Exam 1 Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

-ol

A

Beta 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

-zoline

A

Alpha 1 selective agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

-zosin

A

Alpha 1 selective antagonists

-high incidence of orthostatic hypotension (limited effect on reflex tachycardia)

doxa-pra-tera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Non-selective alpha blockers

A

phentolamine (OraVerse) - LA reversal/vasodilation

phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline) - Raynaud’s/vasodil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

-lol

A

beta 2 antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mixed Alpha/Beta Antagonists

A

labetolol

carvedilol: hypertensive emergency/cocaine OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non-selective beta antagonist

A

propranolol (high lipid solubility - BBB)

-Migraines, essential tremor, thyrotoxicosis, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sotalol (Betaspace)

A

Non-selective beta blocker

class 3 K+ channel blocker

Anti-arrythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

metoprolol

A

Beta 1 specific antagonist

-Most common prescription for A-Fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

timolol (Timoptic) vs. betaxolol (Kerlone)

A

timolol is non-selective beta antagonist

betaxolol is beta 1 selective antagonist

Both used for glaucoma patient (ciliary body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

-mab

A

Monoclonal antibody (seratonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fremanezumab

Galcanezumab

A

Attach to CGRP; migraine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Erenumab

A

Blocks CGRP receptor; migraine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ergonovine (Ergotrate)

A

post-partum hemhorrage control

alpha and seratonin stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bromocriptine

A

Parkinson’s

Dopamime stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ergotamine

A

migraine treatment

alpha vasoconstriction and seratonin stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sumatriptan (Imititrex)

A

5-HT1B/D Seratonin agonists

  • prevent vasodilation (migraine treatment)
  • Seratonin Syndrome (life threatening) is treated with esmolol (a Beta 1 antagonist)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympathomimetic Antagonists

A

acebutolol

penbutalol

pindolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For epinephrine, which receptors dominate at low doses?

A

Beta receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

A

Alpha 1 agonist

Main drug used for common cold (vasoconstriction to stop runny nose, etc)

21
Q

albuterol & terbutaline

A

Both Beta 2 selective agonists

Terbutaline is the exception to the -ol rule

22
Q

nebivolol

A

beta 1 specific antagonist

also nitric oxide - induced vasodilation

23
Q

Mixed Alpha and Beta Agonists

A

NE (Beta 1)

Epi

ephedrine

pseudoephedrine (Beta 2)

*Others have b1=b2 and all have a1=a2

24
Q

Beta 1 selective agonist

A

Dobutamine

25
Alpha 2 selective agonists
clonidine guanfacine methyldopa Precedex (sedation/intubation) \*All antihypertensives
26
Opthalmic Agonists
Epi **hydroxy**amphetamine (**can't cross BBB)** phenylephrine
27
Thiazide diuretics
chlorthoalidone hydrochlorothiazide metolazone (Chronic Kidney Disease) \*_Decrease_ everything **except Ca++** (K, Na, Mg, Cl)
28
Loop Diuretics
furosem**ide** torsem**ide** Decreased K, Na, Mg, and Cl
29
Potassium Sparing Diuretics
Amiloride Triamterene Avert urinary loss of Mg to help correct hypokalemia
30
Aldoster**one** Antagonists
Epleren**one** Spirolact**one** Block aldosterone receptors in distal renal tubules; conserve K+ and H+ ions
31
ACE Inhibitors
capto**pril** enala**pril** fosino**pril** lisino**pril** - **Angioedema can be life threatening** - Diminished bradykinin degr. = cough side effect - Increase vasodilation, decrease aldosterone, and decrease sodium retention - Increased K and Serum creatinine - Avoid in pregnancy (Fetal death)
32
-pril
ACE inhibitors
33
Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
Los**artan** Vals**artan** -Increased K and Serum creatinine Avoid in pregnancy (Fetal death)
34
-artan
ARBs (Angiotensin Receptor Blocker)
35
Calcium Channel Blockers (non-dihydropryridine)
**Verapamil** **Diltazem**
36
Calcium Channel Blockers (Dihydropyridine)
amlodi**pine** nicarda**pine** nifeda**pine** **\*Gingival hyperplasia**
37
-pine
Ca++ channel blocker
38
Which types of drugs have the potential side effect of postural/orthostatic hypertension?
**Alpha 1 antagonists** (doxa-pra-terazosin) **Alpha 2 agonists** (clonidine/methyldopa/guanfacine) **Reserpine** (Adrenergic Neuronal Blocking agent) **Hydralazine** (direct vasodilator)
39
Which of the following would put the person at highest risk for hypokalemia? What is the classification of each? hydrochlorothiazide furosemide triamterene bumetanide
**Answer- hydrochlorothiazide: Thiazide diuretic** furosemide: Loop diuretic triamterene: Potassium sparing diuretic bumetanide: Loop diuretic
40
Which medication is most likely to cause angioedema? What are their classifications? Atenolol Amlodapine Lisinopril Eplerenone
Atenolol: Beta 1 selective antagonist Amlodapine: Ca++ channel blocker **Lisinopril**: ACE Inhibitor Eplerenone: Aldosterone Antagonist
41
Which of the following drug(s) has the potential to cause an increase in heart rate? What are the classifications of each? amlodopine verapamil hydralazine terazosin
**amlodopine**: Ca++ channel blocker verapamil: Non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker; ONLY ONE THAT DOESNT **hydralazine**: direct vasodilator **terazosin**: alpha 1 antagonist
42
Which of the following has the side effect of gingival hyperplasia? ACE Inhibitors Ca++ channel blockers Beta blockers ARBs
**Ca++ channel blockers**
43
JS is a 68 year old male with hypertension, CAD, COPD, hypothyroidism, and anxiety and comes in for a routine dental cleaning. He mentions that his COPD has worsened and he experienced shortness of breath throughout the day. Medications include: propranolol, aspirin, alorvastatin, tiotropium (Spiriva), albuterol, levothyroxine, and alprazolam (Xanax). Is he on a medication that could be causing his shortness of breath?
**Yes**. The **propranol** is a beta 2 antagonist, which is directly antagonizing the beta 2 agonist (albuterol)
44
JS is a 72 year old male with BPH and CAD. His current medications include: aspirin, rosuvastatin, doxazosin, nebivolol, and nitroglycerin. He visits your clinic today because he fell when getting out of bed this morning and broke one of his teeth. Which medication may have contributed to his fall?
**Doxazosin**, an alpha 1 selective antagonist nebivolol is a beta 2 selective antagonist
45
The ROCK ON 53 trial was a double-blinded, placebo controlled study in 2600 patients with resistant hypertension assessing the efficacy of Dilatex daily or placebo. The primary endpoint was reduction in mean SBP after 24 months of treatment. What phase trial is this? What does double-blinded mean? What does placebo-controlled mean?
Phase 3 trial Double-blinded: neither the physician nor the patient knows which treatment they will be prescribing/receiving Placebo controlled: There is a non-therapeutic option available to control the experiment and measure the effectiveness of the dependent treatment.
46
What does this prescription mean? Ibuprofen 800 mg **po TID PRN** dental pain
Ibuprofen 800 mg; **taken orally**; **three times per da**y; take **as needed for** dental pain
47
A 55-year old female underwent a surgical procedure in your dental clinic and experienced a reaction to anesthesia. She has persistent nausea and vomiting. The dentist would like to prescribe prometazine (Phenergen), a histamine 1 recepotr antagonist. What would be the best rout of administration? PO, PR, IM
Not IV because it causes severe tissue damage if administered too quickly PO
48
Warfarin is metabolized in the liver by CYP450 2C9 and 3A4. JS recently tested positive for a UTI. She was prescribed an antibiotic, BactrimDS. This drug is a potent enzyme inhibitor of CYP4502C9. She calls your office again because her gums are bleeding again. How should this be addressed?
Prescribe an alternative antibiotic that doesn't affect the metabolism of warfarin (amoxicillin)