Exam 1 Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

Are fungi classified as eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

eukaryotic

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2
Q

What is the structural element that comprises a fungus?

A

hyphae

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3
Q

Which class of fungi has a non-septate mycelium?

A

Zygomycetes/phycomycetes

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4
Q

Why are certain fungi classified as “Fungi Imperfecti”?

A

lack sexual phase, or their sexual phase is unknown

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5
Q

How does the function of reproductive mycelia differ from that of vegetative mycelia?

A

vegetative mycelium grow below the surface of the medium and anchor the fungus secretes enzymes making them able to absorb nutrients; reproductive mycelium project above the surface of the medium, this is where spores are located

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6
Q

To which class do most pathogenic fungi belong?

A

Deutermycetes

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7
Q

What term best describes the nutritional characteristics of fungi?

A

saprophytic/saprotrophic

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8
Q

Are fungi aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

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9
Q

What is the best single medium for the primary isolation of fungi?

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SBA/Sabs)

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10
Q

What is the purpose of corn meal agar?

A

nutritionally deprives the organisms so that sporulation will occur

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11
Q

How long should routine fungal cultures be held before being discarded?

A

minimum of four weeks

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12
Q

What three things does the mounting medium lactophenol cotton blue do?

A

preserves fungal structures, reduce contamination of the environment, and stains the hyaline fungal structures

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13
Q

When a systemic mycosis has spread to various organs, what term is used to describe it?

A

disseminated

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14
Q

What organism is best described as a thick-walled yeast cell with buds attached by a broad base?

A

Blastomyces

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15
Q

Which systemic fungus is always a yeast?

A

Cryptococcus

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16
Q

How is histoplasmosis acquired?

A

inhalation of spores from a free-living fungus

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17
Q

Name the five species of dimorphic (diphasic) fungi

A

Blastomyces, Histoplasma, Coccidiodes, Paracoccidiodes, Sporothrix

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18
Q

Which systemic fungus produces thick-walled yeast cells with multiple buds in tissue?

A

Paracoccidiodes

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19
Q

Which fungus can be observed as a non-budding, thick-walled spherule containing endospores in a direct smear from the body?

A

Coccidiodes

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20
Q

Which fungus produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia when cultured, but in the body can be seen as intracellular, yeast-like cells with a large vacuole in the cells of the RE system?

A

Histoplasma

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21
Q

Cryptococcosis is usually seen as a disease of which body system?

A

pulmonary

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22
Q

Which systemic fungus is the most fastidious in the laboratory?

A

Histoplasma

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23
Q

What systemic fungus causes San Jacquain Valley Fever?

A

Coccidiodes

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24
Q

Which systemic fungus causes South American blastomycoses?

A

Paracoccidiodes

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25
Which stain is best to use to demonstrate Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF?
India ink
26
Which systemic fungus is endemic in Piedmont, NC and can produce a primary pulmonary infection or a primary skin infection which resembles ringworm?
Blastomyces
27
Which systemic fungus produces chains of arthrospores and can be confused with the saprophytic fungus Geotrichum candidum?
Coccidiodes
28
What is the macroscopic appearance of Sporothrix scheneckii at 37C?
Creamy, yeast colony
29
List several species of dematiaceous fungi?
Cladosporium, Phialophora, Fonsecaea
30
Which subcutaneous infection produces yeast-like brown cells in clusters in the body?
Chromomycoses; divides in all four planes; brown, sclerotic bodies
31
What is the most common cause of maduromycosis?
Petriellidium boydii
32
What color are the granules that are frequently found in the pus?
yellow to whitish granules
33
What fungus produces tear-shaped condo arranged in rosettes at 25C and yeast cells when grown at 37C and causes a disease common among gardeners which is referred to as "rose fever"?
Sporothrix schenkii
34
Name several species that can be responsible for chromomycosis.
Phialophora, Fonsecaea, Chlamydosporium
35
Which organisms can cause mycetomas?
Actinomyces, Madurella, Petriellidieum
36
An organism which produces brown, branching septet hyphae would be classified as what type of fungus?
Dematiaceous
37
What are dermatophytes?
organism that only invades keratinized areas (hair, skin, and nails)
38
What device can be used as an aid to select hairs infected with ringworm?
Fluorescent light
39
What type of hair infection is characterized by empty areas or tunnels where the hyphae have degenerated visible throughout the entire length of the hair?
Favic
40
What combination of fungal media would be best to use to culture dermatophytes?
Sabouraud's and mycosel
41
Which three genera of fungi all cause ringworm of the skin?
Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton
42
What fungus appears velvety white on the front and mahogany on the reverse and will not grow on sterile unfortified rice grains?
Microsporum audouinii
43
What fungus is the most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats and is characterized by a canary yellow reverse and spiny, spindle-shaped macroconidia?
Microsporum canis
44
What fungus is most frequently isolated from human ringworm infections and has a deep red reverse pigmentation?
Trichophyton rubrum
45
What structures are frequently observed in Trichophyton cultures?
spiraled/coiled hyphae, nodular bodies, racket hyphae
46
As a rule, which dermatophyte does not infect nails?
Microsporum audouinii
47
Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of epidemic scalp ringworm in American school children?
Trichophyton tonsurans
48
What fungus causes tinea versicolor?
Pityrosporon furfur
49
What fungus is the most common causative agent tinea cruris?
Epidermophyton flacosum
50
What term is used to refer to ringworm of the skin?
Tinea corprus
51
What dermatophyte gives a positive in vitro hair test?
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
52
Which dermatophyte produces sterile, antler-like hyphae referred to as a favic chandeliers and causes a severe type of ringworm of the scalp called favus?
Trichophyton schoenleinii
53
Which dermatophyte does not invade hair and produces oval, smooth-walled club-shaped macroconidia and no microconidia?
Epidermophyton floccosum
54
Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of ringworm of cattle and requires both inositol and thiamine to grow well?
Trichophyton verrucosum
55
How is Candida albicans identified?
germ tube and chlamydospore agar
56
Which fungus is the most common and troublesome laboratory contaminant and is the most pathogenic of the opportunistic fungi?
Aspergillus
57
If an autopsy revealed systemic infection by fungus with broad, branching non-septate hyphae, which species of fungus could be a likely cause of death?
Mucor or Rhizopus
58
Which fungus commonly produces oval budding cells with pseudohyphae and will produce chlamydospore on cornmeal agar?
Candida albicans
59
Brown gritty deposits in a sputum specimen are indicative of what genus?
Aspergillus
60
What clinical conditions can be caused by Candida albicans?
yeast infection, thrust, monilia etc
61
Which species of opportunistic fungi can be causative agents of eye infections?
Altenaria
62
Which fungus is most frequently isolated in the clinical laboratory?
Candida albicans
63
Which species of Rickettsia causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii
64
Which species of Rickettsia causes scrub typhus?
Rickettsia tsutsugamuschi
65
Which species of Rickettsia causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetti
66
Which species of Rickettsia causes Rickettsial pox?
Rickettsia akari
67
Which species of Rickettsia causes RMSF?
Rickettsia rickettsii
68
How do Rickettsia and Chlamydia differ?
Rickettsia requires arthropod vectors
69
What clinical conditions can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) and blindness inclusion conjunctivitis
70
How is psittacosis spread to humans?
Aerosol/inhalation, exposure to infected birds
71
How are Rickettsial infections diagnosed in the laboratory?
cell culture to embryonated eggs
72
What causes the rash that is frequently observed in Rickettsial infections?
invasion of endothelial cells of blood vessels
73
What are the characteristics of viruses?
have DNA or RNA; don't respond to antibiotics; obligate intracellular parasite
74
What term is used to refer to the viral nucleic acid core together with its protein coat?
nucleocapsid
75
What is the order of events in the process of viral infection?
absorption, penetration (viropexis), replicate, assemble, release
76
What is interferon?
prevents viral replicaiton
77
Which virus produces an acute respiratory infection and is commonly found in increased incidence in military camps?
Adenovirus
78
Which virus is the causative agent of the common cold?
Rhinovirus
79
Which type of virus is referred to as "virus in search of a disease"?
ECHO virus
80
What does ECHO stand for?
enteric cytopathogenic human orphan
81
Neri bodies are characteristic of which virus?
Rhabdovirus (rabies)
82
Which virus causes chicken pox?
Varicella
83
With what clinical conditions is Epstein-Barr virus associated?
Burkitt's lymphoma and infectious mononucleosis. transforms lymphocytes to lymphoblastoid cells
84
Which virus produces large, red intracellular inclusions?
CMV
85
How is Hepatitis A transmitted?
oral-fecal
86
Herpes-Zoster occurs in patients who have a history of what other viral infection?
chicken pox
87
What are the characteristic of Hepatitis B?
Transmitted by blood (serum hepatitis), drug addicts (blood contact)
88
How many serotypes of polio virus are there?
3
89
Which vaccines have been developed against polio?
Salk and Sabin vaccines
90
Which virus has been associated with cancer of the cervix and causes genital lesions in humans?
HSV type II
91
What is the serological test used in the identification of Rickettsia?
Wiel-Felix test
92
The Wiel-Felix test employs three antigens that cross-react with rickettsial antigens from what bacteria?
Proteus vulgaris
93
What virus is associated with severe congenital abnormalities in the fetus if the mother becomes infected during her first trimester?
Rubella (German measles)
94
What emerging viral pathogen causes an upper respiratory tract infection in infants and young children?
RSV
95
What does RSV stand for?
respiratory syncytical virus
96
To what group of viruses does HIV belong?
retrovirus
97
What is the enzyme in retrovirus that is capable of converting RNA to DNA?
reverse transcriptase
98
Disease processes that are common in HIV patients that are rarely seen in "normal" individuals
PCP pneumonia, toxoplasmosis, CMV, Kaposi's sarcoma, Cryptococciosis, MAI tuberculosis
99
What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia akari?
mite
100
What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia prowazekii?
body louse
101
What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia rickettsii?
wood tick
102
What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia tsutsugamuschi?
larval mite
103
What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia typhi?
rat flea