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Spinal Anatomy > Exam 1 Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 Study Guide Questions Flashcards

(105 cards)

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0
Q

What is osteology?

A

The study of bone

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1
Q

What are the four tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues

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2
Q

What are the three primary cell types of bone?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes & osteoclasts

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3
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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4
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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5
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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6
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycan’s predominate in bone?

A

Chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates and hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type I

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8
Q

What are the primary constituents of the bone material?

A

Calcium, phosphate, citrate and carbonate ions

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9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissues will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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11
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, and radium

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12
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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13
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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16
Q

What bones are derived from intramembranous ossification?

A

The nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, frontal, parietal, most of the mandible and clavicle, the squama of the temporal and occipital bones, and the greater wing of the sphenoid

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17
Q

Which bones of the neurocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The frontal, parietal, squama of the temporal and occipital bones, and greater wing of the sphenoid

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18
Q

Which bones of this splanchnocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, and part of the mandible

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19
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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20
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

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21
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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22
Q

What bones are formed from the chondrocranium?

A

The inferior nasal concha, ethmoid, and the remainder of the mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones

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23
Q

Which bones of the splanchnocranium are derived from cartilage?

A

The inferior nasal concha and part of the mandible

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24
Which bones of the neurocranium are derived from cartilage?
The ethmoid, and parts of the sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones
25
Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
The mandible, sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones
26
What bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
The clavicle
27
What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on the time of appearance?
Primary centers of ossification appear before birth; secondary centers of ossification appear afterbirth
28
Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?
Cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone
29
What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?
Subchondral bone
30
What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of the bone?
The periosteum
31
What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of the bone?
The endosteum
32
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
Gender variation (sexual dimorphism), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation), and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
33
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?
Gender variation or sexual dimorphism
34
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?
Ontogenetic variation
35
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity and locational variation is identified as which type of variation?
Geographic variation or population-based variation
37
Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on uniqueness between individuals is identified as which type of variation?
Idiosyncratic variation
38
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
39
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
accessory bone
40
What are examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
41
What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?
air spaces with the bone
42
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal
43
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
the bone develops within a tendon
44
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
45
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
46
What are the four basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets
47
When do the surface features of a bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
48
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded, and sharp
49
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge, and crest
50
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus
51
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
52
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
53
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
54
What is the definition of an osseous ostium?
a round or oval opening on the surface of bone
55
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
56
What are the names given to an osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
57
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
58
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent of bones
59
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
60
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
61
How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?
80 bones
62
What bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
63
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
cranium
64
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calva or calvaria
65
What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?
the frontal, parietal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid
66
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
67
What bones form the facial skeleton?
nasal, lacrimal, vomer, palatine, zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, inferior nasal concha
68
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton?
14 bones
69
What bones comprise the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the cervial, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae, and the sacrum and coccyx
70
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
71
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
72
What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the true suture?
intramembraneous ossification; interlocking edges
73
What are the classifications of true sutures (sutura vera) based on suture appearance?
serrate, denticulate, and limbous
74
What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the false suture?
endochrondral ossification; non-interlocking edges
75
What are the classifications of false sutures (sutura notha) based on suture appearance?
squamous and harmonia
76
Overlapping, non-interlocking sutures would be examples of which classification?
squamous suture
77
Sutures which neither overlap no interlock are classified as ______ ?
plane sutures (sutura harmonia)
78
What is the classic example of the plane suture (sutura harmonia)?
cruciate suture
79
What is the classification of a "peg-in-socket" joint?
gomphosis
80
Which joint classification would involve a "nail" appearance?
gomphosis
81
Which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?
schindylesis
82
What is an example of the schindylesis?
osseous nasal septum: sphenoid-ethmoid articulation, sphenoid-vomer articulation, ethmoid vomer articulation, vomer-palatine articulation or vomer-maxilla articulation
83
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
the are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage, and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
84
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid
85
What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses, and they monitor the joint "at rest"
86
What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
87
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
88
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
89
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
90
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
91
What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?
aid in spreading synovial fluid
92
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
93
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
94
What the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?
formation and absorption of synovial fluid
95
What are examples of glycosaminoglycans important in articular cartilage?
hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates, and keratin sulfate
96
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
for a network for water retention
97
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
98
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to its original volume slowly, a time dependent property
99
Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
100
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
101
Which theory of joint lubrication implies and adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
102
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, vicous, slightly alkaline, and tastes salty
103
Synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups?
fats, salts, albumins, and hyaluronate
104
What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
105
What is the function of synovial fluid?
provides a nutritive source for articular cartilage and supply the lubricant for the cartilage surface

Spinal Anatomy (2 decks)

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