Exam 1 - Chapter 24+26 Flashcards
(89 cards)
1
Q
A personal value system can be defined in terms of _______
A
virtues, values, ethical principles, and morals
2
Q
A common concern for collective self discipline
A
Professional ethics
3
Q
T or F : Morals control individuals within a group
A
False
4
Q
T or F : Conscience controls individual morality
A
True
5
Q
T or F : Ethical dilemmas are easily solved by codes of ethics
A
True
6
Q
Moral rules are best applied to ethical dilemmas when __________
A
The ethical dilemma is very wide in scope
7
Q
Action to benefit others; doing of good
A
Beneficence
8
Q
Which step is NOT apart of the problem solving process? a) identifying the problem b) developing alternative solutions c) selecting the best solution d) defending your solution e) determining ethical sanctions
A
E) determining ethical sanctions
9
Q
The strict observance of promises or duties; loyalty and faithfulness to others
A
Fidelity
10
Q
Generally accepted customs of right living and conduct are _________
A
Morals
11
Q
A persons self reliance, independence, liberty, rights, privacy, individual choice, freedom of the will, and self-contained ability to decide.
A
Autonomy
12
Q
Articulated statements of role morality as seen by the members of a profession.
A
Codes of ethics
13
Q
Belief that health-related information about individual patients should not be revealed to others; maintenance of privacy
A
Confidentiality
14
Q
Belief that the worth of actions is determined by their ends or consequences; actions are right or wrong according to the balance of their good and bad consequences.
A
Consequentialism
15
Q
Obligations placed on individuals, groups, and institutions by reason of the so-called moral bond of our interdependence with others.
A
Duties
16
Q
Situations requiring moral judgment between two or more equally problem-fraught alternatives; two or more competing moral norms are present, creating a challenge about what to do.
A
Ethical Dilemmas
17
Q
Gross violation of commonly held standards of decency or human rights
A
Ethical Outrage
18
Q
Bodies of systematically related moral principles used to resolve ethical dilemmas
A
Ethical Theories
19
Q
Systematic study of rightness and wrongness of human conduct and character as known by natural reason.
A
Ethics
20
Q
Ethical reflections that emphasize an intimate personal relationship value system that includes such virtues as sympathy, compassion, fidelity, discernment, and love.
A
Ethics of care
21
Q
Equitable, fair, or just conduct in dealing with others.
A
Justice
22
Q
Regulations established by government and applicable to people within a certain political subdivision.
A
Laws
23
Q
Rights of individuals or groups that are established and guaranteed by law
A
Legal rights
24
Q
Basis for rights-based ethical theory; each individual is protected and allowed to pursue personal projects
A
Liberal individualism
25
General, universal guides to action that are derived from so-called basic moral truths that should be respected unless a morally compelling reason exits not to do so; also referred to as ethical principles
Moral Principles
26
Rights of individuals or groups that exist separately from governmental or institutional guarantees; usually asserted based on moral principles or rules
Moral Rights
27
Statements of right conduct governing individual actions
Moral Rules
28
Generally accepted customs, principles, or habits of right living and conduct in a society and the individuals practice in relation to these
Morals
29
Belief that actions themselves, rather than consequences, determine the worth of actions; actions are right or wrong according to the morality of the acts themselves
Non-consequentialism
30
Ethical principle that places high value on avoiding harm to others; A moral principle that describes the radiographers aspiration to do no harm.
Non-maleficence
31
Standards set by individuals or groups of individuals
Norms
32
Use of moral principles as a basis for defending a chosen path of action in resolving an ethical dilemma; also see principlism
Principle-based Ethics
33
Belief system based on a set of moral principles that are embedded in a common morality
Principlism
34
Publicly displayed ethical conduct of a profession, usually embedded in a code of ethics; affirms the professional as an independent, autonomous, responsible decision maker.
Professional Ethic
35
Internal controls of a profession based on human values or moral principles
Professional Ethics
36
Manners and attitudes generally accepted by members of a profession
Professional Etiquette
37
Justified claims that an individual can make on individuals, groups, or society; divided into legal rights and moral rights
Rights
38
Belief that individual rights provide the vital protection of life, liberty, expression, and property
Rights-based Ethics
39
ARRT's mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct. These are enforceable and can result in sanctions should the ARRT determine the certificate holder has violated any of the rules.
Rules of Ethics
40
Relationship that exists when two mutually dependent groups in a society recognize certain expectations of each other and conduct their affairs accordingly
Social Contract
41
Practice behaviors that are defined by members of a profession
Standards of professional conduct
42
Ideals and customs of a society toward which the members of a group has an affective regard; a value may be a quality desirable as an end in itself
Values
43
Collection or set of values that an individual or group has as each persons personal guide
Value system
44
Duty to tell the truth and avoid deception
Veracity
45
Traits of character that are socially valued, such as courage
Virtues
46
Ethical theory that emphasizes the agents who perform actions and make choices; character and virtue form the framework of this ethical theory
Virtue-based Ethics
47
Any willful attempt or threat to inflict injury on the person of another, when coupled with the apparent present ability to do so, and any intentional display of force such as would give the victim reason to fear or expect immediate bodily harm
Assault
48
any unlawful touching of another that is without justification or excuse
Battery
49
an agreement between two or more persons or parties which creates an obligation to do or not to do a particular thing
Contract
50
Holding up a person to ridicule, scorn, or contempt in a respectable and considerable part of the community
Defamation
51
Conscious restraint of the freedom of a person without proper authorization, privilege, or consent
False imprisonment
52
Intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing a person to rely on the false information to his or her detriment
Fraud
53
Persons agreement to allow something to happen which is not expressly given but rather inferred from a persons actions or inactions
Implied Consent
54
Persons agreement to allow something to happen (such as surgery ) that is based on a full disclosure of the facts needed to make the decision intelligently that is, knowledge of the risks involved, alternatives, benefits, and other information needed by the reasonable person to make a decision.
Informed Consent
55
Failure to do something that a reasonable person guided by the ordinary considerations that ordinarily regulate human affairs would do or the doing of something a reasonable and prudent person would not do
Negligence
56
Meaning the thing speaks for itself; legal theory requiring three elements (1) that the type of injury did not occur except for negligence (2) that the activity was under the complete control of the defendant (3) that the plaintiff did not contribute to his or her own injury in any way
Res Ipsa Loquitur
57
Meaning let the superior respond or the master speaks for the servant; the physician, supervisor, or employer may be liable in certain cases for the wrongful acts of employees or subordinates
Respondeat superior
58
Degree of skill (proficiency), knowledge, and care ordinarily possessed and employed by members in good standing within the profession
Standard of care
59
Private or civil wrong or injury, other than breech of contract, for which the court provides remedy in the form of an action for damages
Tort
60
Todays litigious society requires that all healthcare professionals, including radiologic technologists, be aware of the areas of the law that may affect the delivery of health care services. A basic principle of the law was defined in _______________________ in 1914 and lays a foundation for the relationship between patients and health care practitioners.
Schloendorf vs. Society of New York Hospital
61
Every human being of adult years and sound mind has a right determine what shall be done with his or her own body, and a surgeon who performs an operation without his or her patients consent commits an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, for which he or she is liable in damages.
Assault
62
The doctrine serves six functions:
1) protects individual autonomy 2) protects the patients status as a human being 3) avoids fraud and duress 4) encourages health care practitioners to consider their decisions carefully 5) fosters rational decision making by the patient 6) involves the public in medicine
63
The law is multifaceted and draws its principles from several foundations. The first and probably most important foundation is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The Constitution of the United States
64
The Constitution of the United States was written to separate powers of the three branches of government: name the branches
Executive ( the presidency ) Legislature ( Congress ) Judiciary ( a system of courts )
65
The separation of powers offers a system of _____________ that prohibits any one branch from becoming more powerful than another.
checks and balances
66
The Constitution of the United States protects the ________________ of citizens of the united states.
individual rights
67
An estimated ____ of all medical negligence claims are somehow relate to diagnostic imaging, either by improper diagnosis or by injuries to patients sustained during diagnostic procedures.
10%
68
The legal theory Res Ispa Loquitur requires what 3 elements?
1. That the type of injury did not occur except for negligence.
2. That the activity was under the complete control of the defendant.
3. That the plantiff did not contribute to his or her own injury in any way.
69
A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations?
1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation
2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination
3. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party
1-2-3
70
What conditions must be met in order for a patient consent form to be valid? (3)
1. The patient must sign the consent form before receiving sedation.
2. The physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure.
3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the patient signs the form
71
Radiographs are the property of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Hospital or Health care institution
72
A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Assault
73
What legal phrase defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome?
Contributory negligence
74
Facsimile transmission of health information is permitted in what 2 scernarios?
1. permitted for urgently needed patient care.
2. permitted for third-party payer hospitaliza-tion certification.
75
What must be included in the patients medical records or chart? (3)
1. Diagnostic and Therapeutic orders
2. Medical history
3. Informed consent
76
A radiographer would be in violation of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics for the Profession of Radiologic Technology for all of the following except
1. failing to wear a lead apron when performing mobile radiography.
2. failing to participate in continuing education.
3. communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician.
4. refusing to participate in new and innovative technical procedures.
3) communicating information regarding suspected child abuse to the referring physician.
77
Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Slander
78
All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except 1:
1. the right to participate in proposed research studies.
2. the right to continuity of care.
3. the right to considerate and respectful care.
4. the right to review any institutional records.
4) the right to review any institutional records.
79
What are 2 forms of intentional misconduct?
Slander
Invasion of privacy
80
To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Libel
81
Invasion of privacy and False imprisonment are types of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Intentional misconduct
82
An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. An job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Breaking rules of ethics by the ARRT
83
A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
invasion of privacy
84
Honor Code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include ? (2)
1. being suspended from the radiography program
2. being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program
85
Hospitals and other health care providers must ensure patient confidentiality in compliance with what legislation?
HIPAA
86
Each patient has the right to ______________ and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The patient DOES NOT always have the right to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
1. Refuse treatment
2. Right to confidentiality
3. Possess his or her radiographs
87
If a radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer?
Battery
88
The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to what saying?
Let the master answer
89
A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except:
A) Myelogram
B) Cardiac catherization
C) Upper GI series
D) Interventional vascular procedure
C) Upper GI series
