and chemical components of the body constant
50
What are endogenous vs exogenous stressors?
Endogenous stressors come from within the body and exogenous come from outside the body
51
What is General Adaptation Syndrome?
The predictable way that the body responds to stress
52
What are the three stages of General Adaptation Syndrome?
Alarm, Resistance/Adaptation, and Exhaustion
53
What occurs in the alarm stage of General Adaptation Syndrome?
The CNS is aroused by a release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
54
What happens during the resistance/adaptation stage of GAS?
The body responds to the stressor and attempts to maintain homeostasis
55
When does the third stage of GAS occur?
When stress is chronic and the body does not have a chance to recover
56
At what stage of GAS does organ damage begin?
At stage three
57
Which type of stress is "good stress"?
Eustress
58
What two bodily systems mediate the stress response?
Nervous and endocrine
59
What pathway is the stress response mediated by in the endocrine system?
The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal cortex pathway
60
What types of hormones are released in the endocrine stress response?
Glucocorticoids
61
What type of hormone is cortisol?
A glucocorticoid
62
What two hormones are secreted by the sympathetic nervous system during the stress response?
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
63
What are the results of cortisol release in the body?
Depressed immune system and increased blood glucose
64
How does cortisol release affect which parts of the body uses glucose?
It decreases the use of glucose in the peripheral areas of the body so that more can be used by the brain
65
Which nervous system relaxes the bronchi?
The sympathetic
66
Which nervous system stimulates the release of glucose by the liver?
Sympathetic
67
Which nervous system relaxes the bladder and why?
The sympathetic nervous system, so that it can fill with more urine (need to use the bathroom is delayed)
68
Which nervous system stimulates gallbladder activity?
The parasympathetic
69
Which nervous system contracts the bladder?
Parasympathetic
70
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are what types of hormones?
Adrenal catecholamines
71
Which nervous system do adrenergic receptors target?
The sympathetic system
72
Where are beta 2 receptors located?
Lungs
73
Where are beta 1 receptors located?
Heart
74
What are four effects of alpha receptors?
Increase glucose, vasoconstriction, muscle contraction and decreased insulin secretion
75
What are four effects of beta receptors?
Decreased insulin, vasodilation, muscle relaxation, and increased insulin secretion
76
Does renin secretion increase or decrease during the stress response?
Increase
77
What do both acute and chronic stress do to growth hormone?
Acute stress increases levels; chronic stress decreases it
78
What effect does the renin-angiotensin system have on blood pressure?
Increases it
79
What organ releases renin?
Kidneys
80
What does renin convert in the RAAS system?
Angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
81
What converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?
ACE
82
What hormone does angiotensin II stimulate the adrenal cortex to release?
Aldosterone
83
What effect does aldosterone have on kidneys and thus on blood pressure?
It causes the kidneys to retain sodium, which causes water retention, which increases BP
84
What are three symptoms of PTSD?
Flashbacks, avoidance and hyperarousal
85
Which stress pathway results in the release of cortisol?
The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal cortex pathway
86
What is the function of the limbic system?
It is involved with emotions like fear and anger
87
What part of the brain functions as the relay center?
The thalamus
88
Which system modulates mental alertness and muscle tone?
The reticular activating system
89
What are plasma cells?
Mature B cells that produce one specific type of antibody
90
Name three physical barriers in the first line of defense of immunity.
Skin, mucous membranes, cilia
91
How does lysosome kill bacteria?
By breaking down the cell walls
92
In what line of defense does lysosome work?
First line of defense
93
What is the pH of the stomach?
1-2
94
What activates complement in the body?
The entry of a pathogen into the body
95
What line of defense in immunity are NK cells a part of?
The second line of defense (non-specific)
96
What is a major function of the spleen?
To filter old and dying red blood cells
97
Where are the stem cells that develop into lymphocytes housed in the body?
In the red bone marrow
98
What are the three different types of lymphocytes?
NK cells, T cells, and B cells
99
What are primary lymphatic organs?
Organs like the thymus where lymphocytes mature
100
What is a secondary lymphatic organ?
Where the immune response occurs
101
Does more lymph drain to the thoracic duct or the right lymphatic duct?
The thoracic duct
102
What vitamin does E. coli synthesize?
Vitamin K
103
What are the three sides of the epidemiologic triangle?
Host, agent, and environment
104
What dormant virus causes shingles?
Herpes zoster
105
When should antibiotics be given?
During the growth phase of the bacteria
106
What is another name for mycoplasma pneumonia?
Walking pneumonia
107
What organisms serve as the vectors for Rickettsia organisms? (name three)
Fleas, ticks, and lice
108
What is an ectoparasite? Give an example
An organism that lives outside of the body -- ie, bedbugs
109
What are the links in the chain of infection?
Pathogen, reservoir, portal of exit, transmission, portal of entry, new host
110
What is the lifespan of a neutrophil?
About 48 hours
111
What two granulocytes are involved in allergic responses?
Basophils and eosinophils
112
What are the three types of granulocytes?
Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils
113
What do elevated lymphocytes signify?
A viral infection
114
What do elevated monocytes and macrophages indicate?
A severe, ongoing infection
115
What type of agranulocyte is responsible for phagocytosis?
Monocytes
116
What does it mean to say that there is a "shift to the left" with neutrophils?
It means that more immature neutrophils are present
117
What are "band cells"?
Immature neutrophils
118
What are "polys"?
Mature neutrophils
119
What are "segs"?
Another name for mature neutrophils
120
What two cytokines do macrophages secrete that are involved in fever?
TNF and interleukin 1
121
What cells in the body present MHC I?
All nucleated cells
122
What type of MHC do macrophages present?
MHC II
123
What cells are activated by the presence of MHC II on professional antigen presenting cells?
Helper T cells
124
What do elevated basophils indicate?
An acute allergic reaction
125
What do elevated neutrophils indicate?
A bacterial infection
126
What type of granulocyte will be elevated in a parasitic infection?
Eosinophils
127
What is the formula for the absolute value of a wbc count?
Relative value (percentage) times total WBC
128
What is leukocytosis?
High white blood cell count
129
What two suffixes are used to indicate high wbc counts?
-phila and -cytosis
130
What does a decreased WBC count indicate?
That something, such as chemo, is interfering with WBC creation in the bone marrow
131
What are the critical values for a WBC count that is very high or very low?
Under 2500 cells/mm3 and over 30,000 cells/mm3
132
What is formula for absolute neutrophil count?
WBC x (% Neutrophils + % Bands)
133
What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
The rate at which rbc settle out of anticoagulated blood in one hour
134
What effect does the inflammatory process have one the ESR and why?
It increases it, because inflammation causes red blood cells to stick together more
135
Where is C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesized?
In the liver
136
What is elevated CRP a marker of?
Heart disease
137
What is serial dilution used for?
To obtain a countable number of organisms in a sample
138
The acute inflammatory response can only occur in what type of tissue?
Vascularized tissue
139
What is hypoxia?
Low oxygen levels in the blood
140
What cells release heparin in the cellular inflammatory response?
Mast cells
141
What does bradykinin do?
It increases capillary permeability and is involved in causing pain
142
What inflammatory mediator causes fever?
Prostoglandins
143
What effect do leukotrienes have on vessel permeability?
They increase it
144
What is a serous inflammatory exudate?
Watery and low protein
145
What is a purulent inflammatory exudate?
Contains pus
146
What is a serosanginous inflammatory exudate?
Watery and bloody with a pink tinge (has a few red blood cells)
147
What is a granuloma?
A small lesion that occurs in chronic inflammation
148
What is a pyrogen?
Any agent that produces a fever
149
What is an intermittent fever?
One that returns to normal every 24 hours
150
What is a remittent fever?
One that varies within a few degrees
151
What is a relapsing fever?
Multiple episodes of fever with a day or more of normal temps in between
152
What is myalgia? What is it a symptom of?
Muscle pain -- it is a symptom of fever
153
What is arthralgia? What is it a symptom of?
Pain in the joints -- symptom of fever
154
How long must fever be present for to be determined a fever of unknown origin?
3 weeks
155
Memory and specificity are characteristic of what types of cells?
B cells
156
What are acute phase proteins?
A class of proteins that increase or decrease in response to inflammation
157
What are the first cells to arrive during the acute phase response?
Neutrophils
158
What are the mechanisms of body heat production? (name two)
Vasoconstriction of the skin vessels and contraction of pilomotor muscles
159
Headache in fever is the result of what?
Cerebral vasodilation
160
A fever of unknown origin must be above what temperature?
101F
161
What medical conditions is a FOU associated with? (name 2)
Cirrhosis, cancer
162
Which type of exudate secretes a thick sticky meshwork?
Fibrinous
163
What is a membranous exudate?
An exudate composed of necrotic cells in fibrous, pus-y material
164
What is the second stage of fever?
The "flush" stage
165
During what stage of fever is the skin warm and dry?
Stage 2 ("Flush")
166
What is the third stage of fever?
Defervescence
167
What is the first stage of fever?
Shaking/chills stage
168
When does sweating occur during fever?
During the third stage (defervescence)
169
Which chemical mediator is involved in asthma and allergies?
Leukotrienes
170
Interleukins, TNF, and interferons are what type of chemical mediator?
Cytokines
171
What inflammatory response do bradykinins mediate? (Name 4)
Pain, swelling, redness, and tissue warmth
172
What inflammatory response do prostoglandins mediate? (Name 4)
Swelling, redness, tissue warmth and pain
173
What inflammatory response does histamine mediate?
Swelling, redness and tissue warmth
174
What is the main inflammatory mediator?
Histamine
175
What cells release histamine?
Mast cells, basophils and platelets
176
How does histamine effect the blood vessels and blood flow?
It causes increased blood flow and increased capillary permeability
177
What are the three types of plasma proteases?
Kinins, complement proteins, and clotting factors
178
What is a common cause of low-grade fever after injury?
Release of prostoglandins
179
What effect do prostoglandins have on blood flow and vascular permeability?
They increase both
180
What type of granulocytes does platelet activating factor attract and what type does it activate?
It activates neutrophils and attracts eosinophils
181
Do the elderly have a lower or higher basal temperature?
Lower
182
What kind of food should be given to those with fever?
Simple carbs
