Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?

A

muscle fiber (Cell)

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2
Q

How many muscle fibers can be individual muscle contain

A

hundreds and thousands

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3
Q

What does the number of fibers found within the muscle depend on?

A

The size of the muscle

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4
Q

What are muscle fibers grouped into bundles known as

A

Fasciculi

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5
Q

What are muscle fibers and Fasciculi bound together by?

A

Connective tissue

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6
Q

What are the three function of connective tissue?

A

connects the muscle to bone or other structure,

provides a route thorugh which nerves and blood vessels reach the muscle fibers

Provides a non-contractile framework which allows the contraction of a muscle fiber to be transmitted to bone

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7
Q

What is the delicate connective tissue sheath which surrounds each individual muscle fiber and connects it to individual muscle fiber and connect it adjacent muscle fibers?

A

Endomysium

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8
Q

What does the endomysium surround and what does it connect?

A

Surrounds each muscle fiber and connects it to adjacent muscle fibers.

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9
Q

What is a more dense layer of connective tissue which surrounds each fasciculi and divides the muscle into a series of separate compartments.

A

Perimysium

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10
Q

What does the perimysium surround and divides

A

Surrounds EACH fasciculi and divides the muscle into a series of separate compartments.

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11
Q

What is a dense layer of connective tissue which surrounds the ENTIRE muscle and separates the muscle from surrounding g tissues organs and other muscles?

A

Epimysium

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12
Q

What does the epimysium surrounds and separates

A

Surrounds the ENTIRE muscle and separates the muscle from the surrounding tissues organs and other muscles ?

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13
Q

What layer of connective tissue is continuous with deep fascia in the area and will continue as the tendon of the muscle ?

A

Epimysium.

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14
Q

What does the epimysium continue a?

A

It Continue as the tendon of the muscle

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15
Q

Muscle fibers are extremely____ and ___ with nuclei arranged around the __ of the fiber.

A

Long, Multinucleated periphery

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16
Q

What is the contractile unit of the muscle

A

Myofibril

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17
Q

How many myofilaments are in each muscle fiber?

A

Hundred of thousands

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18
Q

What is the tough specialized membrane that contains each muscle fiber ?

A

Sarcolemma

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19
Q

Adult muscles may be as much as ___ times the diameter that they were at birth

A

10

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20
Q

Exercise may increase muscle size up to an average of about ___percent

A

25

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21
Q

What is the term used to describe they type of increase in size of muscle, which due to an increase in the size of each individual muscle fiber ?

A

Hypertrophy

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22
Q

What is the term used to describe an increase in the size of a muscle due to an actual increase in the number of muscle fibers

A

Hyperplasia

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23
Q

how is hyperplasia induced

A

muscle fibers must be subjected to high resistance exercise, which induce injury to the individual fibers that then follow a regenerative process

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24
Q

What is the term used to refer to the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber

A

Sarcoplasm

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25
The amount of sarcoplasm in the each muscle fiber the same?
No, They will vary from fiber to fiber.
26
Are the amounts of sarcoplasm in each muscle fiber different
Yes, they will vary from fiber to fiber
27
What is the difference between dark and light muscle fibers ?
The amount of sarcoplasm within the majority of fiber
28
Are type 1 fibers darks
Yes
29
Are type 1 fiber light
No
30
are type 2 fibers dark
no
31
are type 2 fibers light ?
Yes
32
What type of muscle fibers are found in muscles where long sustained or continuous contraction are required
type 1
33
What type of muscle fibers are associated with endurance activities?
Type 1
34
What type of muscle fibers are associated with endurance activities ?
Type 1
35
What type of muscle fibers are associated with relatively high levels of continuous metabolic activity (aerobic Metabolism)
Type 1
36
What type of muscle fibers are used for quick more powerful activities and thus related to speed and strength
Type 2
37
What type of muscle fibers are associated with anaerobic metabolism?
Type 2
38
What type of muscle fibers have large amounts of sarcoplasm and myoglobin?
Type 1
39
what type of muscle fibers have lesser amounts of sarcoplasm and myoglobin
Type 2
40
What type of muscle fibers have extensive capillary beds?
type 1
41
What type of muscle fibers have fewer capillary beds
Type 2
42
What type of muscle fibers are fast twitch
type 2
43
What type of muscle fibers are fatigue resistant
type 1
44
What type of muscle fibers fatigue easier
Type 2
45
What type of muscle fibers have numerous mitochondria?
Type 1
46
what type of muscle fibers have less mitochondria?
Type 2
47
What type of muscle fibers have more fatty acids and less glycogen
Type 1
48
What type of muscle fibers have more glycogen and less fatty acids
Type 2
49
What type of muscle fibers atrophy with immobilization
type 1
50
what type of muscle fibers atrophy with aging?
Type 2
51
What type of muscle fibers exhibit characteristics which are somewhere between type 1 and type 2 fibers
Intermediate
52
Intermediate fibers contract faster than type__ but slower that type__
Type 1, Type 2
53
What type of muscle fibers of intermediate fiber histologically resemble.
Type 2
54
what type of muscle fibers are in a higher proportion in weight lifters and sprinters
Type 2
55
What type of muscle fibers are in higher proportion of marathon runners
Type 1
56
What is the muscle fibers cell membrane
sarcolemma
57
What is an elaborate tubular network which functions to store and transport calcium ions to the myofibrils ?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
58
What is a tubular invagination of the sarcolemma that allows electrical (nerve) impulse to enter the muscle fiber and make their way to the myofibrils ?
transverse tubules (T-System)
59
What do the Transverse tubules allow for the release of
calcium
60
What is a red pigment found in the sarcoplasm of a muscle fiber?
myoglobin
61
What protein gives color to muscle ?
Myoglobin
62
What protein STORE oxygen for metabolism in muscle fibers?
myoglobin
63
What molecule does myoglobin have grater affinity for that hemoglobin
Oxygen
64
What is the contractile apparatus fiber
myofibrils
65
What are longitudinally oriented bundles of thick and thin filaments
myofilaments
66
What are myofibrils formed from?
myofilaments
67
What is the light area in a myofibril?
I-Band
68
What is the dark area in a myofibril
A-band
69
What are the light areas in the middle of each dark band ?
H-band
70
What is the thin dark like down the center of each H-band
M-band
71
What are the thick dark lines in the middle of each I-band?
z-line
72
what is the unit of a myofibril
sarcomere
73
What is the smallest functional unit of a muscle?
sarcomere
74
What are the anatomical boundaries of one sarcomere
one z-line to the next z-line.
75
what type of proteins are the main proteins of skeletal muscle?
Actin and myosin
76
What are the two contractile proteins are where are they found
actin- found mainly in the I-bands myosin, found mainly in the a-bands
77
What two proteins react with one another to create movement ( a Contraction)
actin and myosin
78
What type of proteins act to inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin
Regulatory proteins
79
What are the two most common regulatory proteins
Troponin and tropomyosin
80
what is the signal to allow actin and myosin to interact with one another
Calcium
81
What molecule elimaninates the inhibition caused by the regulatory protein and thus allows muscle contractioni to occur ?
calcium
82
The nerve impulse from the ____ ____ stimulates the release of calcium from the ____ ____
Transverse Tubules | Sacroplasmic Reticulum
83
What does Calcium bind on the actin filament
troponin
84
What occurs to the rest of the regulatory protein when calcium binds to troponin
Tropomyosin changes shape, and exposes they myosin binding site on the actin molecule
85
What is the fuel of the muscle?
ATP
86
How does the ATP allow the system to operate ?
Allowing actin and myosin to interact
87
What are the ATP requirements to release a muscle compared to contracting a muscle
The same
88
How is the energy provided from ATP
By the breakdown of ATP----> into ADP and free P ion
89
In regards to ATP, what is the movement of muscle a result ?
Continuous breakdown and reconstitution of ATP
90
What does the aerobic pathway take place ?
in the mitochondria
91
What is the more efficient way to produce ATP in a muscle fiber ?
Aerobic pathway
92
What is the pathway that creates more energy that is needed for the production of ATP
Aerobic Pathway
93
What pathway creates excess energy as heat and contributes to keeping the body at its most efficient temperature
Aerobic pathway
94
What pathway prefers fatty acids to produce ATP
Aerobic pathway
95
How are fatty acids stored in the body's fat cells
stored as triglycerides
96
When are fatty acids released into the body
During exercise
97
What are the two substance that are used to anaerobically produce ATP
Creatine Phosphate and Glycogens
98
Creatine phosphate
is the first substance used by the pathway and allows the muscle to contract at one
99
What allows the muscle to contract at once since there is always a small amount of it stored in muscle fibers ?
Creatine phosphate
100
What is the second substance used in the anaerobic pathway
Glycogen
101
What is the process which produces ATP using Glycogen called and is it aerobic or anaerobic
Anaerobic pathway
102
Where is glycogen stored?
either in muscle or liver cells
103
What metabolic pathway is quicker?
Anaerobic
104
What bogs down anaerobic metabolism
The by-products lactic acid
105
During phase one pf exercise what are the primary fuel sources
Creatine phosphate and glycogen
106
What percentage of stored glycogen is utilized during phase one of exercise ?
20 percent
107
What occurs during phase two of exercise
Shift in metabolism to the more efficient aerobic metabolism an the use of fatty acids to produce ATP
108
Which phase of exercise occurs as exercise intensifies ?
Phase three
109
What dietary manipulation is used to increase the store of glycogen in muscle fibers ?
Glycogen/Carb loading
110
Studies have shown that carbohydrate loading will produce localized increased synthesis of____ in the depleted muscle groups; however, this increase in muscle ___ level will not increase a muscle's nor allow one to run____
Glycogen, glycogen, strength, faster.
111
what are the side effects associated with carbohydrate loading ?
dizziness, light headed and lethargic. mental acuity may suffer and judgment may be impaired For ever gram of glycogen that is stored in the muscle, these is an approximate increase of 3 grams of water ( his may lead to several extra pounds of weight.)
112
How can caffeine help an athlete
burn fatty acids more efficiently. ( increase Calcium permeability) drinking two cups of coffee, ingested an hour or so before an event may help an athlete burn fatty acids more efficiently
113
What are side effects associated with coffee?
Nervousness and acting as a diuretic
114
How does blood doping help an athlete ?
Increasing the oxygen carrying capacity of RBC's The theory is that if you increase the concentration of RBC's you can increase you endurance
115
What are the risk associated with blood doping?
Rashes and fevers acute hemolysis ( breakdown of red blood cells) Transmission of viruses fluid overload which can lead to kidney damage and intravascular clotting of blood.
116
Where is EPO naturally found ??
In the kidneys
117
Where does the EPO travel to and why?
travels to the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
118
Why was synthetic EPO originally produced ?
Patients with certain type of anemia
119
What is the risk of using EPO with a normal RBC Count?
blood can thicken to dangerously high levels and lead to possible cardiac problem and death.
120
What hormone are anabolic steroids the synthetic form of ?
Testosterone
121
Anabolic steroids were developed to try to separate the ___ effect of the hormone from its ___ effect
anabolic; androgenic
122
what refers to the situation of protein synthesis and thus induction of growth?
anabolic
123
What refers to the development of secondary sexual characteristics ?
Androgenic
124
The designer anabolic steroid would have minimal ___ effect and more ___ effect.
Androgenic; anabolic
125
In its natural form, testosterone is rapidly metabolized and cleared from the liver, but the synthetic forms have been designed to what?
Prevent metabolic degradation, thus prolonging or enhancing its effect on the tissue.
126
What kind of anabolic steroid is usually injected but has fewer side effects and a longer lasting detectability?
oil based.
127
What kind of anabolic steroid is usually taken in pill form, but has more side effects and cleared form the system within 3-4 weeks
Water based
128
What is the term used when the user take both oil and water based anabolic steroids ?
Staking
129
What is a procedure where the user start with a low dosage, raises to peak, and then begins to taper down the amount being taken
Pyramiding
130
How long are typical anabolic steroid cycles ?
6-8 weeks
131
What are the short term side effects of anabolic steroids
headaches, dizziness and nausea acne, especially on the back shrinkage of the testicles increased aggressiveness Gynecomastia tendon damage.
132
What ae the long term side effects of anabolic steroids ?
cardiovascular problems (heart) Reproductive system problem (prostate) Endocrine system problems
133
What are the short term side effects for females using anabolic steroids
increase in size of clitoris Decrease in the size of mammary glands development pf facial hair Deeping of the voice and tendon damage.
134
What happens when adolescents take anabolic steroids?
premature closing of the growth plates, which leads to shortened statue among other problems. a
135
How do anabolic steroids physiologically work?
increase secretion of growth hormone. Activates protein synthesis and prevent protein breakdown.
136
What are the legitimate reason that a physician would prescribe the use of anabolic steroid?
restore hormonal levels in males with low testosterone levels, improve mood and alleviate depression, and patients who are chronically ill and become debilated by a lack of appetite ( enhance appetite and increases body weight and muscle mass.
137
What is the chemical composition of muscle
70% water 20 % protein 5% other (30% of protein is in the eye)
138
What is the nerve supply of skeletal muscle?
each muscle is provided with a motor nerve fiber and a sensory nerve fiber.
139
How do nerve fiber enter and leave a muscle
connective tissue components of the muscle.
140
Motor nerves transmit ____/___ impulses from the ____ to each individual ____ ___, the results of which is a motor response
Efferent ; motor; CNS ; Muscle Fiber; contraction
141
What will never happen when a muscle is functioning normally ?
individual muscle fiber will never contract independently.
142
_____muscle fiber will contract at the same moment all being supplied by branches of spinal____ nerve fier
Several; one; motor
143
what does a motor unit consist of?
single motor neuron and the group of muscles fibers
144
What is the smallest part of the muscle which can contract independently?
motor unit
145
What does the strength of a muscle contraction depend on ?
The number of motor units being activated or recruited at the same time.
146
Muscles that carry out precision type of activities placing finger tips together movement of the eye, contain a motor unit with ___ number of fiber
fewer
147
How many motor fibers do muscles that carry out non- precision type of activities (i.e. locomotion) have?
Thousands.
148
(TQ) Where does the motor unit originate?
Ventral ( anterior) horn of the Grey matter of the spinal cord or brain stem (CNS)
149
Where is the terminal end of the motor unit
sarcolemma of the muscle fibers
150
What are the three portion of the neuro muscular junction?
Presynaptic portion Postsynaptic portion and synaptic cleft.
151
(TQ) What part of neuron junction is the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber?
Postsynaptic portion
152
What part of the neuromuscular junction is the space between the pre and post synaptic portions
Synaptic cleft.
153
What neurotransmitter chemical is released when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine (ACH)
154
(TQ) ACH will ____ across the ___ ___, where it will bind to very specific receptor sites on the ____ of the muscle fiber.
diffuse; synaptic cleft; sarcolemma of the muscle fibers
155
What does ACH binding to sarcolemma results in?
Setting of action potential, down the transverse tubules, which leads to an interaction between actin and myosin ( muscle Contraction)
156
What is the enzyme that breaks down ACH
Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)
157
What does ACHe Break down ACH into
Acetate and choline
158
What is the most common neuromuscular junction disorder ?
Myasthenia Gravis
159
With a autoimmune disorder like myasthenia Gravis, the body immune system produces abnormal____, which damages and destroys the ___ site on the ___ of the muscle fibers.
antibodies; receptor; sarcolemma.
160
Is myasthenia Gravis Genetic or contagious
no and no
161
What is almost always the first muscles affected by myasthenia gravis.
Muscles supplies by the cranial nerves( Muscles of the eye and face) and in many cases will progress to muscle of the extremities.
162
What is a common condition associated with myasthenia Gravis?
hyperplasia of the thymus gland (thymoma)
163
What is the condition where pregnant women suffering from myasthenia gravis has about a 25% chance of having her infant born with this condition?
Transitional neonate | Myasthenia Gravis
164
What is an example of a drug that is able to compete with ACH molecules in binding to the ACH receptor sites?
Nicotine
165
(TQ) What is the difference between nicotine and ACH action potentials
Its actions are much more prolonged than ACH
166
(TQ)What are the two types of toxins that snake venom contain?
Cytotoxins and neurotoxins
167
(TQ) What do snake venom's neurotoxins prevent?
Prevent ACH from binding to ACH receptor sites.
168
(TQ) Does snake venom cause an action potential ?
no
169
(TQ) What are parathion and malathion both examples of ?
Organophosphate
170
(TQ)What are able to inactivate ACHe
organophosphate
171
(TQ)What does organophosphate effect on the postsynaptic portion of the neuro muscular junction.
ACH can no longer be rapidity degraded resulting in an accumulation of ACH at the Postsynaptic portion of the Junction.
172
(TQ)What is the bacteria that produce the botulin toxin resulting in botulism
Clostridium botulinum
173
(TQ) How does botulin Toxin affect the neuromuscular junction?
Release of ACH from the presynaptic portion of the neuromuscular junction.
174
What is the first muscles to be affected by botulism?
Muscles supplied by the cranial nerves, but it can progress to affect limb and respiratory muscles.
175
All movements require the _____ of several muscles, each of which must contract at exactly the proper ___ with exactly the proper___ if the movement is to be ---____ and ____
Coordination; moment; force ; smooth coordinated
176
Other than Coordination of muscle function, sensory nerve fibers are also involved with ____ and ____
Pain; proprioception
177
What are the specialized muscle fibers contained within the muscle spindle ?
Intrafusal muscle fibers
178
What are the muscle fibers found outside of the muscle spindle ?
Extrafusal muscle fiber
179
(TQ) What type of muscle fibers have both efferent and afferent nerve fiber associated with them ?
Intrafusal Muscle fibers
180
What type of nerve fibers are associated with extrafusal muscle fibers?
Efferent nerve fibers
181
What do muscle spindles had their intrafusal muscle fiber detect in a muscle
Stretch
182
What is located in tendons and detects the stretch of the tendon, which triggers a reflex to inhibit muscle contraction and thus avoid injury to the muscles and its tendons. ? avoid
Golgi Tendon organ
183
What is the end of the muscle which attaches to the more or less stationary part of the skeleton?
origin
184
What is the end of the muscle attached to the portion of the skeleton which moves when the muscle contracts?
insertion
185
What is the term for the flesh ( muscle fiber portion ) of the muscle which is surrounded by the epimysium?
Belly
186
What is defined as the load necessary to rupture a given material when pulled in the direction of its length
Tensile Strength
187
The___ of Collagen fiber of the tendon give muscles an important physical characteristic,___ ____
arrangement, Tensile strength.
188
What allows muscles to withstand considerable amounts of pressure.
Tensile strength
189
What is a thickened band deep fasica which is found at joint and function to bind down tendons and nerves that cross the joint.
Retinaculum
190
What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the fibers run approximately the whole length of the muscle parallel to the long axis.
Parallel/ Strap
191
What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where fibers run oblique to the long axis of the muscle?
Pennate
192
What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the tendon lies along one side of the muscle and the fibers pass obliquely to the tendon?
unipennate
193
What type of muscle fiber arrangement is where the tendons lies in the center of the muscle and fiber pass to it from each side?
bipennate
194
What type of fiber arrangement would a muscle built for endurance ( Type 1) have ?
Shorter, more numerous fiber in a pennate arrangement
195
What type of fiber arraignment would a muscle built for power (type 2 ) have
longer, less numerous fiber in a parallel arrangement
196
What are all movements are results of
Coordinated action of many muscles
197
What are the muscles which are most responsible for carrying out a particular movement ?
Prime mover/Agonist
198
What are the muscles that assist the prime mover(s) in performing the action by giving more force for a movement, Stabilizing a joint which the mover(s) pass over but do not move or keep the bone of origin of the mover(s) steady ?
Synergists (sometime Fixator)
199
(TQ) What is the name for when a muscle contracts its antagonist automatically relaxes ?
Reciprocal Innervation.
200
(TQ) What is the term for a new born baby (especially a premature infant), when both agonist and antagonists contract at the same time
Co-Reflex Phenomenon
201
Define Atrophy
To become smaller and weaker
202
(TQ) What kind of pathology is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis an example of ?
Pathology of the central nervous system.
203
(TQ) What kind of pathology is Gillian- barre syndrome and example of ?
Pathology of the peripheral nervous system.
204
(TQ) What kind of pathology is myasthenia Gravis Example of?
Pathology to the neuromuscular junction
205
(TQ) What kind of pathology is muscular dystrophy an example of ?
Pathology to the individual muscle fibers
206
Prolonged ____ of the joint or chronic joint disorder ( i.e Arthritis) can cause____ .
Immobilization; joint disorder.
207
(TQ) What are undifferentiated myoblasts on skeletal muscle s
Satellite cells
208
(TQ) What regenerates injured muscle fiber
Satellite cells
209
(TQ) Where are satellite cells found
In the space between the endomysium and the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber.
210
What condition prevents cells from replacing damages muscle fiber
Muscular dystrophy
211
What does the shoulder gridle consist of ?
Scapula and clavicle
212
What does the free limb consist of
arm forearm and hand
213
How deep is the clavicle
Subcutaneous through its length and easily palpable
214
What us superior to the medial third of the clavicle
supraclavicular fossa
215
What is inferior to the lateral third of the clavicle
Infraclavicular fossa
216
In females the Clavicle is generally_____ _____ ______ curved and _____ than in males
Shorter, thinner, less, smoother
217
How can the clavicle become thicker, more curved, and its features more prominent
Manual labor or upper body workouts.
218
When is the clavicle present in vertebrae's?
Those that use their "hand manual dexterity
219
The clavicle is a_____ bone between the____ and _____ skeleton and shows characteristics of both
Transitional; axial ; appendicular
220
What are the main function of the clavicle ?
transmit forces from the upper extremity to the axial skeleton and acts as a brace, holding the arm free from the trunk.
221
What bone transmits forces from the upper extremity to the axial skeleton
Clavicle
222
What bone acts as a brace holing the arm free from the trunk?
Clavicle
223
What is the process of which the embryonic connective tissue is replaced by the bone cells ?
Ossification
224
what are the two types of ossification?
Intermembranes and endochondral
225
What type of ossification is when the bone cells replace a primitive type of connective tissue known as a mesenchyme?
intramembranous
226
What type of ossification is when the bone cells replace a very well developed type of connective tissue known a hyaline cartilage ?
endochondral ossification
227
what is the first bone to undergo ossification in the fetus (round the 5th or 6th week of development?)
Clavicle
228
How many primary ossification centers does the clavicle have and what type of ossification do they undergo ?
two primary ossification centers (most bone only have one) | and they undergo intramembranous ossification ( majority of ossification)
229
How many secondary ossification center does the clavicle have, and what type of ossification do they undergo ?
One ( which occurs around 17 years of age neat the sternal end of the bone) and they undergo endochondral ossification.
230
What is one of the last bones to complete ossification the secondary ossification fusing at about 25 years of age.
Clavicle
231
What is one of the most frequently fractured bones in the body ?
Clavicle
232
Where do fracture normally occur on the clavicle ?
area if the first curvature, which is the weakest part of the bone.
233
does a fracture of the clavicle result in a dislocation of the acromioclavicular or sternoclavicular joints ?
no
234
What are the fractures usually a result of
indirect forces on the shoulder that are greater than the strength of the bone.
235
what is a risk with clavicle fracture ?
If it is significant enough is could compromise the neurovascular structure in the area or even puncture a lung.
236
what is a problem with broad shouldered infants
fracture of the clavicle from birthing process, however the bones usually heal rather quickly with no apparent problems