Exam 1 Learning Objectives Flashcards
(172 cards)
1
Q
state how a contaminated item is properly disposed of at the end of lab
A
in the biohazard bin
2
Q
state the safety protocol specific to gram staining
A
have the sink running while preforming the gram stain since the dyes are flamable
3
Q
state the safety protocol specific if the indole test
A
preform in the fume hood since the Kovacs reagent releases dangerous fumes and is extremely flammable. Dispose of tubes that have the Kovacs reagent in the fume hood to let the lab staff take care of
4
Q
proper attire for lab
A
lab coat, gloves, goggles and proper shoes and pants with no skin showing
5
Q
state proper lab notebook protocol for record keeping
A
keep notebook on the bag during lab
6
Q
is the genus or epithet capitalizes in a scientific naming
A
genus
7
Q
explain why and when gloves must be worn
A
when dealing with bacteria, to prevent bacteria from getting on you and eventually getting into the outside world and to prevent your own microbiota from getting into the bacteria
8
Q
when should we not wear gloves
A
when dealing with microscopes
9
Q
ubiquitous
A
descriptive term meaning to exist in wide variety of places, almost universally present
10
Q
what is included in full proper labeling
A
name/initials, section, bench color, species name, and date
11
Q
resolution
A
clarity, distance between 2 points
12
Q
parfocal
A
ability of a microscope to stay in coarse focus when changing objectives
13
Q
purpose of immersion oil when viewing items in 100x
A
immersion oil stops light rays from escaping leading to higher resolution
14
Q
when should we adjust coarse focus
A
when on low power
15
Q
when should we adjust fine focus
A
when on high power
16
Q
describe how one knows all the oil has been removed from the lens
A
clean it until clean with a lens paper
17
Q
total magnification of low power
A
40 (4x10)
18
Q
total magnification of high dry power
A
400 (40x10)
19
Q
total magnification of oil immersion
A
1000 (100x10)
20
Q
what lens is often used when viewing protozoa or fungi
A
40x
21
Q
what lens is used when viewing bacteria
A
100x
22
Q
define aseptic technique
A
not introducing organisms
23
Q
define sepsis
A
organisms present
24
Q
define colony
A
grew from one bacteria, DNA is identical to one another and is visible to the naked eye
25
discuss the frequency and reason for being careful not to touch or handle the open end of a media tube and transfer tool when transferring organisms
could get bacteria on your gloves and could be spread
26
mesophile
grows between 10-47 degrees Celsius and the optimal temp is between 25 and 35 degrees celcius
27
thermophile
grows best above 45 degrees celcius
28
psychrophile
optimal is between -5-5 but can grow up to 20 degrees celcius
29
define aerobic
grows in the presence of oxygen
30
define anaerobic
grows in the absence of oxygen
31
define facultative
either aerobic or anaerobic, data is inconclusive
32
define microaerophilic
prefers less oxygen and more CO2 but is not strictly a anaerobe
33
when creating a graph for anaerobic and aerobic bacteria the graph must start at __ on both x and y axis
0
34
predict how failing to sterilize the loop between quadrants might affect the ability to obtain isolation
if you fail to sterilize the loop you are not going to get proper dilution from the previous quadrant because the bacteria on the loop is going to go on the plate leading to no isolation
35
colony morphology
based on how the colony appears, based on color, shape, height, etc
36
cellular morphology
based on a single cell, based on gram reaction, cell shape, and arrangements of cells
37
if cloudiness of a liquid is caused by bacteria and not by other factors, discuss the correlation between cloudiness of a liquid and the amount of bacteria present
direct relationship between amount of bacteria and cloudiness
38
cocci/coccus
spherical shape
39
bacillus, bacilli
rod shaped
40
spirulim
spiral shaped
41
describe the purpose of heat fixing a smear
to kill the bacteria and fix it to the slide which means the dead bacteria is stuck to the slide which allows you to stain the slide and still have bacteria on it
42
discuss the two methods of heat fixing a smear using the equipment in our lab
15 seconds over the incinerator (in front of the opening) or 5 mins on the holder above the incinerator
43
diplo
pairs
44
chain (prefix strepto)
forms a chain
45
tetrad
4s
46
clusters (prefix staphlo)
clusters of cells
47
what bacteria cannot cluster
baccili
48
paliside
parallel (looks like sausages in a package)
49
random
random arrangement
50
looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: streptococcus
chaining arrangement and cocci shaped cells
51
looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: staphylococcus
cluster arrangement and cocci shaped cells
52
looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: bacillus
bacilli shaped cells
53
define simple stain
use of one dye
54
describe the information one is able to obtain from a simple stain
cell shape and arrangement
55
gram positive stain
purple
56
gram negative stain
pink
57
discuss the effects of over decolorization
stain may wash out of the gram positive cells making them appear pink at the end of the gram stain
58
discuss the effects of under decolorization
stain may not wash out of gram neg cells making them appear purple at the end of the gram stain
59
define gram stain
classifications based on gram reaction
60
state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: E. coli
Gram Neg, Bacillus
61
state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: Staph aureus
gram pos, cocci
62
state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: bacillus subtilis
gram pos, bacillus
63
list the steps of the gram stain procedure
crystal violet, mordant, decolorized, safrain
64
describe the basic procedure for preforming a capsule stain
india ink and crystal violet
65
state the function of a bacterial capsule, describe the role of a capsule in determining an organisms level of virulence
capsule prevents from adverse environment, help cell live which adds to virulence
66
one flagella at one end of cell
monotrichous and polar
67
tuft of flagella at one end of cell
lophotrichous and polar
68
flagella all throughout the cell
peritrichous
69
one flagella at both ends of the cell
amphitrichous and polar
70
name an acid fast species
sp. Nocardia and sp. Myobacterium
71
discuss the name of the acid fast stain in relation to the procedure
if a cell is positive for acid fast it is said "the bacteria holds fast"
72
name the two stains used in an acid fast stain procedure
carbolfushin and methylene blue
73
positive acid fast bacteria will stain
red
74
discuss the purpose of an endospore in bacterium
protects against adverse environments
75
give the name of one spore forming bacteria
clostridium
76
name the two stains used in spore stain procedure
malachite green and safrain
77
describe the ingredient which makes MAC agar a differential media
lactose
78
MAC is selective for
gram neg bacteria
79
the appearance of MAC when positive
bright pink
80
describe the ingredient which makes MSA a differential media
manitol
81
the appearance of MSA when positive
turns yellow
82
determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: alpha hemolysis
partial breakdown, green area
83
determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: beta hemolysis
complete breakdown, yellowish clear
84
determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: gamma hemolysis/nonhemolysis
inability to breakdown, no zone created
85
describe the ingredient which makes blood agar a nutritive media
red blood cells
86
define selective media
growth only for the selective microorganism
87
define differential media
differential between closely related organisms/groups
88
define nutritive
overall nutrients to provide growth
89
describe MAC
selective and differential
90
describe MSA
selective and differential
91
describe blood agar
nutritive and differential
92
describe TSA
general and nondifferental
93
describe the how blood agar can be differential
differential based on the ability to hemolyses RBC
94
what group is being differentiated for in MSA
ability to ferment mannitol
95
what group is being selective for in MSA
selective for 7.5% salt tolerance
96
describe why TSA agar is considered to be a general media
because it permits growth for most organisms
97
describe how biochemical tests aid in identification of a unknown bacterial species
because this is a yes or no question which we already have the answer to, there is no room for interpretation
98
what would a positive SIM tube look like for S
black color
99
what would a positive SIM tube look like for I
red ring created when added Kovacs reagent
100
what would a positive SIM tube look like for M
visual expansion of bacteria in the tube
101
what would a positive urease test look like
bright pink (color change)
102
what would a positive carb tube look like
yellow (color change)
103
universal procations
a policy followed in the medical professions requiring that one must treat every patient and every biological sample as if they carried a potential pathogen
104
in exercise 1.1 you touched a plate, then touched your hair, then touched the agar plate again, why did you need to touch the plate prior to your hair
this was our control
105
what is the total magnification when viewing a sample through the low power lens of a standard light microscope
40x
106
purpose of a nosepiece
to hold the objectives in place
107
which of the growth environments provides the amount of oxygen typically available in deep tissues in the human body
the candle jar
108
central spore
spore in the middle of the bacteria
109
subterminal spore
spore near one end of the bacteria but still some space until the end of the bacteria
110
terminal spore
all the way at one end of the bacteria
111
how to report if no spores are seen
'no spores seen'
112
staphylococcus epidermis GS
gram pos
113
staphylococcus epidermis fastidious
no
114
staphylococcus epidermis 7.5 salt tolerant
yes
115
staphylococcus epidermis other characteristics
mannitol nonfermenter, usually nonhemolytic
116
staphylococcus aureus GS
gram pos
117
staphylococcus aureus fastidious
no
118
staphylococcus aureus 7.5 salt tolerant
yes
119
staphylococcus aureus other characteristics
mannitol fermenter usually beta or nonhemolytic
120
streptococcus pneumoniae GS
gram pos
121
streptococcus pneuminiae fastidious
yes
122
streptococcus pneuminae 7.5 salt tolerant
no
123
streptococcus pneuminae other characteristics
alpha hemolytic
124
bactilis subtillis GS
gram pos
125
bacillus subtillis fastidious
no
126
bacillus subtililis 7.5 salt tolerant
yes
127
bacillus subtillis other characteristics
spore former
128
escherichia coli GS
gram neg bacillius
129
escherichia coli fastidious
no
130
escherichia coli 7.5 salt tolerant
no
131
escherichia coli other characteristics
lactose fermenter, green sheen develops in EMB
132
aceintobacter faecalis gs
gram neg bacillus
133
aceintobacter faecalis fastidious
no
134
aceintobacter faecalis 7.5 salt tolerant
no
135
aceintobacter faecalis other characteristics
lactose nonfermeneter
136
klebsiella pneumoniae GS
gram neg bacillus
137
klebsiella pneumoniae fastidious
no
138
klebsiella pneumoniae 7.5 salt tolerant
no
139
klebsiella pneumoniae other characteristics
lactose fermenter, capsule former, mucoid colony morphology when forming capsules well
140
what are the needs that must be met for an organisms to be able to grow and reproduce
energy source, carbon source, nitrogen source, inorganic salts, vitamins, free water
141
colony morphology is described by
color, size, density, shape, margin, elevation, and consistency
142
colony morphology density
describes the ability of light to pass through the colony, translucent: once can see through it when held up to light
opaque: cannot see through
143
colony morphology margin
shape of the edges of the colony, smooth, wavy, irregular, woolly
144
colony morphology elevation
the colony viewed from the side, flat, convex, raised, hilly, pitted
145
colony morphology consistency
the texture of the colony
146
differential step in gram stain
decolorizer
147
differential step in spore stain
rinsing
148
steps of spore stain
malachite green, rinse, counter stain safrain
149
differential step capsule stain
primary stain (India ink)
150
steps of capsule stain
india ink, counterstain crystal violet
151
steps to acid fast
carbolfushin with heat and steam, rinse/decolorize, counterstain methylene blue
152
citrate positive test
deep blue
153
citrate negative test
green
154
describe eosin methylene blue (EMB)
selective and differential
155
EMB is selective for
gram neg bacteria
156
MAC is selective for
gram neg bacteria
157
MSA is selective for
7.5% salt tolerant
158
EMB is differential between
lactose ferementers
159
EMB lactose fermenters produce
a color
160
EMB lactose nonfermenters produce
no color
161
MSA is differential for
ability to ferment mannitol
162
MAC is differential for
ability to ferment lactose
163
in EMB super fermenters produce
a green metatalic sheen
164
what is one bacteria that was a super fermented in EMB
e. coli
165
how do we create microcephalic conditions
with a candle
166
how do we create anaerobic conditions
with oxygen sucking packets
167
oxygen sucking packets color when there is no oxygen
white
168
oxygen sucking packets color when there is oxygen
blue
169
why is it important to utilize a 24 hour old sample when conducting a gram stain
because it is a cell wall stain, and cell walls deteriorate/change over time, which may lead to an erroneous interpretation of the Gram reaction
170
what is e coli when it comes to oxygen and growing
facultative anaerobe which means it does not require it but grows better in the presence of oxygen
171
what is b. subtilis when it comes to oxygen and growing
facultative aerobe, they were originally thought to be strictly aerobic but more research has came out and found they are a facultative aerobe
172
what is C. sporogenes when it comes to oxygen and growing
anaerobe, no oxygen
