Exam Flashcards
1
Q
When will the RAT deploy without time delay?
A
If both engines are lost and the slat/flap handle is not in the 0/0 position.
2
Q
With only one AC generator operating in flight, which AC busses remain powered?
A
AC BUS 1 and 4.
3
Q
What system is used for cooling the engine oil?
A
FCOC (Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler)
4
Q
How do the engine run switches shut off the fuel to the engines?
A
By closing the high pressure shut off valve (HPSOV).
5
Q
With is the primary method used by FADEC to control engine power?
A
EPR
6
Q
What is the rated static thrust of the BR710A2-20 engine at sea level to ISA+20?
A
14,750 lbs
7
Q
What is the default engine synchronisation mode?
A
EPR.
8
Q
During an engine start, the FADEC is using Channel A and Igniter 1. What FADEC channel and igniter will be used for the next engine start?
A
Channel B, Igniter 1.
9
Q
Use of rated take-off EPR is limited to:
A
5 minutes AEO
10 minutes OEI
10
Q
How is the use of cross-side frequencies displayed on the CTP?
A
Displayed in Amber.
11
Q
For the ISI to provide LOC/GS deviation:
A
It must be tuned to Nav 2.
12
Q
On the FMA, an active mode is which colour?
A
Green.
13
Q
If both pilots are using the same ILS source:
A
14
Q
What is the maximum radar range?
A
320nm (display 300nm).
15
Q
What are the prohibited areas for the cursor on the Display Units?
A
Both PFDs and the permanent EICAS/Status page.
16
Q
When will the Flight Director come into view on the PFD?
A
1 second after the nosewheel has lifted off the ground.
17
Q
What happens if the display unit with EICAS (DU 2) fails?
A
EICAS/System page moves to the MFW of DU1.
18
Q
What is indicated by the “MSG” soft key on the lower part of the DU showing yellow text on a grey background?
A
High priority message(s) are unread.
19
Q
In the event of more than 1 page of CAS messages, what additional information is present on the CAS?
A
A text line is shown at the bottom of the CAS messages list when multiple pages exist.
20
Q
How can an EMS CDU pilot selected test function be terminated?
A
By reselecting the associated activation key on the right hand side of the EMS CDU.
21
Q
In accordance with the AFM, what is the load limit for the APU generator?
A
40kVa
22
Q
External DC, when connected, feeds in to the:
A
APU Battery Direct bus.
23
Q
What busses are shed during single TRU operation?
A
DC BUS 1 and 2
24
Q
In flight with one generator available, which AC busses are powered, which ones are shed?
A
AC Bus 1 and 4 are powered.
25
The VFG’s are cooled:
By a conformal oil cooler.
26
DC power is generated / provided by:
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU).
27
Whilst in cruise, a complete AC power failure occurs and the RAT automatically deploys. Which of the following is true?
The AC ESS bus will be powered along with the Battery Bus and DC ESS bus, the avionics and the APU batteries.
28
The main wheel well overheat detection is provided by:
A single loop heat detector.
29
Fire detection and extinguishing is provided for:
Both engines and the APU compartment.
30
In order to discharge the second fire bottle into the APU compartment…
The lockout release pin must be moved to the right to allow the handle to rotate.
31
After pulling an engine fire discharge handle, which shutoff valves or generators are commanded to a closed or offline condition?
Fuel shutoff
Hydraulic shutoff
Pneumatic shutoff
AC power shutoff
Fire extinguishing
32
What functions are carried out when an APU FIRE DISCHARGE handle is pulled to the armed position?
Ignition shutoff
Fuel shutoff
Power shutoff
Bleed shutoff
Bottles armed
33
In case of an APU fire, the APU will…
Shut down automatically via FADEC.
34
Engine fire detection is provided by:
A dual loop sensing element.
35
A Main Wheel Well Overheat when detected will give:
EICAS message and aural warning.
36
A pilot activated fire test is initiated from the…
EMS CDU.
37
To prevent accidental engine shutdown and fire extinguisher discharge:
Handles are maintained in their stowed position by internal springs and a solenoid operated locking mechanism.
38
What is the role of the hydraulic RAT accumulator?
To maintain constant reservoir pressure in the event that hydraulic System 3 ACMP’s are inoperative.
39
What is the maximum tailwind permitted for engine ground starting?
20kts
40
What is the maximum permitted airspeed for Flap 16?
210KIAS
41
What is the maximum ITT that must not be exceeded during engine start on the ground and inflight?
700 / 850 degrees
42
At what altitude must the flight spoilers be retracted?
300ft AGL
43
What is the maximum permitted airspeed for Flap 30?
185KIAS
44
What is the MTOW?
98,000lbs
45
What is the MRW?
98,250lbs
46
What is the MLW?
78,600lbs
47
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?
-40 degrees
48
What is the maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration?
300KIAS / 0.8M
49
What is the maximum altitude for take-off and landing?
10,000ft
50
What is the procedure for take-off above MLW near bodies of water?
Outflow Valve 2 Closed and One Pack Off
51
What is the max ITT at MCT?
860 degrees
52
What is the minimum engine speed during icing conditions?
76% N2
53
What is the tyre speed limit?
183kts
54
Static ground operations of engines is prohibited in the range:
66-80% N1
55
Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited below:
-12 degrees
56
What is the service ceiling of the Global 6000?
51,000ft
57
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for take-off?
+5 degrees
58
What is VLE?
250KIAS
59
What is VLO?
200KIAS
60
When a hydraulic “B” pump is commanded on, what is the minimum time is will run for?
5 minutes
61
What hydraulic systems are used to retract the landing gear?
Systems 2 and 3
62
Where is brake pressure displayed?
Hydraulic Synoptic Page
63
Which wheels does the parking/emergency brake act?
All main wheels.
64
Which hydraulic systems power the left aileron?
Systems 1 and 3
65
If the APU is shut down normally on the ground, how long is the cool down period?
60 seconds
66
If there is an APU fire on the ground, what will happen
FADEC will shut down automatically.
67
What must the pilot do if the APU is to be used to power a bus above 37,000ft?
Turn off the associated hydraulic pump.
(Bus+Pump=4 except 3A)
68
What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU?
30,000ft
69
What is the wingspan?
94ft
70
What is the aircraft length?
99ft 5in
71
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 turn?
Global 6000: 68ft
Global 5000: 65ft 4in
72
What is the aural warning priority of the following items:
TAWS, TCAS, STALL, OTHER
Stall, TAWS, TCAS, Other
73
How far does the trend vector predict?
10 seconds
74
How is the slip indicator represented?
Trapezium
75
What is the FMS source priority?
Onside FMS, FMS 3, Cross-side FMS
76
What are the 4 MSG soft key colours?
Amber: Unread messages of high priority
White: Unread messages or less priority
Black: All messages have been read
Grey: No messages
77
What is the HAL for RNP APPCH?
RNP 0.3
78
What are the operating parameters of the weather radar?
320nm range (300nm display)
120 degree azimuth (40 degree per second)
+/- 32 degree tilt
79
When are TCAS RA’s prohibited?
Prevented below 1100ft AGL on climb and below 900ft AGL during descent.
80
When is TAWS Mode 7 (Windshear) active?
On takeoff and landing from 10 to 1500ft AGL.
81
When will Emergency Descent Mode (EDM) automatically engage?
When the autopilot is engaged above FL250 and the cabin altitude is above 14,500ft.
82
What is the nominal pressure of the hydraulic systems?
3000 psi
83
With the relevant hydraulic B pump in AUTO, when will they automatically start?
Slats/flaps are not in the IN/0 position and motion is stopped.
Low pressure is sensed (<1800 psi).
84
What is the maximum number of starts per hour for the APU?
3
85
What is the sequence of events when the APU DISCHARGE handle is pulled?
Ignition shutoff
Fuel shutoff
Generator power shutoff
Bleed air shutoff
Arms fire bottles
86
With a CWC above 20kts, are there any limitations?
Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30KIAS.
87
What is the engine start sequence?
Ignition
Fuel flow
Light off
Ignition off
SAV closes
Generator online
88
Where does the MLG receive its hydraulic power from for operation?
Systems 2 and 3 for extension/retraction and System 3 for Gear Doors.
89
Which of the following statements regarding auto brake is true:
Auto brake will engage with WOW from the MLG and the nosewheel in the air.
90
Which hydraulic systems are used to keep the gear in the uplock position?
Hydraulics are not used for uplock. It is completed by a mechanical uplock and all hydraulic pressure is removed when gear is up and locked.
91
After positioning the gear down via manual gear release, the nosewheel steering:
Operates in free caster mode.
92
How are the 8 MFS operated?
Electronically controlled and hydraulically actuated by single PCUs.
93
What is the purpose of the ROLL SPLRS PLT CONT switch?
To allow full control of MFS following a failure or jam of the controls.
94
A FUEL IMBALANCE appears on EICAS with wing tanks that hold less than 19,450lbs of fuel. What is the max imbalance?
1100lbs
95
How is the centre tank fuel transfer completed?
Automatically.
96
How are the engine fuel shut off valves operated?
By pulling the FIRE DISCHARGE handle.
97
An amber EICAS message of “FUEL IMBALANCE” appears. What does this mean?
Imbalance of 1100lbs.
98
What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go around?
600lbs
99
Is fuel dumping available?
No.
100
What is the correct engine fuel burn sequence?
Wing to 93%, centre to 0%. Wing to 5500lbs, aft tank to 0%.
101
What fuel system information is displayed on the primary EICAS page?
Tank quantity, total quantity, fuel flow.
102
During gravity refuelling, which tank cannot be refuelled?
Aft auxiliary tank.
103
What is required when fuelling the aft tank separately?
Each wing must contain 4000lbs.
104
Where is brake pressure displayed?
Systems Hydraulic Synoptic Page
105
Where is brake temperature displayed?
Status Page
106
On take off roll your aileron trim is out of the limit. What warnings will you get as you advance the thrust levers?
NO TAKEOFF aural alert.
CONFIG ALL TRIM on EICAS.
107
What is indicated by an Amber hydraulic SOV on the synoptic page?
The valve has failed.
108
What is the most preferable configuration for holding?
Clean.
109
How is the overheat detection in the MLG bay detected?
Single loop detector.
110
How is fuel transferred to the engines?
Directly from the feed tanks.
111
What is the role of the hydraulic RAT accumulator?
To maintain a constant reservoir pressure in the event that System 3 ACMPs are inoperative.
112
Under what conditions should the PRVs in the fuel tank NOT be operated?
When wing tank > 11,800lbs or centre tank > 8,000lbs.
113
When will the recirculating of fuel automatically start?
Above 34,000ft when either; one temperature shows -20 degrees or the average of all temperatures is less than -9 degrees.
114
What is the green band of the THS?
-4.5 to 11 units.
115
What is the maximum altitude for slat/flap operation?
18,000ft.
116
Describe the secondary flight controls:
Stabiliser
MFS (4 per wing)
Slats (4 per wing)
Flaps (3 per wing)
Ground spoilers (2 per wing)
117
How is the proper positioning of the HUD monitored?
By an infrared optical alignment sensor.
118
What is the value of each mark on the speed trend indicator?
5kts
119
What is thermal crossover?
When there is less contrast due to less temperature difference between objects due to the time of day (normally after sunrise and sunset).
120
How do you turn on the EVS?
By pushing the HUD rotary knob in.
121
What are the target speeds for departure and climb?
200kts until 2,500ft AGL, 250kts below 10,000ft, 300kts above 10,000ft.
122
What is the purpose of the Down Lock Release switch on the landing gear control panel?
To override the gear lever solenoid lock following a malfunction in flight.
123
Which of the following will not disconnect the autopilot?
Manual activation of the aileron trim.
124
TO mode commands the FD to a fixed pitch attitude of___ degrees during two engine operations and ___ during one engine inoperative operations.
17.5 and 13 degrees.
125
Which statement is true regarding the AFCS?
In the event of an AP channel failure, the priority will automatically switch over to the other channel.
126
After positioning the gear down via manual release, the nosewheel steering:
Will operate in free caster mode.
127
What is the required airspeed with a L(R) REVERSER UNLKD EICAS message?
Less than 170kts.
128
Where is the cowl anti-ice bleed source?
5th stage compressor
129
Whilst addressing an engine fire situation, how long must you wait after firing the first bottle to fire the second?
45 seconds
130
When both pilots are using their normal ADC sources, what colour will the annunciation be in the top right of their PFD?
There will be no annunciation.
131
What is the visual eye reference for landing approach height?
15ft 6in
132
What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
-40 degrees
133
What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning?
45 degrees
134
What is the APU shutdown RPM requirement before turning off the BATT MASTER switch?
< 70%
135
What are the sources of aircraft generated AC power?
4 VFG’s
1 APU generator
1 RAT
136
What does the AVAIL light on the EXT AC switch on the overhead panel indicate?
Indicates the correct: phase, voltage and frequency of power is connected and available.
137
In an emergency, how long will the aircraft batteries provide DC power for?
15 minutes minimum.
138
Can a thermal circuit breaker be reset via the EMS CDU?
No. Only physically reset at its location.
139
In cruise, when does the RAT automatically deploy?
14 seconds after loss of all AC power.
140
At what speed on the approach does the RAT generator go offline?
147kts
141
How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?
Mechanically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
142
Under which two conditions will the stabiliser in motion aural clacker sound?
Trim runaway
Stab trim switch held for an extended period
143
During landing, when will the ground spoilers deploy?
Throttles idle and two of the following:
RA < 7ft
One MLG WOW
One wheel speed > 16kts
144
What is the AFM limitation for the fuel XFEED SOV?
Closed for take-off and landing.
145
What is the C of G range for the aircraft.
20-41% MAC
146
When must cowl anti-ice be switched on?
When visible moisture is present and OAT < +10 degrees.
147
When must wing anti-ice be switched on?
When visible moisture is present and OAT < +5 degrees.
148
What is the minimum fuel required for use of the centre fuel tank?
500lbs
149
Why must manual operation of the wing transfer system be monitored?
No automatic shutdown or overfill protection is provided.
150
What is the power source for the refuel/refuel panel?
APU battery direct bus
151
How is hydraulic fluid cooler prior to returning to the applicable reservoir?
Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks.
152
How are the brakes controlled?
Electronically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
153
How is WOW sensing accomplished?
Two proximity sensors on each main and nose gear assembly.
154
How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled?
By the LGECU.
155
What are the nosewheel steering limits for the tiller and rudder?
Tiller +/- 75 degrees
Rudder +/- 7.5 degrees
156
With the auto brake set, what two conditions must be met to activate the system?
Both MLG WOW for > 5 seconds or wheel spin up > 50kts, and;
Ground spoilers commanded to deploy
157
What is the maximum operating speed above and below 8000ft?
< 8000ft: 300kts
> 8000ft: 340kts
158
Whilst flying in icing conditions, a failure is detected in the wing anti ice system. With the wing cross-bleed in AUTO:
The wing cross bleed valve opens and the relevant wing anti ice valve closes automatically.
159
What is the maximum permitted cabin diff pressure during taxi and take-off?
0.1psi
160
What is the maximum altitude approved for use of the AUX PRESS system?
41,000ft
161
From which stages of the compressor is bleed air extracted for the ECS?
5th and 8th
162
What is the cowl anti-ice bleed source?
5th stage of the HP compressor.
163
What is the maximum ground time operating with a failed avionics fan and ECS OFF?
30 minutes
164
Above what altitude will the CABIN ALT caution message display?
8,200ft
165
Above what altitude will the CABIN ALT warning message display?
9000ft
166
With respect to the CPCS, if the landing elevation is manually entered:
The CPCS remains in AUTO mode.
167
What is the max cabin altitude at 51,000ft?
5,670ft
168
What is the max cabin altitude at 45,000ft?
4,500ft
169
What is the max relief diff pressure?
-0.5 to 10.73psi
170
How many modes does the CPC have?
2: Primary (Predictive) and Secondary (Reactive)
171
The emergency lighting system power supply has a maximum duration of:
Approximately 20 minutes
172
How long does it take to turn off the nosewheel compartment lights?
20 mins
173
What one condition will only cause the seatbelt signs to illuminate?
Slats/flaps are not in zero degree position
174
During ground operation, how is the primary navigation light protected from overheating?
Thermal switch integrated for automatic switching to secondary navigation lights.
175
How are the service lights operation controlled?
Individual switches near the respective lighted areas.
176
What happens if MAN position only is selected from the LDG ELEV - MAN/FMS switch located on the pressurisation panel?
An EICAS message is displayed until an UP or DN selection is received.
177
What is the max differential pressure permitted during touchdown?
1.0 psi
178
With the L ENG BLEED and R ENG BLEED in the ON position:
BMC’s control bleed pressure.
179
During take-off, the use of wing and cowl anti-ice systems:
Are not permitted in AUTO mode, only ON/OFF.
180
When a TRIM AIR LEAK is detected, the BMC’s and the ACSC will automatically close:
The hot air shutoff valve (HASOV) and trim valve.
181
During manual temperature control operations, the pack discharge temperature range to be maintained is:
5 to 60 degrees.
182
What are the memory items for: APU FIRE
APU OFF
APU DISCHARGE HANDLE PULL
(AFTER 10 SECS) TURN HANDLE
(AFTER 60 SECS) UNLOCK HANDLE AND TURN
For APU FIRE on the ground, disregard timings.
183
What are the memory items for: CONFIG AUTOPILOT
Discontinue take-off roll.
184
What are the memory items for: STALL RECOVERY
A/P DISCONNECT
REDUCE PITCH
MAX THRUST
SPOILERS RETRACTED
WINGS LEVEL
185
What are the memory items for: UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED
DISCONNECT A/P, A/T AND FD
PITCH (<10,000ft: 12.5, >10,000ft: 7.5)
MAX THRUST
SPOILERS RETRACTED
GEAR UP
SLATS/FLAPS IN/0
CLIMB ABOVE MSA
186
What are the memory items for: GROUND PROXIMITY
MAX THRUST/TOGA BUTTON
SPOILERS RETRACTED
A/P DISCONNECT
PITCH MAX PRACTICAL
187
What are the memory items for: WINDSHEAR
MAX THRUST/TOGA
SPOILERS RETRACTED
A/P DISCONNECT
PITCH FOR ESCAPE GUIDANCE
188
What are the memory items for: EMER PWR ONLY
RESET GENERATOR 1 AT A RIME (OFF/RESET)
189
What are the memory items for: LOSS OF ALL DC POWER
EMER DC PWR OVERRIDE
190
What are the memory items for: DUAL ENGINE OUT
DEPLOY RAT
MAX 200KIAS
191
What are the memory items for: ENGINE FIRE
THRUST LEVER IDLE
ENGINE RUN OFF
ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE PULL
(AFTER 10 SECS) ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE TURN
(AFTER 45 SECS) ENGINE DISCHARGE HANDLE TURN OPPOSITE
For ENGINE FIRE on the ground, disregard timing restrictions.
192
What are the memory items for: REVERSER UNLKD
THRUST LEVER IDLE
ENGINE RUN OFF
MAX 170KIAS
193
When do the passenger masks deploy with PASSENGER OXYGEN set to NORM?
14,500 // +500ft, -750ft
194
When do the emergency lights come on with the EMER LIGHTS switch set to ARM?
When there is no power to the DC ESS BUS.
195
What will happen if the passenger oxygen masks are deployed?
Passenger signs (no smoking and seatbelts) will automatically come on.
196
What is the designation/name of the engines?
BR710A2-20
197
What are the starter cranking limits?
3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 seconds off
3 minutes on, 15 minutes off
198
How is the engine protected from overspeed?
When the EEC recognised N1 or N2 overspeed value, it closes the HPSOV.
199
How is EPR calculated?
Ratio of engine inlet total pressure and engine exhaust total pressure.
200
When should rotorbow be expected?
Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of previous engine shutdown.
201
What are the two auto start air envelopes and associated speeds?
ATS ENVELOPE < 249kts
WINDMILL ENVELOPE >249kts
202
What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?
Unusual Attitude, Stall Warning, Windshear Avoidance
203
What is the steepest approach angle for approach?
3.5 degrees without AFM supplements
204
What is the “pitch target box” (take-off reference box) removed?
Upon selection of any vertical mode.
205
On the ground, what two parameters are required for autothrottle to engage if armed?
Speed < 60kts and TLA > 23 degrees
206
What are the three conditions for EDM to automatically engage?
Autopilot Engaged
Altitude > 25,000ft
Cabin altitude > 14,500ft
207
What is the purpose of the EVENT button on the forward auxiliary control panel on the centre pedestal?
To flag a particular event within the FDR.
208
What message displays whilst the EVS CLEAR switch is activated?
EVS CLR displays in the upper right corner of the HUD.
209
Which systems provide the TAS and GS data?
TAS provided by ADC.
GS provided by FMS.
210
What is the green arrow on the left wing of the FPV?
Flight path acceleration cue.
211
What does the speed error tape on the left wing of the FPV show?
Difference in selected and indicated speed up to 15 kts. Each mark is 5kts.
212
What determines the master FMS?
Flight director coupled side selection.
213
What are the memory items for: POST SHUTDOWN ENGINE TAIL PIPE FIRE
ENGINE RUN OFF
(IF BLEED AIR AVAILABLE) ENGINE CRANK (UNTIL FIRE OUT OR ITT<150)
(IF BLEED AIR UNAVAILABLE) EMERGENCY EVACUATION
214
What are the memory items for: EMERGENCY DESCENT
MASK DON AND ESTABLISH COMMS
PASSENGER OXYGEN OVERRIDE
PASSENGER SIGNS ON
EMERGENCY LIGHTS ON
INITIATE DESCENT (9,000ft or MSA, whichever is higher)
THRUST LEVER IDLE
SPOILERS FULL THEN MAX
215
What are the memory items for: CONFIG TRIM/FLAPS/SPOILERS
DISCONTINUE TAKEOFF
216
What are the memory items for: STABILISER TRIM RUNAWAY
MASTER DISC PRESS AND HOLD
STAB CH1&2 OFF
RELEASE MASTER DISC
217
What are the memory items for: EMERGENCY EVACUATION
PARKING BRAKE
COMMAND EVACUATION
GND LIFT DUMP OFF
SPOILERS RETRACTED
ENGINES OFF
APU OFF
DISCHARGE HANDLES PULL
INITIATE EVACUATION
BATT MASTER OFF
@COMMAND EVACUATION (COPILOT ACTIONS)
INFORM ATC
EMER DEPRESS ON
EMER LIGHTS ON
218
What are the memory items for: BRAKE OVHT
AIRSPEED < 200 KIAS
GEAR DOWN
219
What are the memory items for: MLG BAY OVERHEAT
MAX SPEED 200kts
GEAR DOWN
220
What are the memory items for: NORM BRAKE FAIL
SLOWLY PULL EMERGENCY BRAKE
221
What are the memory items for: SMOKE or FIRE
OXYGEN MASKS DON AND ESTABLISH COMMS
PACK CONTROL HIGH
BLEED/AIR CON RECIRC OFF
PRESSURISATION MANUAL / MAN ALT UP
222
After an RTO, what is the minimum cooling time?
15 minutes
223
When will an OXYGEN LO QTY caution appear?
When quantity < 75% (1400psi).
