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GM Nutrition > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the food we eat and how our bodies use it

A

Nutrition

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2
Q

What is the scientific data that directs our specific nutritional recommendations

A

Nutritional science

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3
Q

What works to generate the full potential for all people within their given environment and works to seek a higher level of funcitoning

A

Wellness

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4
Q

What part of the national health promotion seeks to promote access to healthier food options, improve healthy weight and reduce food insecurity

A

Nutrition and weight status

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5
Q

What are nutrients that we can break down to provide energy

A

Carbs,lipids, proteins

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6
Q

What are the 3 funx of nutrients in foods

A

Provide energy, build tissue, regulate metabolism

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7
Q

What is ethanols energy yielding compound

A

7kcal/g = not a nutrient

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8
Q

What is the body’s primary source of fuel

A

Carbs

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9
Q

What is the body’s secondary source of energy

A

Lipids

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10
Q

What is the body’s last resort for energy b/c its so important for other funx

A

Protein

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11
Q

What diet removes atherosclerotic plaque

A

Hornish diet

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12
Q

What other nutrient other than AA are used for tissue building

A

FA in phospholipids, vitamins and minerals

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13
Q

What does optimal nutrition look like

A

Person consumes diet with adequate/balance of macros and micros

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14
Q

What are two types of malnutrition

A

Undernutrition and overnutrition

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15
Q

Where does undernutrition occur

A

Food insecure or hospitalized patients

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16
Q

When did nutritional science research start to take off

A

Around WW2 (1942)

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17
Q

Before the war what was most americans calories from

A

50% from sugar and white bread

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18
Q

What VP pushed the idea of enriching foods with vit B

A

Henry wallace

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19
Q

Who determines the recommendations in US and Canada

A

Food/nutrition board (FNB) of the institute of medicine (IOM) of the national academy of sciences

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20
Q

When did the FND first publish recommended dietary allowances (RDA’s)

A

1941

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21
Q

What is the estimated average requirement or EAR

A

Average nutrient requirement for healthy population required to meet needs of 50% of population

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22
Q

What is the recommended dietary allowance (RDA)

A

Nutrient amount require to meet the needs of 97.5% of the population

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23
Q

What is adequate intake (AI) levels

A

Nutrient recommendation when insufficient evidence to calculate EAR or RDA

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24
Q

What is the tolerable upper intake level (UL)

A

Highest nutrition level unlikely to cause adverse effects

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25
Q

What does tolerable upper intake levels prevent

A

Toxicities

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26
Q

What is a very low level of nutrient found in blood that causes a specific disease

A

Deficiency

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27
Q

What is the number one micro that the US population is not meeting RDA

A

Vit E

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28
Q

What is a subclinical or deficient nutrient pools due to chronic poor intake

A

Insufficiency

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29
Q

What are the 4 tactics the FDA uses in control

A

Recall, seizure, injunction, prosecution

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30
Q

If there is no reference standard on a food label then how is it listed

A

Each ingredient listed from most to least (by weight)

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31
Q

When is a nutrient considered high

A

Greater than or equal to 20%

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32
Q

When is a nutrient considered low

A

Less than or equal to 5%

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33
Q

What are the 3 main label claims

A

Health, nutrient content, structure/funx

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34
Q

Health claims cannot be used on labels with

A

Contain >20% DV for fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium

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35
Q

What is the only allowed thing with organic farming

A

Synthetic pesticides if structurally identical to natural

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36
Q

What is the only difference from organic vs conventional

A

Organic foods have slightly higher levels of vitamins A,C,E

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37
Q

What is the current premium in US for organic farming

A

30% price increase over conventional

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38
Q

Eaching fish twice/week does what to lifespan

A

Increase by 2.2 years

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39
Q

What group is carcinogenic to humans

A

Group 1 = alcoholic bevereges, estrogen, arsenic

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40
Q

What group is probably carcinogeni and which is possibly

A

Group 2A and 2B (ginko, and caffeic acid)

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41
Q

DNA to RNA is called what

A

Transcription

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42
Q

RNA to protein is called what

A

Translation

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43
Q

What is a variety that are at least 50 years old

A

Heirloom

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44
Q

How is heirloom produced

A

Open pollination

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45
Q

What is a cross pollination between 2 varieties of same plant

A

Hybrid

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46
Q

How do we get hybrid plants

A

Carefully controlled pollination (lab or patented)

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47
Q

How well do subsequent seeds of hybrids produce

A

Not well

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48
Q

What is a plant that is 1 or more genes that has been altered or turned off

A

Genetically engineered

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49
Q

Where are genetically engineered items produced

A

Lab and all patented

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50
Q

Can the seeds of a genetically engineered plant be used

A

Non

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51
Q

What is the use of biologic processes or organisms to make/modify products

A

Biotechnology

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52
Q

What types of medications are produced through use of genetic modification

A

Insulin and penicillin

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53
Q

What is biotech used for in breeding

A

Selective breeding for a desired trait or specific inertion of a gene

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54
Q

What type of gene modification is crossing and selective breeding

A

Traditional

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55
Q

What type of gene modifying involves exposing seeds to chemicals/radiation

A

Mutagenesis = not sure how many genes affected

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56
Q

What type of gene modification involves knocking out 1-2 genes

A

RNA interference

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57
Q

What type of gene modification takes desired gene inserted into specific location

A

Transgenics

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58
Q

What gene modifications require safety testing

A

RNA interference and transgenics

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59
Q

What happens to the DNA we digest

A

It is degraded mostly

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60
Q

What is the leading cause of preventable blindness in children

A

Vitamin a deficiency

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61
Q

What is the USDA role in regulation

A

Ensure no ill impact on unintended pests

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62
Q

What is the FDA role in regulation

A

Make sure GE do not cause allergens,

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63
Q

What is the EPA role in regulation

A

Regulates pesticides engineered into plants, sets tolerance levels of pesticides

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64
Q

What is a chemical added to foods to prevent spoilage and extend shelf life

A

Food additive

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65
Q

What is the most common food additive

A

Sugar and salt

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66
Q

What is the minimal safe internal temp of beef, pork, veal, lamb

A

145

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67
Q

What is the minimum cooking temp for ground meat

A

160

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68
Q

What is the minimum internal temp of all poultry

A

165

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69
Q

What is the minimal internal temp of fish and shellfish

A

145

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70
Q

What type of date tells the store how long to display

A

Sell by date

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71
Q

What type of date is recommended for best quality/flavor and is NOT a safety date

A

Best if used by

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72
Q

What type of date is last date recommended to consume for peak quality

A

Use by

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73
Q

What is the 3rd leading cause of childhood death

A

Malnutrition

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74
Q

What is the most common global micronutrient deficiency

A

Iron

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75
Q

What is a limited or uncertain availability of nutritionally adequate foods or limited capabilities to acquire foods in socially acceptable ways

A

Food insecurity

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76
Q

What are 4 influences on food habits

A

Social, psychological, physical, physiologic

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77
Q

What has the american food pattern done by spreading globally

A

Increases risk for chronic disease = HTN and diabetes

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78
Q

What are 3 changing american food patterns

A

More women working, more family meals, more grazing

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79
Q

When eating from a larger package what is likely

A

To eat 20-25% more than smaller sizes

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80
Q

What is the sweetest of all monosaccharides

A

Fructose

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81
Q

How is galactose produced

A

By digestion of lactose into glucose/galactose

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82
Q

What is an epimer of glucose

A

Galactose

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83
Q

What is the inability to metabolize galactose

A

Galactosemia

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84
Q

How many carbons does a monosaccharide contain

A

3-7 C, MC are 6C = hexoses

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85
Q

What are sugars bound by glycosidic bonds

A

Disaccharides

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86
Q

What are disaccharides digested by

A

Digested by brush border enzymes

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87
Q

What is sucrose added to

A

Processed foods

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88
Q

What is an invert sugar and give an example

A

Free glucose and fructose in 1:1 ratio, ex: honey

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89
Q

What is maltose a product of

A

Starch degeneration

90
Q

What is the chemical formula for sucrose

A

Glucose (a1-B2) fructose

91
Q

What disaccharide is found naturally in foods

A

Sucrose

92
Q

What is the chemical formula for maltose

A

Glucose a(1-4) glucose

93
Q

What is the chemical formula for lactose

A

Galactose B(1-4) glucose

94
Q

Where is lactose made

A

In mammary glands of lactating animals

95
Q

What is the most common form of carbohydrate malabsorption

A

Lack of lactase = 25% of adults world wide

96
Q

Which acts as a fiber, oligosaccharide or polysaccharide

A

Oligosaccharide

97
Q

What is starch made of

A

100% glucose = combo of amylose (linear) and amylopectin (branched)

98
Q

What aids in starches digestion

A

Gelatinizing

99
Q

What type of starch recrystallizes after cooking to resist degestion, usually fermented

A

Resistant starch

100
Q

What type of starch is corn/rice based with higher % of amylopectin

A

Waxy starch

101
Q

What type of starch is utilized in frozen foods

A

Waxy starch

102
Q

What type of starch is chemically or physically altered to change textural characteristics (ex: gelling/viscosity)

A

Modified starch

103
Q

Which resistant starch is physically inaccessible for digestion

A

RS1

104
Q

Which resistant starch is certain compact granular form that is resistant to digestion

A

RS2

105
Q

What resistant starch is the most resistant

A

RS3

106
Q

What resistant starch is retrograded from cooling gelatinized starch

A

RS3

107
Q

What resistant starch is chemically synthesized

A

RS4

108
Q

What is an antinutrient

A

Part of the phytate of a whole grain that can bind minerals

109
Q

What acts like a soluble fiber in whole grain

A

Resistant starch

110
Q

What part of whole grain decreases cholesterol absorption

A

Plant sterols

111
Q

What is the whole grain recommendation per day

A

48g of whole grains per day

112
Q

Is glycogen formed more form amylopectin or amylose

A

More highly branched than amylopectin

113
Q

What regulates blood glucose

A

The liver

114
Q

What is glycogen in muscle used for

A

Exercise

115
Q

What are 3 insoluble fibers

A

Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin

116
Q

What fiber is non fermentable

A

Cellulose, lignin

117
Q

What is insoluble fibers role in the GI tract

A

Increase water holding capability, fecal volume, and decrease GI transit time

118
Q

What is soluble fibers role in the GI tract

A

Increase GI transit time, form gels, bind nutrients, decrease absorption (cholesterol/minerals)

119
Q

What are the products of fermentable fiber

A

Gas (colonic salvage) and short chain fatty acids = 1-2kcal/g of energy

120
Q

Which provides energy nutritive or nonnutritive sweetner

A

Nutritive

121
Q

What are 3 funx of carbs

A

Fuel supply, reserve fuel supply, special tissue funx (CNS)

122
Q

Is lactose a natural or added sugar

A

Natural

123
Q

What recommendation comes from WHO, FAO, and latest DGA in regards to total energy

A

<10% of total energy from sugar

124
Q

What happens to food with added sugar

A

Often displaces nutrient rich foods = major cause of nutritional deficiency with over nutrition in US

125
Q

What affects blood glucose and increases triglycerids

A

Sugars and starch

126
Q

Does dietary fiber increase blood glucose

A

NO

127
Q

What is the ranking system used to compare how foods will increase blood sugar on scale of 100

A

Glycemic index

128
Q

What number constitutes as high on the GI

A

70+

129
Q

What takes into account how much fiber is in the product and is a more useful tool in determining true impact on blood sugar

A

Glycemic load

130
Q

Is net carbs regulated by the FDA

A

Nope

131
Q

What does net carbs encourage

A

Use of sugar alcohols

132
Q

What is often a result of high carb diets with blood lipids

A

Hypertriglyceridemia

133
Q

How much glucose does your brain use per day

A

Most of the 200g needed

134
Q

What happens when blood sugar decreases <40 mg/dL

A

Fat burning increases

135
Q

What happens when blood sugar increases >180mg/dL

A

Glucose spills into urine

136
Q

Insulin stimulates the liver to do what

A

Glucose uptake and lipid synthesis

137
Q

What is packed into VLDL and sent into the blood after lipid synthesis in the liver

A

Triglycerides

138
Q

Where are carbs digested

A

Mouth, pancreas, small intestine

139
Q

What is the total carb RDA for adults

A

130g/day

140
Q

What is the AMDR recommendation of total carbs

A

45-65% cal

141
Q

What is the dietary fiber AI for adults 18-50years

A

Men = 38 g/day, women = 25 g/day

142
Q

What is the dietary fiber AI for adults > 50 years

A

Men = 30 g/day, women = 21 g/day

143
Q

How much fiber does the avg american consume

A

12-18g/day

144
Q

What is a FA carrying maximum number of hydrogens

A

Saturdated fat

145
Q

What type of lipid is solid at room temp

A

Saturated fat

146
Q

What lipid is mostly animal in origin

A

Saturated fat

147
Q

What FA lacks hydrogen atoms and contains at least 1 double bond

A

Unsaturated FA

148
Q

What lipid is liquid at room temp

A

Unsaturated FA

149
Q

What lipid is mostly plant in origin (except tropical oils)

A

Unsaturated FA

150
Q

How many carbons make up a short chain

A

4-6 C long = butyric acid

151
Q

How many carbons make up a medium chain

A

8-12 lauric acid

152
Q

How do short and medium chains transport in the blood

A

As free FA bound to albumin

153
Q

Which chain length requires L carnitine to transport into mitochondria

A

Long chains

154
Q

How do long chains transport in the blood

A

As triglycerides in chylomicrons, VLDL, LDL,HDL

155
Q

How many C make up a long chain

A

14-24 C long, palmitic acid, essential fatty acids

156
Q

What is a benefit of saturation

A

Improved shelf life

157
Q

Which geometric isomer can still rotate

A

Cis - same side

158
Q

Which geometric isomer is stuck in linear position

A

Trans - opposite sides

159
Q

What is an unsaturated FA synthetically produced by

A

Partial hydrogenation

160
Q

What causes the most negative impact on blood lipids and increases the risk of heart disease the most out of all types of lipids

A

Trans fats

161
Q

Where are trans fats found

A

Naturally found in dairy products as conjugated linoleic acids (CLA)

162
Q

T/F: synthetic trans fat behaves similarly to regular trans fat

A

False

163
Q

What is the function of a phospholipid

A

Aid in transport of fat soluble compounds as part of lipoproteins

164
Q

Where are phospholipids found

A

Naturally in all foods and is also an important emulsifier to mix fats with water in dressings, candy bars

165
Q

What is the mc phospholipid in the body

A

Phosphatidylcholine

166
Q

What makes up 50% of all the phosphholipids in the body

A

Lecithin

167
Q

What are 3 funx of fat

A

Energy (long term storage), essential nutrients, flavor/texture

168
Q

Which lipid has a greater satiety

A

Medium chain greater than long chain

169
Q

Within a lipids chain length the more double bonds, the greater the ____

A

Satiety

170
Q

Who uses synthetic lipids as an energy source

A

Patients with fat malabsorption

171
Q

What is the main source of MUFA and PUFA’s

A

Plant fats

172
Q

What is the main source of saturated fats and cholesterol

A

Animal fats

173
Q

What is a characteristic of visible fat

A

Fat that can be cut off

174
Q

What is a characteristic of an invisible fat

A

Fat that cannot be cut off

175
Q

Where does lipid digestion take place

A

Mouth, stomach, and SI (mostly)

176
Q

Explain lipid absorption = passive diffusion

A

Micelles are absorbed by passive diffusion then TG, phospholipids and cholesterol esters are reformed in the smooth ER

177
Q

What makes a lipoprotein water soluble

A

Phospholipid exterior

178
Q

What do TG’s, cholesterol, fat soluble vitamins make up in a lipoprotein

A

Lipid core

179
Q

What is an apoprotein

A

Protein portion of a lipoprotein (enzymes, receptor ligands)

180
Q

What are examples of a lipoprotein

A

VLDL, LDL, HDL

181
Q

Where are chylomicrons made

A

In enterocytes

182
Q

Where is VLDL made

A

In the liver

183
Q

Where is HDL made

A

In the liver and SI

184
Q

What type of fat should you eat most and which should you avoid

A

Eat more MUFA and avoid trans fat

185
Q

According to dietary guidelines for americans how much fat should we consume

A

<10% of calories from saturated fat and replace with unsaturated fat

186
Q

What are AA held together by

A

Peptide bonds

187
Q

Is the amino acid sequence the same or difference for each protein

A

Different

188
Q

We are able to use the amino acids to build our proteins in what

A

Translation

189
Q

What is protein mostly made up of

A

Nitrogen

190
Q

What is the name for the 9 amino acids we cannot make

A

Essential or indispensable, cannot make these gotta get in the diet

191
Q

What are the essential AA

A

PVT MT HILL

192
Q

What is it called when patients cannot metabolize phenylalanine

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

193
Q

How do you treat someone with phenylketonuria

A

Treat with a low phenylalanine diet

194
Q

What is a precursor for tyrosine

A

Phenylalanine

195
Q

What does a positive N balance mean

A

You consumed more than excreted

196
Q

What does a negative

N balance mean

A

Excrete more than consumed

197
Q

What is the highest concentrated macro in the body

A

Protein

198
Q

What protein helps maintain osmotic pressure

A

Albumin

199
Q

What are funx of protein

A

Tissue building, fluid/pH balance, metabolism/transport, immune, energy

200
Q

What incrreases the risk for resp tract infections

A

Low protein diets

201
Q

What is it when feeding of gradually increasing amounts of suspected foods under observation by doctor over hours or days

A

Oral food challenge

202
Q

What is the skin prick test used in conjunction with

A

Blood tests (sIgE) and clinical data

203
Q

What is a blood sample test for immune substance formed in response to allergy

A

RAST

204
Q

What is an incomplete protein source

A

Deficient in 1 or more of 9 essential AA

205
Q

What is corn protein deficient in

A

Lysine and tryptophan

206
Q

What is wheat and rice protein deficient in

A

Lysine

207
Q

What are legumes protein deficient in

A

Methionine

208
Q

What is it called when you combine 2 incomplete proteins that together make up a complete AA profile

A

Complementary proteins

209
Q

What are secreted in the inactive zymogen form

A

Proteases

210
Q

Where does protein digestion take place

A

Stomach and SI

211
Q

How is protein absorbed

A

By active transport

212
Q

What are SI zymogens

A

Proaminopeptidase, dipeptidase

213
Q

What from the stomach denatures protein and activates pepsin

A

HCL

214
Q

What digests protein into smaller polypeptides in the stomach

A

Pepsin

215
Q

What are some factors that influence the body’s intake requirement

A

Tissue growth, protein quality, additional needs from disease/illness

216
Q

What is biological value

A

Measure of N retained in the body vs. absorption/excretion

217
Q

The higher the BV the _____

A

Closer the AA profile is to what the body requires

218
Q

What type of PEM is it where there is adequate calories but lack protein and have edema, fatty liver

A

Kwashiorkor

219
Q

What type of PEM is emaciated and lack of cal/protein

A

Marasmus

220
Q

What can result in inflammation and apoptosis of kidney cells

A

Excess protein

221
Q

What do 30% of newly diagnosed celiac patients develop after one year being gluten free

A

Metabolic syndrome

222
Q

What do gluten free diets lack

A

Several B vitamins high in saturated fats

GM Nutrition (2 decks)

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