Exam 1: EMS Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What is certification?

A

an exam used to ensure all healthcare providers have at least the same basic level of knowledge and skill

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2
Q

What is licensure?

A

a process by which states ensure an applicant competency in an examination setting

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3
Q

What is certification reciprocity?

A

transfer certification from one state to another

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4
Q

Define clinical care?

A

describes the various pieces of equipment and the scope of practice for using that equipment

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5
Q

What is medical direction?

A

given by a medical director who defines the EMT’s scope of practice | acts as a liasion between EMS and medical community

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6
Q

What are the 2 ways EMTs obtain medical direction?

A

online and offline

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7
Q

What is an offline method of obtaining medical direction?

A

via protocols and standing orders

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8
Q

Define protocol.

A

comprehensive guide outlining EMT’s scope of practice

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9
Q

Define standing orders.

A

parts of a protocol that designate the required actions EMTs must take for a specific complaint/condition

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10
Q

What is an online method of obtaining medical direction?

A

contacting medical control over phone or radio

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11
Q

What does in the integration of health services mean?

A

the care EMTs provide should be continued at the ED

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12
Q

What are the 4 national levels of EMS training?

A

EMR, EMT-Basic, EMT-Intermediate (AEMT), and paramedic

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13
Q

What are the 4 common types of BSI/PPE?

A

gloves, mask, eye protection and a gown

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14
Q

List some medical conditions or pathogens which would make an EMT don a mask.

A

tuberculosis | COVID-19 | airborne droplets

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15
Q

List some conditions which would make the EMT where a face shield?

A

Vomiting, blood splatters, COVID-19

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16
Q

How much particulates does an N95 mask filter?

A

95%

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17
Q

Describe proper hand-washing techniques.

A

wash hands with soap and warm water for about 20 seconds, make sure to get under the fingernails, between fingers and back of the hand

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18
Q

List the steps in preparing for your shift.

A

Clock in, check ambulance outside in.

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19
Q

Describe your responsibilities as an EMT.

A

Protect patient and deliver high-quality emergency medical care

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20
Q

Describe the safe driving habits while responding in an ambulance with lights and sirens?

A

no speeding | patients restained with shoulder restraints | wear your seatbelt and remain seated as much as possible | learn how ambulance accelerates, turns, sways and stoops

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21
Q

Explain the process of approaching a school bus in an ambulance with lights and sirens.

A

Let the school bus pass | turn off lights and sirens

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22
Q

When do ambulances do not have the right of way?

A

train tracks | blocked intersections with no way to oppose | school buses with lights activated | pedestrians

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23
Q

Describe the type of patient who would benefit from helicopter transport.

A

critical patients | away from hospital | need prolonged extrication (ie: trapped at a mountain) | limb replantation (time sensitive) | hyperbaric chamber

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24
Q

3 techniques to improve radio communication.

A

short, simple language, no codes

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25
Components of scene size up
PENMAN
26
List the 4 resources an EMT has to help identify an unknown hazardous material.
placards, fixed facilities, ERG guidebook, NFPA 704 system
27
What is consent?
permission to treat
28
3 types of consent
expressed, implied, involuntary
29
What is expressed consent?
informed consent = tell the patient everything about what is happening and why you are treating them
30
What are the 3 ways expressed consent may be given?
verbal, written, or signals/movements
31
What is implied consent?
applies only to patients who are unconscious or unable to make an informed consent
32
What type of consent apply to unaccompanied minors?
implied consent if a true emergency exists = must treat patient
33
What is involuntary consent?
against patient's will despite if they are conscious
34
Who does involuntary consent apply to?
mentally ill, in behavioral crisis, developmentally delayed
35
Who can police personnel give consent for?
detained patients
36
In what situations would using restraints apply?
patient is combative and a danger to themselves and others
37
Why do we never position a patient in a prone position?
Can potentially close their airway
38
Who has the right to refuse treatment?
People 18yo+ who are ANOx4
39
What must you do when patients refuse treatment
explain risks and consequences of their refusal, encourage treatment, ask them to sign a refusal of care form, document refusal, have a witness available and sign
40
What is a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order?
an advanced directive that gives permission not to resuscitate
41
What kinds of patients might have a DNR?
cancer patients, those in hospice, have life-threatening conditions
42
How does a DNR impact the care an EMT may provide?
unable to perform CPR or Ventilations but may treat other problems such as a sprained ankle
43
What must be present on the DNR in order for it to be valid?
Physician signature and patient or health proxy signature
44
When would an EMT NOT follow a DNR order?
if no DNR is given or the patient decides they want to be resuscitated
45
List the criteria for not providing any interventions or CPR in a patient?
if they have a DNR OR present with definitive signs of death.
46
What are the 4 definitive signs of death?
rigor mortis, putrification, lividity, and decapitation
47
What is rigor mortis?
stiffening
48
What is putrification?
body decomposition
49
What is lividity?
blood settling
50
Discuss the importance of patient management at a crime scene and how an EMT would go about moving items at the scene?
patient care is top priority after scene safety. if need to move objects, ask PD or personnel or let them know.
51
Explain findings that would make the EMT think there was presence of a weapon of mass destruction.
Everyone will present with the same symptoms and general appearance
52
Describe the steps of a primary assessment including treatment taken.
PENMAN (C-Spine stabilization) | GI = AVPU (unconscious no pulse but breathing = CPR) and LOC | ABCDs
53
When does a duty to act legally apply?
responding to a call or have begun treatment
54
What is standards of care?
manner in which you must act
55
What is negligence?
failure to provide the same care that a person with the same level of licensure would provide in the same situation
56
What are the 4 things that need to be present in order to be charged with negligence?
duty to act | breach of duty | damage to the patient | your actions caused the damages
57
What is abandonment?
unilateral termination of care by EMT without patient consent or transferring care to someone with the same or higher level of licensure
58
What is assault?
verbal threats , unlawful placing person in fear of immediate bodily harm
59
What is battery?
unlawful touching a person (can be charged if you treat a patient without consent)
60
What is false imprisonment?
unauthporized confinement of a person
61
what is defamation?
communication of false information that damages reputation of a person
62
What is libel?
written defamation
63
What is slander?
spoken defamation
64
What are the 7 cases in which special mandatory reporting occurs?
abuse | sexual assault | injury while committing a felony | domestic violence | exposures to infectious diseases | crime scene | death
65
What must an EMT encourage a patient to not do in a sexual assault case?
not shower or bathe
66
What must the EMT avoid doing when removing clothing of a patient at a crime scene?
don't cut through bullet holes and stab wounds | dispose bloody clothes in a paper bag
67
What is ethics?
philosophy of right and wrong, moral duties, IDEAL PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOR
68
What is morality?
code of conduct affecting character, conduct and conscience
69
What is bioethics?
specifically addresses issues that arise in healthcare
70
What criteria must be met to be considered an MCI situation?
3+ patients | place of demand on the system to require mutual aid | overwhelms capabilities of an agency's normal first response
71
In a START triage, who would qualify as Yellow?
Repirations < 30/min, CR < 2s, able to follow commands can't walk
72
In a START triage, who would qualify as Red?
RR > 30/min, CR > 2s OR unable to follow commands
73
In a START triage, who would qualify as Black?
dead/expectant = those who do not have an open airway, no respirations
74
Signs and Symptoms of nerve agent exposure?
SLUDGEM = salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, emesis, twitching eyes (miosis)
75
List the 4 conditions in which rapid extrication is necessary?
AMS, inadequate ventilation, shock (hypoperfusion) and dangerous weather conditions