Exam Flashcards

(141 cards)

1
Q

I’m the x-ray machine, electrons travel from the ____ to the _____.

A

cathode to the anode

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2
Q

A urinary bladder stone on ultrasound would be described as…

A

hyperechoic

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3
Q

what borders or landmarks are used for an elbow radiograph?

A

1/3 radius/ulna, 1/3 humerus

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4
Q

If a radiograph appears too light and the image appears underpenetrated, you should?

A

Increase kVp 10-15%

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5
Q

what is name of the radiographic study that involves injection dye into the spinal column?

A

Myelogram

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6
Q

The term for fewer than normal teeth is?

A

oligodontia

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7
Q

The surface of premolars and molars adjacent to the cheek is called?

A

Buccal

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8
Q

what is the most common dental procedure preformed on a horse?

A

floating

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9
Q

Bovine dentition includes how many upper incisors?

A

0

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10
Q

What is the Bovine dental formula?

A

2x (I 0/3, C0/1, P 3/3, M 3/3)=32

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11
Q

Using the triadan system what is the correct way to describe a dogs first upper left permanent premolar?

A

205

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12
Q

The upper left quadrant in a dog or cats mouth is the _____ series?

A

200

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13
Q

The lower right quadrant in a dog or cats moth is the ____ series?

A

400

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14
Q

The right maxillary third incisor in an adult cat would be numbered?

A

103

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15
Q

The left sided canine tooth of the mandible in an adult dog would be numbered?

A

304

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16
Q

The pulp canal of a tooth contains?

A

blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue

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17
Q

A bull dog would be described as having what type of head shape?

A

brachycephalic

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18
Q

In veterinary dentistry chlorhexidine solutions are used because they?

A

have antibacterial properties

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19
Q

what is false regarding patient safety during a dentistry?

A

The endotracheal tube should be uncuffes so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry.

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20
Q

between patients it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments?

A

Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize

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21
Q

stomatitis is?

A

inflammation of the mouths soft tissue

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22
Q

the thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva and food particles is?

A

plaque

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23
Q

what term identifies the instrument to detect sublingual calculus?

A

Explorer

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24
Q

Fewer teeth than normal is?

A

Oligodontia

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25
an elongation of one side of the animals head results in?
wry mouth
26
what is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solutes for use in the mouth?
0.2%
27
the normal periodontal pocket depth in the dog is?
<3mm
28
what measurement should be charged as a pocket in the gingival sulcus in an adult dog?
4mm
29
The normal adult canine has how many permanent teeth?
42
30
what term identifies the wearing away of teeth by tooth against tooth contact during mastication?
Attrition
31
what is the proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?
Buccal - facing cheek
32
fractured deciduous teeth?
should be extracted
33
what species has a dental pad instead of upper incisors or upper canine teeth?
Bovine
34
The deciduous incisors…
Have roots that are proportionately longer that the roots of permanent incisors.
35
what is the minimum age for a cat to have all of its permanent teeth?
6 months
36
what part of the equines mouth plays a prehensile role?
lips
37
you have an instrument in your hand that has 2 sharp sides, a rounded back and rounded point you are holding a?
universal curette
38
while preforming a routine prophylactic dentistry the veterinary technician notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. the client noted that the lesion comes and goes. what is reasonable differential for this lesion?
eosinophilic ulcer
39
what term identifies the loss of the tooth structure by chemical means?
erosion
40
what teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have 3 roots?
maxillary fourth premolar and first and second molar
41
what cardiac disease is often associated with severe dental disease?
vegetative endocarditis
42
once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus?
About 7 days
43
of cats and dogs ages 6yrs and older, approximately what percentage has periodontal disease?
85%
44
when preforming dental prophylaxis you should be sure to wear?
mask, eye protection, gloves
45
ideally the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface?
45-90%
46
in which species do the teeth fail to continue growing?
cat
47
the correct dental formula for an adult dog is?
2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)=42
48
2 tooth buds that grow together to form one larger tooth is referred to as?
Fusion
49
name 4 opioids commonly used in veterinary medicine?
butorphanol, morphine, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, meperidine, hydromorphone, etc
50
list 3 drugs in the benzodiazepines class?
diazepam, midazolam, lorazepam, zolazepam etc
51
list 2 alpha agonists and 2 alpha 2 antagonists used in veterinary medicine.
dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, xylazine, atipamezole, yohimbine
52
what is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7kg ?
non rebreathing circuit
53
which opioid is classified as a mixed agonist/antagonist, and provides sedation, analgesia and has antitussive properties?
butorphanol
54
Drugs are considered an _______ if their action at the receptor is to stimulate.
agonist
55
opioids may be reversed with?
Naloxone
56
If the patient has hypotension the best single treatment is?
increase the IV fluids
57
A micro drip IV set supplies?
60 gtt/ml
58
the effect of IV administration of any drug is detected in?
30-60secs
59
Acepromozine is classified as an?
phenithiazine tranquilizer
60
A capnograph measures?
Expired CO2
61
you have just induced and intubated a canine patient. the patient has normal chest excursions but the capnography is reading 0. what has likely happened?
the endotracheal tub is likely in the esophagus
62
what is the best explanation for a dog under anesthesia with a heart rate of 200 bpm?
the patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia
63
what intravenous anesthetic agent is extremely short acting and is known to cause apnea if administered too quickly?
propofol
64
a 5% solution of lidocaine has a msg/mL concentration of?
50mg/mL
65
what general anesthetic agent agents can be delivered of effect except?
Telazol give IM
66
what part of the anesthetic machine adjusts oxygen flow and the flow of anesthetic gas to the flow of anesthetic gas to the system is the?
flow meter
67
it is generally safe to extubate a canine or a feline when the patient?
swallows
68
the oxygen flush valve?
allows the oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer.
69
to quickly lighten the depth if anesthesia in a patient under inhalant anesthesia the anesthetist should?
turn the vaporizer setting off or down.
70
what agent is considered an anticholinergic?
atropine
71
when administering barbiturates?
give half the dose quickly and the rest to effect.
72
which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?
propofol
73
what effect does atropine at normal doses have on the HR?
prevents a decrease
74
what drug should be avoided in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock?
Acepromazine
75
the barbiturate commonly used in sight hound for its ability to produce faster recovery is?
Methohexial
76
obesity delays drug elimination bc of the high lipid solubility of which drug?
thiopental
77
thiopental can be given?
IV
78
what is the proper length of time neonatal should be faster prior to surgery?
0hrs
79
what is an example of an alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonist?
Dex, xylazine, medetomidine
80
The term pyrexia means?
Fever
81
a postprandial urine sample would be taken after a period of?
eating
82
what vitamins are fat soluble?
A, D, E, K
83
the normal urine production for a healthy dog or cat is approximately? (mL/kg/hr)
1-2ml/kg/hr
84
what vitamin is also known as thiamine?
B1
85
B1 plays…
an important role in growth and function of cells.
86
what is the average length of gestation for a dog?
63days
87
what needle has the largest interior diameter?
16 gauge
88
the most appropriate solution to use as an ear cleaner in an animal that does not have intact tympanum is?
physiologic saline
89
the vein of choice for blood sampling in horses is the?
jugular vein
90
which reference to the eyes the abbreviation OD mean?
Right eye
91
hypocalcemia in dogs occurs?
most often in mid to late lactation
92
a patient with an increased packed cell volume (PCV) and an elevated total solids is likely suffering from?
dehydration
93
the term nystagmus refers to?
the eyes moving in a horizontal or vertical motion
94
pinpoint hemorrhage of the mucous membranes and skin is termed?
Petechiation
95
what is the avian equivalent to neutrophils in mammals?
heterophils
96
what is a free martin?
a heifer born twinned to a bull
97
what is beef breed of cattle?
hereford
98
the term pyrexia refers to?
fever
99
an animal with what condition is most prone to fluid overload?
cardiac insufficiency
100
the opening of the anal ducts is on the rectum at the?
4 and 8 o’clock positions
101
what is a potential side effect of chemotherapy?
anorexia, anemia, alopecia
102
what is most often associated with cancer patients?
cachexia
103
what sign is not seen in fearful animals?
constricted pupils
104
anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the?
stifle
105
what is a trichobezoar?
Hairball
106
Decubital sores are?
found on skin because of urine scalding and pressure from lying in one position for too long.
107
addisons disease is also known as?
Hypoadrenocorticism.
108
Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of?
erythrocytes
109
what vein is found on the lateral aspect of back leg?
saphenous
110
fluids administered via the subcutaneous route should be at?
body temperature and isotonic
111
at what age can a dog or cat be vaccinated for rabies?
12 weeks
112
what is considered a potential vector for lyme disease which can cause severe human illness
Tick
113
the term pruitt is refers to?
itching
114
the lab tests that are very useful in assessing fluid loss is a patient are?
PCV, plasma protein, and urine specific gravity
115
what animal is a common vector for the rabies virus?
skunk
116
why are imtranassal vaccines so effective against respiratory diseases?
immunoglobin A is produced at the site of virus entry
117
the least desirable method of administering insulin is?
Per OS
118
what tissue is the preferred tissue to be submitted for rabies diagnosis?
Brain
119
what phase of ECG represents the depolarization of the atria?
P wave
120
what is a common complication when intubating feline patients?
laryngospasm
121
a declaw is also known as an?
onychectomy
122
list 3 types of towel clamps commonly used in veterinary medicine.
Jones, Backhaus, Roeder
123
which hemostatic forcep is often used to crush the ovarian pedicle or the base of the uterus during a spay?
Rochester Carmalt
124
What is the name of the instrument most suitable for the removal of the bike during spinal surgery?
Rongeur
125
If a radiograph is too dark, but the image appears to have adequate penetration you should?
Decrease kVp 10-15%
126
The radiographic term that describes the caudal surface of the forelimb distal to the carpus is?
Dorsopalmar
127
what is the effect of opioids on the eyes of dogs and cats?
Miosis in dogs, Mydriasis in cats
128
a postprandial urine sample would be taken after a period of?
Eating
129
A 10% solution of this pentax sodium for anesthetic inductions contain?
100mg/mL
130
Many medications used in pain control may potentially lead to ileus when used for extended periods of time. Which of the following best describes the condition?
Distribution of normal movement of the bowels
131
which type of hemostatic forceps are used to crush the ovarian pedicle or the base of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy?
Rochester Carmalt
132
which agent is classified as an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic and antitussive effects?
Butorphanol
133
When one or more of the upper incisors rest causally the the lower incisors and the rest of the occlusion in normal it is called?
Anterior cross bite
134
what drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer most commonly used as a premedication in small animal medicine?
Acepromazine
135
What is a trichobezoar?
Hairball
136
What is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7kg?
Non-Rebreathing
137
A noninvasive imagine procedure that uses a small amount of radioactive material administered IV is?
Ultrasound
138
what opioid provides good analgesia of long duration for mild to moderate pain in cats and can be given IV, SQ, IM, as well as transmucosally?
Buprenorphine
139
An oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to?
Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth
140
Oliguria is defined as?
decreased urine output.
141
Caslick surgery is performed in mare to minimize?
Pneumovagina