Exam 1 Flashcards
(204 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is false regarding light microscopes?
a. It uses light to observe microorganisms
b. The ones that are mainly used are compound micrscopes which have two sets of lenses
c. Specimens that are <0.2 um are clearly resolved
d. Brightfield microscopes are used to see things that are stained
A
c. Specimens that are <0.2 um are clearly resolved
**they can’t be seen only organisms that are >0.2 um are seen clearly
2
Q
The distance that must separate two point sources of light if they are to be seen as two distinct images is known as?
A
Resolving power
3
Q
True/False: Electron microscopes use visible light/ ultraviolet light as well as electron beams to illuminate objects.
A
False
**don’t use visible light/ultraviolet light only electron beams
4
Q
Which of the following microscopes enhances contrast of transparent and colorless specimens without the use of stains?
a. Compound microscope
b. Stereoscopes
c. Darkfield microscope
d. Phase contrast microscope
A
d. Phase contrast microscope
5
Q
Which of the following is not an example of a light miscroscope?
a. Darkfield microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Brightfield microscope
d. Phase- contrast microscope
A
b. Electron microscope
6
Q
Which of the following microscopes can be used to visualize spirochetes while they’re alive on a dark background?
a. Darkfield microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Brightfield microscope
d. Phase- contrast microscope
A
a. Darkfield microscope
7
Q
Which of the following is not an example of an elecrton microscope?
a. Sanning microscope
b. Transmission microscope
c. Brightfield microscope
d. All the above are examples
A
c. Brightfield microscope
8
Q
True/Fasle: Resolution created with an electron microscope is a thousand times better than a compound microscope.
A
True
9
Q
Which microscope can be used to observe small structures like fibriae and viruses?
a. Darkfield microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Brightfield microscope
d. Phase- contrast microscope
A
b. Electron microscope
10
Q
Which microscope has two sets of lenses for each eye that enables you to see the obect in its true three dimensional form?
a. Compound microscope
b. Stereoscopes
c. Darkfield microscope
d. Phase contrast microscope
A
b. Stereoscopes
11
Q
True/Flase: Compound microscopes have a magnification range of 3x and 50x
A
False
**true for stereoscopes, light microscope has 10x magnification
12
Q
Which of the following can be used to see Paramecium after it has been stained?
a. Darkfield microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Brightfield microscope
d. Phase- contrast microscope
A
c. Brightfield microscope
13
Q
True/Flase: Most bacteria have a negatively charged cell wall so we want to use basic dyes to stain them.
A
True
14
Q
The colored portion of a basic stain has a ___ charge, vs. the colored portion of an acidic stain has a ___ charge.
A
Basic stain - positive (cation)
Acidic stain - negative (anion)
15
Q
Put the following steps of preparing a smear in order:
- Disperse bacteria culture on a glass slide and add a drop of water
- Fix the bacteria by gentle heating in a flame with the smear side up
- Allow smear to air dry at room temperature
- Add crystal violet stain to the slide and let sit for 1 minute then rinse with water
- Apply safranin stain and let sit for 15 seconds then rinse with water
- Add iodine and let sit for 1 minute and rinse with water
- Rinse slide with alcohol for about 10 seconds
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
b. 1, 5, 6, 3, 4, 2, 7
c. 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5
d. 1, 4, 2, 3, 7, 6, 5
A
c. 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5
16
Q
Something that increases the affinity of a stain for a biological specimen is known as?
a. Primary stain
b. Counterstain
c. Mordant
d. Decolorizing agent
A
c. Mordant
17
Q
Which of the following is the counterstain used when gram staining?
a. Iodine
b. Alcohol or acetone - alcohol
c. Safranin
d. Crystal violet
A
c. Safranin
18
Q
Which of the following is considered to be the mordant used in gram staining?
a. Iodine
b. Alcohol or acetone - alcohol
c. Safranin
d. Crystal violet
A
a. Iodine
19
Q
Which of the following is a decolorizing agent that will either allow the gram negatives to lose the crystal violet or gram positives to keep the crystal violet stains.
a. Iodine
b. Alcohol or acetone - alcohol
c. Safranin
d. Crystal violet
A
b. Alcohol or acetone - alcohol
20
Q
Which of the following is the primary stain added to a slide after its prepared for about 1 minute before being rinsed with water?
a. Iodine
b. Alcohol or acetone - alcohol
c. Safranin
d. Crystal violet
A
d. Crystal violet
21
Q
Gram positive microorganisms will stain ___ while gram negative microorganisms will stain ___.
A
Positive - purple/ blue
Negative - pink
22
Q
Which of the following is not an advantage of a gram reaction?
a. Allows us to properly select antibacterial agents
b. Its a rapid procedure to demonstrate bacteria present in a sample
c. Allows us to clinically evaluate a disease and determine the possible outcomes
d. All the above are advantages
A
d. All the above are advantages
23
Q
True/False: Penicillin is an antimicrobial agen that can be used against gram positive bacteria.
A
True
24
Q
Which of the following is false?
a. Gram negative bacteria produce an endotoxin when they die that can lead to endotoxemia and shock
b. Gram negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that can’t be washed out by alcohol
c. Gram positive bacteria cells stain purple because they retain the crystal violet stain
d. Gram negative bacteria is coloreless and is counterstained with safranin making them appear pink
A
b. Gram negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that can’t be washed out by alcohol
**true for gram positive, gram negative have a THIN peptidoglycan layer that is disrupted with the decolorizing alcohol agent
25
Which of the following bacteria shapes are rod-shaped and divide only across their short axis?
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spiral
d. None of the above
b. Bacilli
26
Which of the following bacterial organism shapes are described as spherical and can have a number of different patterns depending on the plane that they divdie on?
a. Cocci
b. Bacilli
c. Spiral
d. None of the above
a. Cocci
27
Which of the following is not an example of a bacillus bacteria?
a. Clostridium
b. Actinomyces
c. Corynebacterium
d. Listeria
b. Actinomyces
28
Which bacterial organism has no cell wall, therefore is not categorized as gram negative or positive?
a. Nocardia
b. E. coli
c. Mycobacteria
d. Mycoplasma
d. Mycoplasma
29
All of the following is spiral in shape except?
a. Rickettsiae
b. Leptospira
c. Borrelia
d. Treponema
a. Rickettsiae
30
What two gram negative bacterial organisms are pleomorphic in shape?
Rickettsiae
| Chlamydia
31
Which two gram positive bacterial organisms are filamentous in shape?
Actinomyces
| Nocardia
32
What are the three coccus bacteria?
Gram positive: Staph and Streptococcus
| Gram negative: Neisseria
33
Which of the following is false regarding the capsule of bacteria?
a. Capsules can be demonstrated using gram negative staining methods
b. The capsule of anthrax bacillus is composed of polysaccharides
c. The capsule is a gelatinous layer made of sugar components that covers the entire bacterium
d. The capsule functions to protect the bacteria from phagocytosis
b. The capsule of anthrax bacillus is composed of polysaccharides
**not composed of polysaccharide it has polymerized D-glutamic acid
34
True/False: Fibronectin is a surface protein that acts as an adhesive to facilitate tissue colonization of bacteria
True
35
What is the name of the polysaccharide fibrils that surround some bacterial cell walls and have adhesive properties and prominent antigenic sites?
Glycocalyx
36
What is the name of the hairlike structures on the surface of bacteria that can bind to specific sugar residues present on the host cell membranes?
a. Fimbriae
b. Flagella
c. Glycocalyx
d. Fibronectin
a. Fimbriae
37
What is the long whip like structure that allows bacteria to move towards nutrients and other attractants?
a. Fimbriae
b. Flagella
c. Glycocalyx
d. Fibronectin
b. Flagella
38
True/False: Both flagella and fimbriae can be peritrichous (located all over the bacteria surface).
True
39
True/False: The majority of bacterial organisms that have flagella are bacillus/ rod-shaped.
True
40
Which of the following means that we have many flagella located on one end of the bacterial organism?
a. Monotrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Peritrichous
b. Lophotrichous
41
Which of the following indicates flagella on each pole of the bacteria?
a. Monotrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Peritrichous
c. Amphitrichous
42
Which of the following means that the bacteria has flagella located all over the body?
a. Monotrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Peritrichous
d. Peritrichous
43
Which of the following indicates a bacterial organism with only one flagella located only on one end?
a. Monotrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Peritrichous
a. Monotrichous
44
True/False: Fimbriae are shorter than flagella and are mainly found on gram positive organisms.
False
**gram negative
45
Which of the following is false regarding pili/fimbriae?
a. They're found on gram negative organisms function only as adhesion
b. Sex pili attach to F minus cells without a plasmid and transfer genetic material during conjugation
d. They're virulence factors and have antiphagocytic properties
d. All the above are functions
a. They're found on gram negative organisms function only as adhesion
**not their only function
46
The bacterial cell wall contains an inner layer of ___, which is the structural support and maintenance of the cell shape.
Peptidoglycan
47
Which of the following is false regarding gram positive cell wall organisms?
a. The cell wall is made mostly of peptidoglycan
b. They have a thin outer membrane layer
c. They have a cell wall made up of teichoic and lipoteichoic acid
d. They have a much larger cell wall than gram negative bacteria
b. They have a thin outer membrane layer
**this is seen with gram negative, gram positive dont have an outer membrane but have a thick peptidoglycan layer
48
True/False: Gram positive bacteria have an outer membrane where gram negative don't have an outer membrane
False
**other way around
49
Which of the following is false?
a. Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer comapred to gram negative
b. Gram negative bacteria have a periplasmic space and outer membrane, which is not seen in gram positive
c. Gram negative cell wall have NAG and NAM woven together held tightly by Teichoic acid
d. Gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan compared to gram negative bacteria
c. Gram negative cell wall have NAG and NAM woven together held tightly by Teichoic acid
**true for gram positive, gram negative have NO teichoic acid holding the layers together
50
True/False: Gram negative bacteria have LPS in their cell wall and when the bacteria dies they will release the LPS and it can cause endotoxemia.
True
51
Which of the following is false regarding gram negative bacteria organisms?
a. They have an endotoxin in the outer membrane known as LPS that becomes toxic when it enters the body
b. They have porin proteins in the outer membrane that acts as a channel to allow entry of certain materials
c. They have a complex outer layer made of LPS, lipoprotein and phospholipids
d. All the above are true
d. All the above are true
52
True/False: In some gram negative species beta lactamase enzymes are located in the periplasmic space that degrades penicillins and other beta lactam drugs.
True
53
True/False: Gram negative bacteria are susceptible to penicillin.
False
**true for gram positive, they disrupt the thick peptidoglycan layer whereas gram negative has too thin of a peptidoglycan to disrupt
54
Which two drugs inhibit the transpeptidase that makes the cross-links between the two adjacent tetrapeptides in gram positive bacteria?
Cephalosporins and penicillins
55
What are the 3 domains?
Eukarya
Archaea
Bacteria
56
All of the following are eukaryotic except?
a. Fungi
b. Archaea
c. Yeast
d. Protozoa
b. Archaea
57
True/False: Viruses are the largest microbe when comparing to bacteria and helminths.
False
**smallest
Helminths > Bacteria > Viruses
58
Which of the following is false?
a. Prokaryotes have no nucleus or membrane bound organelles
b. Eukayotes don't have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane
c. Both reproduce asexually
d. Prokaryotes have a single chromosome with haploid DNA genome and Eukaryotes have multiple diploid DNA genomes
b. Eukayotes don't have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane
**Eukayotes contain sterols and prokaryotes don't have sterols
59
True/False: Mold is multicellular and yeast are unicellular
True
60
Which of the following is false regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a. They have an unusual cell wall resulting in their inability to be gram stained
b. They're said to be acid fast becuase they resist decolorization with acid alcohol after being stained with carbolfuchsin
c. They can be stained with an Acid fast technique discovered by Ziehl- Neelsen
d. They have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall which is why they can't be stained with gram stain
d. They have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall which is why they can't be stained with gram stain
**they have a high concentration of mycolic acids which are lipids in their cell wall
61
What enzyme is found in tears, mucous, and saliva that can cleave the peptidoglycan backbone by breaking its glycosyl bonds?
Lysozyme
62
Which of the following is false regarding LPS?
a. Its an endotoxin found on the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
b. Can lead to septic shock causing fever and hypotension
c. When the orgnaism dies they fragment the LPS which becomes a poison in the body
d. All the above are true
a. Its an endotoxin found on the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
**gram-negative
63
True/False: Both eukaryotic bacteria and mycoplasma contain sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane.
True
64
Prokaryotes have ribosomes with a size of ___ while eukaryotes have ribosomes with a size of ___.
Prokaryotes - 70s
| Eukaryote - 80s
65
Tough dormant structures that some bacteria are able to form when stressed are called ____.
Endospores
66
True/False: Gram positive bacteria don't form spores.
False
**gram negative don't form spores
67
What two gram positive bacteria that form spores?
Clostridium
| Bacillus
68
Synthesis of macromolecules from building blocks, making new cellular materials using energy is known as:
a. Catabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Fermentation
d. None of the above
b. Anabolism
69
Which of the following transports moelcules without using energy?
a. Diffusion
b. Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. All the above
a. Diffusion
70
Carrier proteins that bind and transport molecules across the cell membrane is done by?
a. Diffusion
b. Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. All the above
c. Facilitated diffusion
71
The production of energy from organic molecules by breaking down complex molecules into simpler ones is known as?
a. Catabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Fermentation
d. None of the above
a. Catabolism
72
Movement across a concentration gradient without the use of carrier proteins is known as?
a. Diffusion
b. Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. None of the above
b. Simple diffusion
73
Active transport uses energy derived from ___, while group translocation uses energy derived from ___.
Active transport energy from proton motive force
Group translocation energy from ATP
74
Which of following will we will have more growth only where high concentrations of O2 have diffused into the medium?
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
c. Obligate aerobes
75
Which of the following means that growth is best where most O2 is present but occurs throughout the tube?
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
a. Facultative anaerobes
76
Which of the following term describes growth occurring evenly and has no effect by oxygen?
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
77
Which of the following will we have growth that occurs only where a low concentration of O2 has diffused into the medium?
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
e. Microaerophiles
78
Which of the following produce letahl amounts of toxic forms of O2 if exposed to normal atmospheric O2?
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
e. Microaerophiles
79
The following lacks enzymes to neutralize harmful forms of O2 and it can't tolerate O2:
a. Facultative anaerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
e. Microaerophiles
b. Obligate anaerobes
80
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe that can't grow in the presence of O2 because they lack superoxide dismutase and/or catalase?
a. M. tuberculosis
b. E. coli
c. Clostridium tetani
d. M. pseudtuberculosis
c. Clostridium tetani
81
Which of the following is an obligate aerobe, meaning it needs O2 to grow?
a. M. tuberculosis
b. E. coli
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium botulinum
a. M. tuberculosis
82
Which of the following is a facultative anaerobe that can use O2 to generate energy by respiration and use the fermentation pathway to synthesize ATP without O2?
a. M. tuberculosis
b. E. coli
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium botulinum
b. E. coli
83
True/False: Obligate aerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerotolerant anaerobes have enzyme catalase and SOD that allows toxic forms of O2 to be neutralized.
True
84
Which of the following is false regarding temperature and bacterial growth?
a. Minimum growth temperature is the lowest temperature at which bacterium will grow
b. Optimum growth is the temperature where bacteria grows best at the top of the range
c. Maximum growth is the higest temperature that will denature the bacteria
d. All the above are true
c. Maximum growth is the higest temperature that will denature the bacteria
**this is the highest temp where bacteria can grow and beyond this growth will drop rapidly d/t inactivation of relevant enzymes
85
Proteins become natured with ___ temperature.
Proteins - high temp
86
Lipids become brittle with ___ temperature and trun into liquid with ___ temperature.
Brittle - low temp
| Liquid - high temp
87
At what temperature are most of our plates incubated for bacterial growth?
37 degrees C (98.6 degrees F)
88
Which of the following will we see optimum growth of bacteria at 50 - 60 degrees C and form endospores that can survive in canned food?
a. Psychrophiles
b. Mesophiles
c. Thermophiles
d. Hyperthermophiles
c. Thermophiles
89
Food spoiling bacteria that have optimum growth at 15 degrees celcius are known as?
a. Psychrophiles
b. Mesophiles
c. Thermophiles
d. Hyperthermophiles
a. Psychrophiles
90
The most common types of microbes like food spoiling bacteria and pathogenic bacteria that have optimum growth in temperatures ranging from 35-40 degree celcius are an example of?
a. Psychrophiles
b. Mesophiles
c. Thermophiles
d. Hyperthermophiles
b. Mesophiles
91
True/False: At 20-50 degrees Celcius we will have rapid growth of bacteria where some of them may produce toxins
True
92
Which of the following have temperature ranges that can rapidly destroy most microbes?
a. Psychrophiles
b. Mesophiles
c. Thermophiles
d. Hyperthermophiles
d. Hyperthermophiles
93
Which scientist provided proof that a bacterium causes anthrax by using experimental steps?
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. John Needham
d. Francisco Redi
a. Robert Koch
94
The early belief that living things can arise from vital forces present in nonliving and decaying matter is known as?
Spontaneous generation
95
What is the term for the hypothesis that living organisms can arise only from preexisting life forms?
Biogenesis
96
Microbes were first observed under a simple microsope by?
a. Rober Koch
b. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
c. John Needham
d. Louis Pasteur
b. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
97
Who discovered and described endospores and helped introduce the word "sterile"?
a. John Tyndall
b. Ferdinand Cohn
c. John Needham
d. Louis Pasteur
b. Ferdinand Cohn
98
Which scientist showed that some microbes in dust and air were resistant to heat?
a. John Tyndall
b. Ferdinand Cohn
c. John Needham
d. Louis Pasteur
a. John Tyndall
99
Which scientist did an experiment showing that meat in a closed container would develop no maggots vs the open container would have maggots hatching into flies, proving that living things can give rise to living things?
a. Ferdinand Cohn
b. John Tyndall
c. Franscisco Redi
d. John Needham
c. Franscisco Redi
100
Which scientist did an experiment heating up infusions that were covered and uncovered showing heavy microbial growth in the one that was uncovered?
a. Ferdinand Cohn
b. John Needham
c. Louis Jablot
d. John Tyndall
c. Louis Jablot
101
Which of the following scientist boiled nutrient broth into covered flasks and had microbial growth in all of the sealed flasks?
a. Ferdinand Cohn
b. John Needham
c. Louis Jablot
d. John Tyndall
b. John Needham
102
Which scientist put an end to the abiogenesis debate with his goose neck flask experiment?
a. John Tyndall
b. Ferdinand Cohn
c. Louis Jablot
d. Louis Pasteur
d. Louis Pasteur
103
Which of the following is false regarding Louis Pasteur?
a. He contributed to the development of immunology by making attenuated vaccines to fowl cholera
b. He studied spoilage and instroduced pasteurization to prevent it
c. He came up with the theory of specific etiology where different organisms have different end products of sugar fermentation
d. He was the first to use agar as solid culture medium in bacteriology
e. All the above are true
d. He was the first to use agar as solid culture medium in bacteriology
**this was Robert Koch
104
Which scientist used carbolic acid to prevent surgical wound infections?
Joseph Lister
105
Which scientist introduced hand washing as a means of preventing transfer of puerpueral sepsis in obstertrical patients?
Ignaz Semmelweis
106
Who is the father of biology who devised aseptic technique?
Louis pasteur
107
Which of the following describes a microbe that lives on dead or decaying organic matter?
a. Infection
b. Opportunistic pathogen
c. Saprobe
d. Pathogen
c. Saprobe
108
Which scientist initiated chemotherapy treatment and was the first to discover a drug against syphilis?
Paul Ehrlich
109
Which scientist developed a smallpox vaccine?
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Edward Jenner
d. None of the above
c. Edward Jenner
110
Which scientist discovered penicillin which lead to the discovery of many antibiotics?
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Edward Jenner
d. None of the above
b. Alexander Fleming
111
What term describes the occurrence of new diseases and increasing incidence of old ones?
Emerging infectious dieases
112
Which of the following is a measure of the capacity to damage and/or kill the host?
a. Pathogenesis
b. Virulence
c. Infectivity
d. Opportunistic Pathogen
b. Virulence
113
The process or mechanisms of disease development is referred to as?
a. Pathogenesis
b. Virulence
c. Infectivity
d. Opportunistic Pathogen
a. Pathogenesis
114
A component of bacteria that is involved in pathogenesis, virulence or infectivity is known as?
a. Pathogenesis
b. Virulence
c. Infectivity
d. Virulence factor
d. Virulence factor
115
A pathogen that is more likely to cause disease once the ground has been prepared for them by another pathogen is known as:
a. Primary pathogen
b. Secondary pathogen
c. Opportunistic pathogen
d. Infective pathogen
c. Opportunistic pathogen
116
The ability of an organism to enter, colonize, and survive in a host is known as?
a. Pathogenesis
b. Virulence
c. Infectivity
d. Virulence factor
c. Infectivity
117
A pathogen that doesn't normally cause infection but can if the host defenses are compromised is known as a ____ pathogen.
Opportunistic
118
Which of the following is false regarding Koch's postulates?
a. The organisms or its products should be found in all individuals with disease
b. The organism should be isolated and maintained in a mixed culture
c. The culture inoculated into an individual should cause disease
d. The organism should be re-isolated in a pure culture
b. The organism should be isolated and maintained in a mixed culture
**should be in a pure culture
119
Which stage of an acute infectious disease shows over cahracteristic signs and symptoms of the disease?
a. Incubation period
b. Prodrome period
c. Specific illness period
d. Recovery period
c. Specific illness period
120
The time between the acquisition of the organism (or toxin) and the beginning of the symptoms of an acute infectious disease is the?
a. Incubation period
b. Prodrome period
c. Specific illness period
d. Recovery period
a. Incubation period
121
During which period will illness abate and the patient returns to a healthy state?
a. Incubation period
b. Prodrome period
c. Specific illness period
d. Recovery period
d. Recovery period
122
During which period will you have nonspecific symptoms such as fever, malaise and loss of appetite?
a. Incubation period
b. Prodrome period
c. Specific illness period
d. Recovery period
b. Prodrome period
123
An infection with no detectable symptoms is known as?
a. Opportunistic
b. Primary
c. Latent
d. Subclinical
d. Subclinical
124
An infection like tuberculosis caused by M. bovis and syphilis caused by T. pallidum that has the potential to become active at times is known as?
a. Opportunistic
b. Primary
c. Latent
d. Subclinical
c. Latent
125
An infection like T. pallidum that may become latent and later on cause other disease manifestations is knonw as?
a. Opportunistic
b. Primary
c. Latent
d. Subclinical
b. Primary
126
HIV patients and M. avium complex generally does not cause disease unless normal host defenses are compromised. This kind of pathogen is known as?
a. Opportunistic
b. Primary
c. Latent
d. Subclinical
a. Opportunistic
127
An infection that occurs suddently and intensely is known as?
a. Secondary
b. Mixed
c. Pyogenic
d. Fulminant
d. Fulminant
128
True/False: Anti-infectives are agents that act against infecton and include antimicrobials and antiparasitics.
True
129
An antimicrobial that prevents the growth of microbes is ___ and the one that kills microbes is___.
Microbistatic: prevents growth
Microbicidal: kills
130
What is the term for a substance produced by one type of microorganism which can be used to inhibit another microorganism?
Antibiotic
131
True/False: The minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic is one that is needed to prevent visible bacterial growth.
True
132
Which of the following refers to the therapy given to a patient before lab results are seen and provides a broad spectrium antibiotic therapy?
a. Targeted therapy
b. Empiric therapy
c. Selective therapy
d. None of the above
b. Empiric therapy
133
Which of the following is a therapy given based on bacteria culture and antibiotic susceptibility test?
a. Targeted therapy
b. Empiric therapy
c. Selective therapy
d. None of the above
a. Targeted therapy
134
The ____ is the minimum concnetration of an antimicrobial drug needed to kill the bacteria.
MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration)
135
What is the term that refers to the property of an antimicrobial drug that killsthe harmful microorganisms without damaging the host?
Selective toxicity
136
True/False: If a bug is not resistant to a drug, then as the concentration of the drug increases the growth of that bug also increases.
False
**as concentration decreases growth increases
137
Which antibiotic kills bacteria by interfering with their ribosomes' ability to create proteins?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Beta lactams
c. Quinolones
d. Aminoglycosides
d. Aminoglycosides
138
Resistance to a particular antibiotic that often results in resistance to other antibiotics, usually from a similar chemical class, to which the bacteria may not have been exposed to is known as?
Cross- Resistance
139
Which of the following changes shape of 30x portion of ribosomes causing the code on mRNA to be read incorrectly?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Chloramphenicol
b. Streptomycin
140
Which of the following binds to the 50s portion of ribosomes and inhibits the formation of the peptide bond?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
141
An antibacterial agent that is active against both gram positive and gram negative organisms is known as:
Broad spectrum antibacterials
142
Which drug is responsible for preventing the unwinding of the DNA, inhibiting gyrase, so multiplication of the bacteria can't take place?
a. Beta lactams
b. Quinolones
c. Rifampin
d. Macrolides
b. Quinolones
143
Which of the following competes with PABA (p-aminobenzoic acid) during the first step of folic acid synthesis inhibiting the bacteria to make DNA?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Macrolides
a. Sulfonamides
144
All of the following inhibit Mycobacteria except:
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. Erythromycin
d. Erythromycin
145
The antibacterials that have limited activity and are primarily used against a particular species of microorganisms is known as?
a. Broad spectrum antibacterials
b. Narrow spectrum antibacterials
c. Inermediate spectrum antibacterials
d. None of the above
b. Narrow spectrum antibacterials
146
Which of the following is not an example of a broad spectrum antibacterial?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Cephalosporins
d. Aminoglycosides
d. Aminoglycosides
**these are narrow spectrum
147
Which of the following binds to the 50s portion of ribosomes and prevents translocation and movement of ribosomes along the mRNA?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
148
True/False: Cross-resistance can occur in both penicillin and tetracycline.
False
**penicillin and cephalexin
149
Which of the following interferes with the attachment of tRNA to mRNA ribosome complex?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Chloramphenicol
a. Tetracyclines
150
True/False: Two examples of multiple drug resistance is beta lactams, and macrolides.
False
**cephalosporins and tetracycline
151
True/ False: In general drugs with lower MIC values are better choices for treatment.
True
152
True/False: Use of pure culture of a bacteria in antimicrobial susceptibility testing is critical for obtaining accurate results
True
153
One of the adverse effects of using B-lactam such as penicillin in certain individuals is:
a. Development of methicillin resistance
b. Development of clindamycin resistance
c. Type IV hypersensitivity
d. Type I hypersensitivity
d. Type I hypersensitivity
154
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
a. MIC is the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent which can inhibit the growth of bacteria
b. Published break point are required for interpretation of AST results
c. MIC can be measured in E-Test
d. MIC can be accurately measured in Disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer tests)
d. MIC can be accurately measured in Disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer tests)
155
Mechanism of action of B-lactam group is by:
a. Inhibiting protein synthesis
b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
d. Inhibiting efflux pumps
b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
156
True/False: A disase can be diagnosed by identifying the infectious agent and the host immune response
True
157
Humoral immune response is measured by screening for:
a. Antibodies
b. Antigen
c. T cells
d. Macrophages
a. Antibodies
158
Which of the following is not acceptable practice in sample collection?
a. Urine collected by free catch
b. Urine collected by catheter
c. Urine collected by cystocentesis
d. Urine collected and shipped to the lab in a syringe with needle attached to it
d. Urine collected and shipped to the lab in a syringe with needle attached to it
159
Which of the following statements is incorrect about antibody titer?
a. It is the last (highest) dilution of the serum at which antibodies are detected in test
b. b. Determination of antibody titer can be used for diagnosis of infectious diseases
c. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
d. A four fold increase between serum samples collected at acute and convalescent stages of disease is indicative of an active infection
c. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
160
Results from Serum testing for brucellosis:
Animal x; Serum titer = 1/100
Animal y; Serum titer = 1/800
Interpretation: Animal Y has higher levels of antibody than animal X. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
a. True
161
Cell wall component unique to bacteria:
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Teichoic acid
c. Mycolic acid
d. Peptidoglycan
d. Peptidoglycan
162
Cell wall component unique to Gram positive Bacteria:
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Teichoic acid
c. Mycolic acid
d. Peptidoglycan
b. Teichoic acid
163
Cell wall component unique to Gram negative Bacteria:
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Teichoic acid
c. Mycolic acid
d. Peptidoglycan
a. Lipopolysaccharide
164
Gram Positive staining in some bacteria is due to the presence of a:
a. Peptidoglycan layer
b. Teichoic acid
c. Thick peptidoglycan layer
d. Thick outer membrane
c. Thick peptidoglycan layer
165
Acid fast positive staining in Mycobacteria is due to the presence of:
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Teichoic acid
c. Mycolic acid
d. Peptidoglycan
c. Mycolic acid
166
Which one of the following process is the least likely virulence mechanism in bacteria?
a. Bacterial movement using flagella
b. Bacterial attachment using fimbriae
c. Biofilm production and attachment to surfaces
d. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes
d. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes
167
Which of the following antimicrobial does not belong to B-lactam group?
a. Ampicillin
b. Imipenem
c. Cephalosporins
d. Enrofloxacin
d. Enrofloxacin
168
Which will be the least likely scientific factor to be considered when deciding on antimicrobial therapy?
a. Know the drugs
b. Know the microbes
c. Know the patient
d. Know the client
d. Know the client
169
The most common canine Staphylococcus isolate is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
c. Staphylococcus hyicus
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
170
Blackie, a 5 year old female dog was presented to the vet clinic with unresolving skin lesions. Purulent and bloody exudate was oozing out of some of the lesions. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is most commonly involved in this type of cases in dogs?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
c. Staphylococcus hyicus
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
171
An inducible Clindamycin resistance should be considered in Staphylococcus spp. resistant to:
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Methicillin
a. Erythromycin
172
Which of the following is not true of Aminoglycoside group?
a. Act by inhibiting protein synthesis
b. Is Nephrotoxic
c. Imipenem is a member of the group
d. Need parenteral administration
c. Imipenem is a member of the group
173
True/ False: Gentamicin is not a good choice of antibiotic to treat anaerobic infections
True
174
Gentamicin and Penicillin should be mixed in the same syringe to obtain the synergistic effect
False
175
Which of the following is a Streptococcus species belonging to the Lancefield group G and is reported to cause fatal illness in cats?
a. S. equi subsp. Zooepidemicus
b. S. felis
c. S. canis
d. S. suis
c. S. canis
176
Which of the following Streptococcus sp. is an important pathogen in fish and is zoonotic?
a. S. pneumonia
b. S. suis
c. S. iniae
d. S pyogenes
c. S. iniae
177
True/False: Clinicians must consider Vancomycin as a last resort antimicrobial agent to treat infections because of the emergence of vancomycin resistant Enterococcus spp.
True
178
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
a. MIC is the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent which can inhibit the growth of bacteria
b. Published break point are required fro interpretation of AST results
c. MIC can be measured in E-Test
d. MIC can be accurately measured in Disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer test)
d. MIC can be accurately measured in Disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer test)
179
32. A bacteria which uses host actin to travel through cells
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Streptococcus iniae
a. Listeria monocytogenes
180
Which of the following is incorrect about listeriosis in ruminants?
a. Sporadic outbreaks occurs after feeding spoiled silage
b. Encephalitis and neurological signs occur after the organism enter through the wounds in the buccal mucosa
c. Generally, disease occurs in the winter months
d. Hepatic necrosis is the main lesion in adult ruminants
d. Hepatic necrosis is the main lesion in adult ruminants
181
True/Flase: Toxin and capsule are required for the virulence of Bacillus anthracis
True
182
True/False: Capsule of Antrhax bacilli is composed of a polysaccharide
False
183
McFadyean staining reaction is used for detecting
a. LPS of anthrax bacilli
b. Capsule of anthrax bacilli
c. Fimbriae of anthrax bacilli
d. Microvilli of anthrax bacilli
b. Capsule of anthrax bacilli
184
True/False: In avirulent forms of bacillus anthracis presence of toxin is essential for generating protective immune response
True
185
True/False: “Anthrax is a contagious disease”
False
186
Appropriate term for drugs belonging to the Sulfa group
a. Antibiotic
b. Antimicrobial agent
c. Antibacterial agent
d. Antiparasitic agent
b. Antimicrobial agent
187
True/False: Sulfa drugs act by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis pathway
True
188
Properties of mycobacteria include all except:
a. Presence of myolic acid
b. Positive acid fast staining
c. Presence of lipid compounds in the cell wall
d. May survive in the macrophages
e. All members are obligate pathogens
e. All members are obligate pathogens
189
Which of the following staining is not an Acid Fast staining method?
a. Kinyoun’s
b. Zeihl- Neelsen
c. Auramine rhodamine
d. Giemsa
d. Giemsa
190
True/False: Mycolic acid present in the cell wall of Mycobacteria facilitate phagocytosis and removal of mycobacteria
False
191
All of the following animals are reservoirs of M. bovis in certain geographic locations except:
a. Elephants
b. Cattle
c. Badgers
d. Brush tail possums
a. Elephants
192
Which of the following is incorrect about mycobacterium infections?
a. Induce granulomatous inflammation
b. Multinucleated macrophages are common in lesions
c. Caseous necrosis and mineralization may be present in the lesions
d. Humoral immunity helps in protecting from infections
d. Humoral immunity helps in protecting from infections
193
Johne’s Disease is primarily a disease of:
a. Ruminants
b. Horses
c. Dogs
d. Cats
a. Ruminants
194
Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis causes:
a. Granulomatous enteritis
b. Granulomatous pneumonia
c. Granulomatous neuropathy
d. Granulomatous encephalitis
a. Granulomatous enteritis
195
Johne’s disease is:
a. Bovine tuberculosis
b. Intestinal adenomatosis
c. Paratuberculosis
d. Crohn’s disease
c. Paratuberculosis
196
True/False: Combination antimicrobial therapy is essential in the treatment of tuberculosis to kill multiple species mycobacteria present in a lesion
False
197
Combination antimicrobial therapy is recommended for treating tuberculosis due to the following reasons except:
a. To address multiple species of mycobacterium
b. To address the bacteria which are in various stages of development
c. To prevent the development of antimicrobial resistance
d. To address intracellular and extracellular bacteria
a. To address multiple species of mycobacterium
198
Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats is caused by:
a. Corneybacterium pseudotuberculosis
b. Corneybacterium renale
c. Corneybacterium bovis
d. Corneybacterium ovis
a. Corneybacterium pseudotuberculosis
199
True/False: Rhodococcus equi is an obligate intracellular pathogen
False
200
True/False: A positive antibody titer to Phospholipase D exotoxin of C. pseudotuberculosis is a confirmatory diagnosis for internal forms of Caseous lymphadenitis
False
201
Which of the following combination of antimicrobials are used for treating foal pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi?
a. Beta lactam/ aminoglycoside
b. Macrolide/ rifampin
c. Sulfa/ trmethoprim
d. Tetracycline/ fluoroquinolone
b. Macrolide/ rifampin
202
True/False: A disease can be diagnosed by identifying the infectious agent and the host immune response
True
203
Humoral immune response is measured by screening for;
a. Antibodies
b. Antigens
c. T cells
d. Macrophages
a. Antibodies
204
Which of the following statements is incorrect about antibody titer?
a. It is the last (highest) dilution of the serum at which antibodies are detected in a test
b. Determination of antibody titer can be used for diagnosis of infectious disease
c. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
d. A four fold increase between serum samples collected at acute and convalescent stages of disease is indicative of an active infection
c. Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
