Exam 1 Study Guide Concepts Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
Identify and label important structures of the nervous tissue. Be able to label dendrites, axon, nucleus, nucleolus, nissl substance, and nuclei of glial cells.
A
2
Q
Identify and label important structures of the skeletal muscle. Be able to label A and I bands, and nuclei.
A
A band is a whole thick filament made of myosin and is dark. I band is a thin filament made of actin. The I band is the light space in between the dark A bands.
3
Q
Identify and label important structures of the smooth muscle. Be able to label a smooth muscle cell and nuclei.
A
4
Q
Identify and label important structures of the thin skin histology. Be able to label epidermis, dermis, subQ layer, hair follicle, sebaceous gland, and sweat gland.
A
5
Q
Identify and label important structures of the hair follicle.
A
6
Q
Be able to label the clavicle.
A
7
Q
Be able to label the carpals of the hand.
A
8
Q
Be able to label and locate different areas of the pelvis. Label ilium, ischium, and pubis bone.
A
9
Q
Be able to label the greater and less trochanter of the femur.
A
10
Q
Be able to label the talus bone of the foot.
A
11
Q
Compare and contrast the different types of anatomy.
A
A. Gross anatomy- large-scale structure visible to the naked eye.
B. Microscopic anatomy/ histology- microscopic study of the tissues.
C. Surface anatomy- structure that can be seen without cutting as in routine patient examination.
D. Systemic anatomy- Study of one organ system at a time.
E. Regional anatomy- study of all organs in a given body region such as the head or thorax.
F. Comparative anatomy- study of more than one species in order to understand common themes and evolutionary trends in body structure.
12
Q
Compare and contrast histology to functional morphology.
A
Histology is the study of the cells and extracellular matrix of body tissues. Morphology is defined as the fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues.
13
Q
Compare and contrast the light and electron microscope.
A
Light microscope produces an image of a specimen by using beam of light. Electron microscope uses electrons to produce an image.
14
Q
What term describes towards the front of the body and towards the back of the body?
A
Anterior (Ventral)- towards the front of the body (The sternum is anterior to the heart)
Posterior (Dorsal)- towards the back of the body (The esophagus is posterior to the trachea)
15
Q
What terms describes above and below in anatomical terms?
A
Superior- above (The heart is superior to the diaphragm)
Inferior- below (The liver is inferior to the diaphragm)
16
Q
What terms refer to midline of the body and away from the midline of the body?
A
Medial- towards the midline of the body (The heart is medial to the lungs)
Lateral- away from the midline of the body (the eyes are lateral to the nose)
17
Q
What is the term for closer to the point of attachment/origin and farther from the point of attachment/origin?
A
Proximal- Closer to the point of attachment (the elbow is proximal to the wrist).
Distal- Farther from the point of attachment (the fingernails are at the distal ends of fingers)
18
Q
What are the terms for the same side of the body and the opposite sides of the body?
A
Ipsilateral- on the same side of the body (the liver is ipsilateral to the appendix)
Contralateral- On opposite sides of the body (The spleen is contralateral to the liver)
19
Q
What is the term for towards to head/ superior end?
A
Cephalic- (The cephalic end of the embryonic neural tube develops into the brain).
20
Q
What is the term for towards the forehead or nose?
A
Rostral- the forebrain is rostral to the brainstem.
21
Q
What is the principle behind radiography, PET scans, and sonography?
A
Radiography- X-ray. Contrast medium for visualization of hollow organs.
PET Scan- Gamma ray detection. Radioisotopes are used in this to detect.
Sonography- Reflection of ultrasound waves.
22
Q
What is anatomical position?
A
Standing erect with flat feet, arms supinated, and face forward.
23
Q
Define and characterize organs, organelles, cells, and living organisms.
A
Organs- made up of two or more tissue types and perform one or more functions.
Organelles- Functioning structures
Cells- Cells are the building blocks of tissues.
24
Q
What are the four classes of tissue?
A
Epithelial, connective, nervous, and muscular.
25
Describe the main functions and characteristics of epithelial tissue.
Epithelial tissue comprises layers of closely spaced cells that cover organ surface or form glands; and serve for protection, secretion, and absorption. Avascular tissue. Located mainly in inner lining of GIT and other glands. Additionally found anywhere the external environment extends into the body.
26
What are the two main types of epithelial tissue?
Simple epithelium- Occurs where every cell touches a basement membrane.
Stratified epithelium- Occurs when some cells lie on top of others. Named by the top layer.
(Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue has cells that all attach to the basement membrane but may appear layered as not all cells reach the free surface)
27
Describe the 3 types of epithelial cell shapes.
Squamous- scale-shaped cells
Cuboidal- cube-shaped cells
Columnar- elongated cube shaped cells
28
Describe the general functions and structure of the plasma membrane including cholesterol, proteins, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and glycocalyx.
The plasma membrane is made of 75% phospholipids (two water loving heads and two water hating tails), 20% cholesterol (essential for maintaining integrity, flexibility, and strength) and 5% glycolipids (enable membrane to heal itself). Glycoproteins are integral proteins that have an attached carbohydrate chain. The glycocalyx is a spongy carbohydrate coating on every cell surface that is formed by carbohydrate components of glycolipids and glycoproteins. It functions in cell identification and adhesion.
29
Describe the structure and function of the cell's nucleus, rough and smooth ER, ribosomes, and mitochondria.
The nucleus contains the DNA of the cell. DNA is wound up in chromosomes. Ribosomes are made in nucleus and pass through nuclear pores to enter cytosol.
The smooth ER has more tubular cisternae and no ribosomes. It produces triglycerides, cholesterol, and steroid hormones. It detoxifies drugs and stores calcium in skeletal muscle.
The rough ER has flat cisternae and is covered with ribosomes. This is the major site of protein synthesis.
Ribosomes are protein-synthesizing granules of RNA and enzymes that read genetic messages and assemble amino acids.
The mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell responsbile for the production of ATP. It has its own DNA.
30
Describe the function, location, and appearance of simple squamous epithelial tissue.
Single squamous epithelial cells is a single layer of scaly cells. These cells are close together and easily damaged. These cells are located in the serosae of the abdominal viscera(secretes serous fluid which lubricates organs) (surface lining abdominal organs), capillaries (for diffusion), and the alveoli of the lungs (minimize barrier of diffusion for gases).
31
Describe the function, location, and appearance of simple cuboidal epithelial tissue.
Simple cuboidal epithelial tissue is a single layer of cube shaped cells. It is involved in absorption, secretion, and movement of mucus in the airway. Located in kidney tubules, gland ducts, bronchioles, liver, and thyroid glands.
32
Describe the function, location, and appearance of simple columnar epithelial cells.
Simple columnar epithelial tissue is a single layer of elongated cube cells. Functions in secretion and absorption. Found in the lining of GIT and contains numerous microvilli. Also contains mucous secreting goblet cells.
33
Describe the function, location, and appearance of pseudostratified columnar.
Pseudostratified columnar appears to be several layers but is actually one in which the cell nuclei are at different levels. Found in the lining of upper portions of respiratory tract. Contains numerous goblet cells that secrete mucous that is moved along by cilia.
34
Which of the following dissectional planes would divide the body into left and right unequal halves?
Parasagittal
35
Your fingers are _______ to your wrist.
Distal
36
Which of the following is NOT a membrane specialization found associated with the apical aspect of an epithelial cell?
Desmosomes. (These are adhesive junctions at the basolateral membrane of epithelial cells connecting epithelial cells to one another.)
37
What is NOT a feature of the epithelium?
Highly vascular
38
Which cell of connective tissue is capable of secreting all 3 fiber types plus the amorphous ground substance?
Fibroblast (can secrete collagenous, reticular, and elastic fibers. Also secretes the ground substance)
39
Which fiber type of connective tissue generally forms three-dimensional meshworks?
Reticular CT. Reticular CT is branching reticular fibers and fibroblasts. It is located in the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and thymus.
40
Which of the following is NOT associated with the lateral cell membrane of epithelial cells?
Hemidesmosome (Junctions involved in the anchoring of epithelial cells to their basement membrane)
41
The glycocalyx of the cell functions in:
Recognition of the cell
42
A lack of vitamin C results in...
Lack of production of proline and lysine (amino acids)
43
Which is NOT a connective tissue?
Muscle (blood, cartilage, areolar, and osseous tissue are all CT)
44
Who laid the foundation for the systematic study of anatomy by identifying themes, for example, that complex structures are built from simpler structures?
Aristotle
45
Which feature is unique to mammals?
Hair
46
Which statement about the hypodermis is correct?
It consists of loose connective tissue and adipocytes.
47
Which of the following is NOT a layer found in thin skin?
Stratum lucidum
48
Which of the following is a dermal layer composed of loose (areolar) connective tissue?
Papillary layer
49
Which of the following terms refers to a location commonly referred to as the "cuticle" surrounding a fingernail?
Eponychium
50
The skin does NOT include...
the hypodermis
51
Hair turns gray or white as people age because...
Melanocytes die out
52
Thick skin is found....
On the palms of hands and the soles of feet.
53
Identify the bony space labeled by the #4.
Haversian Canal. Haversian canals are narrow channels formed by lamellae. They surround blood vessels and nerve fibers.
54
Identify the layer peeled back and indicated by #1.
Periosteum
55
How are adjacent Haversian canals linked?
They are linked via oblique perforating channels called Volkmann's canals.
56
Intramembranous ossification forms which specific type of bones?
Flat bones
57
What is the primary center of ossification found in long bone?
Diaphysis
58
Which specific structure facilitates blood vessel penetration of mineralized cartilage in endochondral ossification?
Periosteal bud
59
What is not a part of the axial skeleton?
Hip bone
60
Identify letter A.
Coronal suture (remember coronal anatomical term for the body)
61
Identify the zygomatic bone.
C
62
What process participates in the temporomandibular joint?
B (mandibular condyles)
63
Which of the following is NOT present in a typical synovial joint?
Elastic cartilage
64
Identify the bony process indicated by letter A on this long bone.
Greater Trochanter
65
Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
Hyoid bone
66
Identify the fibrous joint relating to these bones of the forearm.
C (interosseous membrane)
67
The joint surface indicated by D belongs to which specific type of synovial joint?
Ball and socket joint
68
Identify bone C
Navicular
69
What are connective tissues and what are the 3 main types?
Connective tissue is the most abundant and varied of all 4 primary tissues. It functions in binding of organs, physical support and protection, immune protection, movement, storage and heat production.
A. Fibrous connective tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Supportive connective tissue
C2. Fluid connective tissue- this only includes blood.
70
What are the 3 different fibers types in fibrous connective tissue?
A. Collagenous- tough and flexible (seen in tendons and ligaments)
B. Reticular- Thin collagen fibers (framework of spleen and lymphs)
C. Elastic- stretch and recoil (lungs)
CRE- continuing resource education in important in fibrous connection within a company.
71
Describe dense regular connective tissue.
Has less ground substance and more closely packed fibers. Is made of bundles of parallel collagen fibers and fibroblasts squeezed between them. Makes up tendons and ligaments.
72
What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?
Exocrine glands secrete outside of the body or into cavities. They use ducts to do this.
Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the blood.
73
What are the functions of sweat (sudoriferous) glands?
A. Merocrine sweat glands- most numerous, produce perspiration to cool body. Found all over the body and excrete via exocytosis.
B. Apocrine sweat glands- Become active during puberty and function in secretion of sex pheromones. Release by exocytosis. Mainly located in groin, beard, areola, anal region, and axilla.
74
What is the difference between phagocytosis and pinocytosis?
Phagocytosis- bulk absorption of solid material
Pinocytosis- bulk uptake of liquid material
(pine trees need to drink water)
75
What are the different functions of the skin?
The skin is resistant to trauma and infection, retains water (epidermis), synthesizes vitamin D, feels sensation, has thermoregulation (blood vessels in dermis), and allows for nonverbal communication.
76
When is DNA replicated during the cell cycle?
S phase
77
What are stem cells?
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that can multiply and mature into specialized mature cells.
Pluripotent stem cells are embryonic stem cells- only cell capable of differentiating into any type of embryonic or adult cell
Adult stem cells- multipotent meaning can differentiate into multiple mature cell types.
Unipotent- only able to differentiate into one mature stem cell
78
Describe the process of apoptosis.
Apoptosis is programmed cell death.
79
What is the cytoskeleton of a cell?
The cytoskeleton is a supportive framework for a cell composed of protein microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules.
Microfilaments are made of the protein actin. They form a supportive terminal web on the inner face of the plasma membrane.
Intermediate filaments are larger and stiffer protein filaments. They give the cell its shape, resists stress, and contributes to intracellular junctions.
Microtubules- hollow cylinders composed of the protein tubulin which functions to hold organelles in place, form bundles maintaining cell shape, form centrioles and mitotic spindles.
80
Distinguish between thin and thick skin.
Thin skin has no stratum lucidum. Thin skin is found all over the body.
Thick skin contains a stratum lucidum. It is found on the palms, soles of feet, and digits of fingers.
81
What are the causes of the variations in skin color among modern humans?
All people have around the same number of melanocytes but the quantity of melanin produced varies. Dark skin is an adaptation to exposure to UV radiation. Darker skin protected those living on the equator from the breakdown of folic acid. When populations migrated though, skin color lightened because UV rays were needed in order to make vitamin D. Skin color is a compromise between folic acid and vitamin D requirements.
82
Why does skin color change with age?
Melanocyte stem cells die out. Skin become thinner and more translucent. Dryness of skin due to atrophy of sebaceous glands.
83
Describe the hypodermis and associated histology.
The hypodermis is not a true layer of the skin. It contains adipose and areolar tissue. It functions in energy storage, thermal insulation, and connection to deeper tissue.
84
Describe the 5 epidermal cell types and their functions.
A. Tactile (merkel) cells- Sense receptors
B. Dendritic (langerhans) cells- macrophage cells
C. Stem cells- produce keratinocytes only in the deepest layer of the epidermis (stratum basale)
D. Keratinocytes- synthesize keratin. Makes up most of epidermal cells. Mitosis occurs in stratum basale and as older keratinocytes are pushed upwards.
E. Melanocytes- produce black or brown pigment. Found in stratum basale.
85
Describe the process of nail growth.
Nails are hard plates of densely packed and dead keratinized cells. The nail matrix is the growth zone composed of epidermal stratum basale at the proximal end of the nail bed.
86
What is jaundice?
Jaundice is the build up of bilirubin in the blood causing a yellow tint in skin and eyes.
87
What is basal cell carcinoma?
Skin cancer is induced by different forms of UV radiation. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common and least dangerous (unlikely to metastasize) form of skin cancer. It arises in the stratum basale and invades the dermis.
88
What are the 7 functions of the skeletal system?
Support, movement, protection of organs, blood formation in bone marrow, calcium and phosphate electrolyte balance, acid-base balance in blood, and detoxification.
89
Where is blood formed in the bone?
Blood is formed in the red bone marrow of bones.
90
What is the composition of the bone matrix? Describe the importance of organic and inorganic components.
1/3 organic- collagen and large protein carbohydrate complexes called glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins. Protein component makes bone resistant to tension so it can bend without breaking.
2/3 inorganic- 85% hydroxyapatite (crystallized calcium phosphate), 10% calcium carbonate, and 5% other inorganic materials. The mineral component of bone makes it resistant to compression.
91
What is the number of bones in a baby versus the number of bones in an adult?
Around 270 bones present in a child at birth as epiphyses are not yet fused. Around 206 bones in adults.
92
How many pairs of ribs are there?
12 pairs of ribs. 24 in total!
93
What is the difference between the axial and appendicular skeletons?
Axial skeleton- forms the central supporting axis of the body and includes the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage
Appendicular skeleton- consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs and the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
94
Describe short, long, and irregular bones. Where are they found?
Short bone- gliding within joints (carpals of wrist, talus of the foot)
Long bone- rigid levers for movement (ulna and radius, femur)
Irregular bones- complex shape (vertebrae, sphenoid bone)
95
What are the functions of vitamin A, C, and D in bone deposition?
Vitamin A- promotes formation of glycosaminoglycans (protein-carb fibers)
Vitamin C- promotes collagen cross linking
Vitamin D- Necessary for calcium absorption by small intestine and reduces urinary calcium loss.
96
What are the locations and functions of main foramen openings in the skull? (foramen magnum, and foramen ovale).
Foramen is a type of surface marking indicating a hole through a bone.
Foramen magnum- hole in occipital bone where spinal cord leaves the brain.
Foramen ovale- hole in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone. It transmits the mandibular nerve.
97
What are the locations and functions of the main foramen of the spinal column? (vertebral foramen and transverse foramen)
Vertebral foramen- contains the spinal cord
Transverse foramen- holes in the transverse processes of vertebrae. Used for the passage of vertebral arteries.
98
Describe why the first 2 vertebrae are unique. What is the joint between the C1 and the skull?
C1- Atlas! Only has the YES motion. Has no body and support the skull
C2- Axis! Only have the NO motion. The dens of the axis provides the rotational movement.
Atlantooccipital joint is the joint between C1 and the skull!
99
What are main bones that form the eye orbital?
Frontal bone, Zygomatic bone, maxilla, lacrimal bone, sphenoid bone, palatine bone, and ethmoid bone.
100
What are the main cranial bones? How many are there?
8 bones of the cranium! 1 frontal, 1 sphenoid, 1 ethmoid, 1 occipital, 2 parietal, and 2 temporal bones.
101
Locate the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital bones.
1 frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, and 1 occipital.
FPOT!!
102
Locate the facial bones. How many bones of the face are there?
2 Maxillae, 2 Palatine, 2 Zygomatic, 2 lacrimal, 2 nasal, 2 inferior nasal conchae, 1 vomer, and 1 mandible.
There are 14 bones total.
103
What is the difference between male and female pelvic girdles?
Female pelvis is smaller, smoother, and tilted forwards. Hips are more flared and wider.
Male pelvis is bigger, rougher, and deeper. The hips are less flared.
104
What are important surface characteristics of the tibia and fibula of the lower legs?
Tibia is larger than the fibula. Tibia has condyles and tuberosity as well as a medial malleolus. Fibula has a head and a lateral malleolus.
105
Where and what is the calcaneus of the foot?
This is the heel!
106
What are the sacrum and the coccyx?
The sacrum is 5 vertebrae fused together during young adulthood. Forms posterior wall of pelvic cavity.
The coccyx is 4 or 5 coccygeal vertebrae fused together by the age of 20. Provides a point of attachment for muscles of the pelvic floor.
107
What is the ulna of the lower arm?
The ulna is the medial arm bone. It is held together with the radius via the interosseous membrane. The ulna features a wrench-like proximal end formed by the olecranon, trochlear notch, and coronoid process.
108
What are synostoses?
These are boney joints. They are immoveable and happens when two bones are ossified together. Examples include the mandibular bones, cranial sutures, epiphyses with diaphyses, and first rib to sternum.
109
What are sutures in the terms of joints?
Sutures are immobile or slightly moveable joints. Sutures are classified as serrate (interlocked), lap (overlapped), or plane (straight and non-overlapped).
An example of a serrate suture is the sagittal suture of the skull.
110
What are characteristics of the intercarpal joints?
The intercarpal joints are a type of synovial joint. It is specifically a plane/gliding joint. This is a biaxial movement.
111
What is the shoulder joint?
This is also known as the glenohumeral joint where the head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula. The shoulder joint is a synovial joint. Specifically it is a ball and socket joint.
112
What is the coxal joint?
The coxal joint is also known as the hip joint. This is where the head of the femur inserts into the acetabulum of the hip bone. Have very deep sockets to help support the weight of the body. It is a type of synovial joint known as ball and socket joint.
113
Describe the movements of protraction, pronation, flexion, adduction, and abduction.
Protraction- movement of bone anteriorly (movement of shoulder during rowing a boat).
Pronation- moves palm to face posteriorly (Radius crosses ulna here).
Supination- move palms to face anteriorly (radius and ulna are parallel)
Flexion- decreases a joint angle
Adduction- moving a body part towards to medial plane.
Abduction- moving a body part away from the medial plane (spreading fingers, raising arms above the head)
114
What is dorsiflexion of the foot?
This is an ankle movement that raises the toes.
115
Where is dense regular connective tissue located?
In tendons and ligaments. Made up of parallel collagen fibers. Fibroblasts here.
116
Where is dense irregular connective tissue located?
It surrounds nerves and muscles and forms the bulk of the dermis. Made up of a random arrangement of densely packed collagen fibers. Fibroblasts here.
117
Where is loose/areolar connective tissue located?
Found beneath the epithelium, around blood vessels and organs. It is a loose arrangement of reticular tissue with collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers.
118
Where is reticular connective tissue located?
Reticular connective tissue is located mainly in the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, and thymus. It is made of branching reticular fibers and fibroblasts.
119
Which of the following is NOT present in a typical synovial joint?
Elastic cartilage (articular cartilage, fibrocartilage, and fibrous CT are present)
120
What movement is limited to the foot?
Dorsiflexion
121
What movement is limited to the forearm?
Pronation
122
Which of these is not associated with the shoulder joint?
Radial (lateral) collateral ligament.
The glenoid labrum is a ring of fibrocartilage that deepens the socket.
The coracohumeral ligament, transverse humeral ligament, and sub deltoid bursa are also apart of the shoulder joint.
123
The most likely function of a synostosis is to....
Protect delicate organs
124
A metacarpophalangeal joint is.....
A condylar joint (biaxial)
125
The patella and femur form a ___________ joint.
Gliding/ plane
126
A torn tendon or ligament is the cause of _________.
A sprain
127
If two bones are joined so firmly together they cannot move, they form a ________.
Synostosis
128
Which of the following joints are multiaxial?
Coxal joint (hip joint)
