exam😡

Question 1

investigation aim

Answer 1

is the purpose of the study

Question 2

hypothesis template

Answer 2

it is hypothesised IV experimental group, lowered or increased the DV compared to IV control group

Question 3

hypothesis example

Answer 3

it is hypothesised that children who consume sugar will have lowered level of attention compared with those who do not consume sugar

Question 4

independant variable

Answer 4

the variable that is being manipulated by the researcher

(cause of the change)

Question 5

dependant variable

Answer 5

result of the change

Question 6

operationalising the iv and dv

Answer 6

involves defining how they will be manipulated or measured in the experiment

be specific

Question 7

controlled experiment

Answer 7

is an investigation methodology that aims to test the effects of an IV snd DV, with all other variables controlled

Question 8

extraneous variables

Answer 8

variables other then the independant variable that may have unwanted effect on the dependant variable and results

Question 9

examples of extraneous variables

Answer 9

age, sex, personality

difference in temp, noise level light level

Question 10

controlled variables

Answer 10

variables that are held constant to ensure that only influence on the dependant variable is the independant variable

Question 11

example of controlled variable

Answer 11

in a study effecting caffeine on subjects time reaction to imaging, they should control the vision impairment, comfort levels and screen brightness bc these are potential extraneous variables

Question 12

confounding variables

Answer 12

unwanted variables that affect the DV and the results in an investigation and it cannot be determined whether the IV or the confounding variable cause the change

Question 13

population

Answer 13

a population of interest is the wider group of people that a study is investigating

Question 14

sample

Answer 14

the smaller group of people selected from the population who will be participants in the investigation

Question 15

stratified sampling

Answer 15

is where the population is first divided into subgroups, and participants are randomly selected from each subgroup, in the proportion that they appear in the population

Question 16

random sampling

Answer 16

involves selecting participants from the population in such a way that each member has an equal chance of being selected to participate in the study

Question 17

strengths of random sampling

Answer 17

large enough random sampling likely to be representative of the population, improving external validity

Question 18

limitations of random sampling

Answer 18

small random sampling may not be representative of the population, reducing external validity

Question 19

what are the eight investigation methodologies

Answer 19

case study
classification and identification
controlled experiment
correlational study
fieldwork
literature review
modelling and simulation
product, process or system development

Question 20

what occurs in controlled experiments

Answer 20

participants are randomly allocated to an experimental group and the results of the groups are then compared

Question 21

what is the aim of a controlled experiment

Answer 21

to find whether an IV has an affect on the DV

Question 22

what two groups are allocated in a control experiment

Answer 22

experimental group and control group

Question 23

what is an experimental group (controlled experiment)

Answer 23

is exposed to the independant variable and receives experimental treatment

Question 24

what is an control group (controlled experiment)

Answer 24

forms a baseline to compare with the experimental group. Members of the control group participate in the control conditions and are not exposed to the IV and do no receives experimental treatment

Question 25

what are strengths of a controlled experiment

Answer 25

-controlled experiments can identify a cause and effect relationship between an IV and a DV -controlled experiments can be repeated to gather more data and test reliability of results

Question 26

what are limitations of a controlled experiment

Answer 26

-controlled experiments require strictly controlled conditions, which are difficult to maintain, results may be influenced by extraneous variables -may be unethical or impossible to conduct a controlled experiment on a particular variable

Question 27

investigation method: controlled experiment allocation

Answer 27

-participants from the sample are divided into two groups

Question 28

investigation method-controlled experiment choosing a experimental design (investigation designs)

Answer 28

between subjects design within subjects design mixed design

Question 29

between subjects design

Answer 29

when participants are randomly allocated to either the control or experimental condition

Question 30

1st strength of between subjects design

Answer 30

-most time efficient because both groups can be tested at the same time and no pre testing is required

Question 31

2nd strength of between subjects design

Answer 31

it has a lower rate of participant withdrawal then a within subjects design because participants only complete one condition

Question 32

1st limitation of between subjects design

Answer 32

more participants are needed in a between subjects design than a within subjects design

Question 33

2nd limitation of between subjects design

Answer 33

their is less control over the extraneous variable of the participant variables between groups, which may influence results in an unwanted way

Question 34

within subjects design

Answer 34

involves all participants in the sample completing both the experimental and control conditions

Question 35

1st strength of within subjects design

Answer 35

their is no extraneous variable of participant variables between groups, improving validity

Question 36

2nd strength of within subjects design

Answer 36

fewer participants are needed than in a between subjects design

Question 37

1st limitation of within subjects design

Answer 37

their is less control over participant knowledge of the study. The extraneous variables of prior participation in the first condition may influence their behaviour while completing the second condition

Question 38

2nd limitation of within subjects design

Answer 38

it is more time consuming than a between subjects design because both conditions cannot be tested at the same time

Question 39

mixed design

Answer 39

involves a combination between subjects design and within subjects design -may also involves two independant variables

Question 40

1st strength of mixed design

Answer 40

differences in participant variables between groups are controlled within subjects design elements

Question 41

2nd strength of mixed design

Answer 41

can test effect of multiple IV's on a DV in one investigation

Question 42

1st limitation os a mixed design

Answer 42

their is higher rate of participant withdrawal from the study then using between subject design

Question 43

2nd limitation of mixed design

Answer 43

their is less control over participant knowledge of the study. Prior to participation in the first condition may influence their behaviour while completing the second condition

Question 44

investigation method: case study

Answer 44

an investigation of particular activity, behaviour, event or problem that contains a real or hypothetical situation

Question 45

what can a case study be

Answer 45

historical involve real situation based on problem solving where developing new design or methodology

Question 46

what are the strengths of a case study

Answer 46

they can provide rich qualitative data -they can act as a basis for further research

Question 47

what are limitations of case studies

Answer 47

-they may not be repeatable to gain more data or to test reliability of results -they are typically time consuming

Question 48

investigation method: classification and identification

Answer 48

-involves arranging phenomena, objects or events into manageable sets, and recognising phenomena as belonging to a particular part of a new set

Question 49

classification and identification strengths

Answer 49

-classifications can allow for a narrowed focus on research -using classifications can allow for efficient processing of large amounts of info

Question 50

what are limitations of classification and identification

Answer 50

-classifications may be based on subjective criteria -large amounts of information are required to create classifications

Question 51

investigation method: correlational method

Answer 51

involved planned observation and recording of events and behaviours that have not been manipulated or controlled in order to understand the relationships or associations exisiting between variables

Question 52

what can correlational NOT do

Answer 52

cannot find how changing one variable causes a change in another variable and therefore a cause and effect relationship is not found

Question 53

what are strengths of a correlational study

Answer 53

the direction and strength of a relationship between variables can be determined using a correlational study -secondary data can be used

Question 54

what is the 1st limitation of a correlational study

Answer 54

-does not equal or imply causation, so even if a strong relationship is determined, you cannot assume that one variable causes a change in the other

Question 55

what is the second limitation to correlational studies

Answer 55

a large amount of data is recquired

Question 56

investigation method: fieldwork

Answer 56

involves collecting information by observing and interacting with a selected environment

Question 57

what are some examples of fieldwork

Answer 57

participant observation: researcher becoming involved in the group studied qualitative interviews

Question 58

what are strengths of fieldwork

Answer 58

-information on sensitive topics can be obtained using fieldwork -natural settings are more likely to show behaviour that reflects real life

Question 59

what are limitations of fieldwork

Answer 59

-qualitative data can be difficult to summarise -their are ethical concerns with the lack of informed consent in some cases

Question 60

investigation method:literature review

Answer 60

involves collating and analysing secondary data findings and/or view points literature reviews combine theories and results that evaluate a body of literature to answer a research question or provide a starting point for primary collection

Question 61

how can information be summarised (literature review)

Answer 61

-discussing how knowledge has evolved over time -acknowledging what research has already been completed

Question 62

what are strengths of literature reviews

Answer 62

they help introduce exisiting understanding and context for primary research -they can identify expert researchers in the field

Question 63

what are limitations of a literature review

Answer 63

-only secondary data is acquired -may describe multiple studies but lack a deeper analysis of the individual studies

Question 64

investigation method: modeling and stimulation

Answer 64

involves constructing and/or manipulation a physical or conceptual model of a system once a model is made, a simulation uses the models to replicate and study behaviour of a real or theoretical system

Question 65

what are two strengths of modelling and simulation

Answer 65

-modelling can allow for unobservable events to be visualised -modelling and simulations can test a product before it's created

Question 66

what are limitations of modelling and simulation

Answer 66

-complex models and simulations may be expensive -large amount of valid source of data may be needed in the creation of the models

Question 67

investigation method: product, process and system development

Answer 67

involves the design of a product a process or system to meet human needs. these may involves technological application in addition to scientific knowledge

Question 68

what is an example of process, product and system development

Answer 68

AI-powered chatbots can provide virtual support for our mental wellbeing

Question 69

ethical concepts in psychological issue

Answer 69

general ethical considerations used to analyse the ethical and moral aspects of conduct surrounding psychological issues and psychological investigations

Question 70

what are five ethical considerations

Answer 70

integrity justice non-maleficence beneficence respect

Question 71

ethical concept: integrity

Answer 71

involves the commitment to searching for knowledge and understanding and the honest reporting of all sources of information and results

Question 72

detail in integrity

Answer 72

whether the results are favourable or unfavourable to the initial intentions of a study, a researcher has an obligation to report them truthfully in a way that permits scrutiny and contributes to public knowledge and understanding

Question 73

ethical concept: justice

Answer 73

involves the moral obligation to ensure that competing claims are considered fairly that they is no unfair burden on a particular groups from an action and that their is fair distribution and access to the benefits of the action

Question 74

justice detail

Answer 74

however treating all people equally is not always fair and therefore justice means ensuring peoples differences are also accounted for

Question 75

ethical concept: BENEFICENCE and non maleficence

Answer 75

beneficence: is the commitment to maximising benefits and minimising the risks and harm something of positive value such as contributing to psychological knowledge

Question 76

ethical concept: beneficence and NON MALEFICENCE

Answer 76

means to avoid causing harm. -determining a position or conducting scientific research in psychology may lead to a degree in harm resulting from any positions to be scientifically justifiable

Question 77

how does beneficence and non malificence relate

Answer 77

the two ethical concepts can be considered together, in an understanding that one must act in a manner that promotes benefit to other, while also minimising harm to others

Question 77

ethical concepts: respect

Answer 77

involves considering the value of living things: giving due regard and considering the capacity of living things to make their own decisions

Question 78

ethical guidelines

Answer 78

must follow guidelines set out by the NHMRC to ensure protection and welfare of all participants in research

Question 79

ethical guidelines detail

Answer 79

once in investigation, the researcher must follow several additional ethical guidelines that are specifically relevant to research

Question 80

ethical guidelines: confidentiality

Answer 80

involves ensuring that the participants remain anonymous and their personal information is kept private, protected and secure throughout the study

Question 81

ethical guideline:voluntary participation

Answer 81

ensures that each participant freely agrees to participate in a study, with no pressure or coercion it is normal for participants to accept money or compensation

Question 82

ethical guidelines: informed consent

Answer 82

are conducted before a study begins, where participants agree to participate in the research after they have received all the details of the investigation, including nature and purpose, methods of data and potential risks

Question 83

ethical guidelines: debriefing

Answer 83

is condcted at the end of the study and is when particpants are informed of the true aim, results and conclusions of the study

Question 84

what does debriefing include

Answer 84

answering any questions clarifying misunderstandings or deception providing support to ensure no lasting harm occurs to partcipants

Question 85

ethical guidelines: use of deception in research

Answer 85

involves withholding the true of nature of the study from participants if their knowledge of the true purpose may affect their behaviour and the subsequent validity

Question 86

primary data

Answer 86

is the collected through the first hand experience for an internal purpose: for example a researcher using a questionnaire to conduct their own study

Question 87

secondary data

Answer 87

is obtained through second hand research conducted or data collected by another person for another purpose -may be used when not possible to use primary bc of costs and time

Question 88

what are the two types of data

Answer 88

qualitative and quantitive

Question 89

qualitive data

Answer 89

describes characteristics and qualities can be in a form of words, photos, videos and audios

Question 90

quantitive data

Answer 90

involves measurable values and quantities and can be compared on a numerical scale. can be in a form of measurements such as length weight or time

Question 91

how can you process quantitive data

Answer 91

percentage measuring of central tendency measures of variability

Question 92

percentage change

Answer 92

a calculation of the degree of change in a values over time

Question 93

measures of central tendency

Answer 93

category of statistics that describe the central value of a set of data

Question 94

central of tendency: mean

Answer 94

the average value of a set of data. It represents a typical, central value and gives an overall idea of a data set

Question 95

central of tendency: median

Answer 95

is the middle value in an ordered set of data. Is the values that splits the set of data in half

Question 96

central of tendency: mode

Answer 96

is the value that occurs most frequently within a set of data

Question 97

measures of variability

Answer 97

category of statistics that describe the distribution of data

Question 98

the standard deviation

Answer 98

shows the spread of the data around the mean

Question 99

organising and presenting data

Answer 99

charts and graphs tables

Question 100

analysing the quality of the data

Answer 100

true value accuracy precision repeatability reproducibility validity

Question 101

true value

Answer 101

is the value or range of values that would be found if the quantity could be measured perfectly -obtaining a true value would require no error to occur when using instruments to take measurements

Question 102

accuracy

Answer 102

relates to how close a measurement is to the true value of the quantity being measured

Question 103

precision

Answer 103

refers to how close a set of measurement values are to each other describes how a exact measurement is and how much a value is consistent within a set of values

Question 104

repeatability

Answer 104

how close a successive measurement of the same quantity are when carried out under the same conditions helps verify researcher findings

Question 105

reproducibility

Answer 105

is how close a measurement of the same quantity are when carried out under different conditions

Question 106

validity

Answer 106

refers to whether a measurement measures what is it and supposed to be measuring

Question 107

what are the two types of validity

Answer 107

internal and external

Question 108

internal validity

Answer 108

refers to a study investigation what it sets out or clean to investigate

Question 109

external validity

Answer 109

refers to whether the results of the research can be applied to similar individuals in a different setting

Question 110

how many errors are there

Answer 110

personal errors measurement errors systematic erros random errors uncertainty outliers

Question 111

personal errors

Answer 111

include mistakes, miscalculations and observer errors made when conduction research

Question 112

measurement errors

Answer 112

is the difference between the measured value and the true value of what is being measured

Question 113

systematic errors

Answer 113

affect the accuracy of a measurement by causing readings to differ from the true value by a consistent amount

Question 114

random errors

Answer 114

affect the precision of a measurement by creating unpredictable variations in the measurement process

Question 115

opinion

Answer 115

a judgement that is not necessarily based on proof

Question 116

antecdote

Answer 116

a short personal account for an event

Question 117

analysing and evaluating scientific ideas

Answer 117

distinguish between evidence, opinions and anecdote evaluate the process used

Question 118

what do add in a conclusion

Answer 118

limitations of conclusion and implications

Question 119

limitations of conclusions

Answer 119

the faults or flaws in the degins of an investigation that may limit the conclusions of the investigations

Question 120

implications

Answer 120

the impact a study might have on the population relevant theory and future research

Question 121

scientific report

Answer 121

a report outlining why and how some research was conducted with an analysis of the findings

Question 122

abstract

Answer 122

a section of scientific report that is a concise summary of the whole investigation

Question 123

introduction section

Answer 123

a section of a scientific report or poster that provides an overview of what the investigation is trying to achieve and why it is important

Question 124

mothodology section

Answer 124

section of the scientific report that describes participants, material and procedures used in the study

Question 125

results section

Answer 125

a section that outlines the evidence and findings and concludes the research

Question 126

discussion section

Answer 126

section of poster or report that analysis the findings and concludes the research

Question 127

central nervous system

Answer 127

the brain and spinal cord; processes and coordinates responses to sensory stimuli

Question 128

CNS detail

Answer 128

integrates and coordinated all incoming sensory information and initiates outgoing motor messages to be sent to the body these can be un/conscious voluntary and unvolvuntary

Question 129

what are the three main functions of our nervous system

Answer 129

receive information process information coordination a response to information

Question 130

brain

Answer 130

processes info received through neural pathways from the body, receives and analysis sensory information, controls all bodily action and functions

Question 131

how does the brain communicate with the body

Answer 131

via the spinal cord and its nerves as well as cranial nerves that connect the brain directly to various organs and muscles of the body

Question 132

nervous sytem processes

Answer 132

brain is kept informed of the ever changing external and internal environments of the body through sensory information received by receptor cells around the body

Question 133

the spinal cord

Answer 133

def- think bundle of nerve tissue that runs from the brainstem to the lower middle section of the spine

Question 134

spinal cord detail

Answer 134

allows the brain to communicate with the rest of the body conveying messages from the brain to the PNS and vice versa

Question 135

what is the 1st major function of the spinal cord

Answer 135

receive sensory information from the body via the PNS and send to the brain for processing

Question 136

what is the 2nd major function of the spinal cord

Answer 136

receive motor information from the brain and send it to the body via the PNS to control muscle, glands and organs

Question 137

what occurs to the spinal cord if it gets damaged

Answer 137

if severed, the somatic nervous system below the point of severance becomes paralysed because of the bridge between the CNS and the PNS can not be crossed

Question 138

damage to the spinal cord detail

Answer 138

such damage has permeant consequences because the nerves in the spinal cord can not regnerate

Question 139

the peripheral nervous system

Answer 139

all the nerves outside of the central nervous system that carry messages between the central nervous system ad muscles, organs and glands throughout the body

Question 140

the 1st function of the PNS

Answer 140

carries info to the CNS from the bodies muscle, organs and glands (about the internal environment) and from the sensory organs (external environment)

Question 141

the 2nd function of the PNS

Answer 141

carries info from the CNS to the bodies muscle, organs and glands

Question 142

what are the two nervous systems relating to the PNS

Answer 142

autonomic and somatic

Question 143

PNS-the somatic nervous sytem

Answer 143

subdivision of the PNS that carries sensory info to the central nervous system and motor information to the body

Question 144

somatic nervous system sensory function

Answer 144

transmission of information to the brain (CNS) from sensory receptors throughout the body

Question 145

somatic nervous system motor function

Answer 145

voluntary movement of muscles (skeletal)

Question 146

PNS- the autonomic system

Answer 146

sub division of the PNS that connects the CNS to the bodies internal organs and glands, providing feedback to the brain about their activities

Question 147

what are the three sub divisions of the autonomic system

Answer 147

parasympathetic nervous system sympathetic nervous system enteric nervous system

Question 148

sympathetic nervous system

Answer 148

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that increases our arousal, readying the body for a quick response and to deal with vigorous activity

Question 149

sympathetic nervous system detail

Answer 149

activated by stressor or fear stimulus -enhances survival by producing an immediate response-flight or fight

Question 150

parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 150

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that controls the bodies internal environments in an autonomous or self regulated manner

Question 151

what is the one main function of the parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 151

maintaining a balanced internal state, otherwise known as homeostasis, including regulation of blood sugar or energy levels

Question 152

what is the second main function of the Parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 152

counterbalancing the energising function of the sympathetic nervous system by lowering arousal and restoring the body to a calm state after a threat has passes

Question 153

enteric nervous system

Answer 153

is embedded within the walls of the gastrointestinal tract and is dedicated to its functioning

Question 154

enteric system in detail

Answer 154

the ENS has extensive, two way connections with the CNS and works together with the CNS to control the digestive system in the context of local and whole body physiological demands

Question 155

unconscious responses

Answer 155

any response of our nervous system that does not require awareness

Question 156

unconscious response in detail

Answer 156

it is involuntary, unintentional and automatic ordinarily control its occurence

Question 157

what are three examples of unconscious responses

Answer 157

blinking heart rate digesting our food

Question 158

conscious responses

Answer 158

any response of the nervous system that requires awareness

Question 159

conscious response in detail

Answer 159

the reaction, even if momentary is also likely to be goal directed and you will be able to exercise some degree of control over it

Question 160

a spinal reflex

Answer 160

is an unconscious involuntary and automatically occurring response to certain stimuli without any involvement of the brain

Question 161

spinal reflex 1st step

Answer 161

1. sensory stimulus detected by sensory receptors

Question 162

spinal reflex 2nd step

Answer 162

sensory neuron's carry information via sensory afferent pathway to spinal cord

Question 163

spinal reflex 3rd step

Answer 163

interneurons in spinal cord initiate an involuntary motor movement

Question 164

spinal reflex 4th step

Answer 164

this is relayed to motor neurons and carried via a motor efferent pathway to muscles

Question 165

spinal reflex 5th step

Answer 165

muscles perform response without input from the brain

Question 166

neurotransmitter

Answer 166

is a chemical substance produced by a neuron that carries a message to other neurons or cells in the muscle, organs and other tissue

Question 167

neurotransmitter detail

Answer 167

when neurons communicate with one another, they do so by sending neurotransmitters across the space between the terminal buttons of one neuron, and the dendrites on the other

Question 168

neural transmission

Answer 168

an individual nerve cell that is specialised to receive, process and/or transmit information within the nervous system

Question 169

synapse

Answer 169

the point of communication between two neurons and a target cell, such as a muscle or a gland called a synapse

Question 170

synaptic vesicle

Answer 170

a membrane bound to sphere filled with neurotransmitter molecules

Question 171

synaptic gap

Answer 171

the space between the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron and the membrane of the post synaptic neuron

Question 172

receptor site

Answer 172

a membrane protein on the dendrites of neurons that receive and detect specific neurotransmitters

Question 173

what are the 2 effect of neurotransmitters

Answer 173

excitatory inhibitory

Question 174

excitatory effect

Answer 174

the increased likelihood that post synaptic neuron will fire an action potential or neural impulse

Question 175

what is the main excitatory neurotransmitter

Answer 175

glutamate

Question 176

glutamate

Answer 176

the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous sytsem, which is involved with learning and memory

Question 177

what does glutamate play an important role in

Answer 177

in learning and the formation of memories in the brain, by stimulating essential structural and functional changes to connections in neurons

Question 178

what does glutamate do

Answer 178

enhances information transmission by making postsynaptic neurons more likely to fire

Question 179

inhibitory effect

Answer 179

the decreased likelihood that the post synaptic neuron will fire an action potential or neural impulse

Question 180

what is the main inhibitory neurontransmitter

Answer 180

Gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Question 181

GABA

Answer 181

the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system associated with anxiety, specific phobias and parkinsons disease

Question 182

what occurs when their is in insufficent amount of GABA

Answer 182

activation of post synaptic neurons may get out of control because the excitatory effects of glutamate take over, leading to mental disorders such as anxiety

Question 183

why does neurotransmitters need to be balanced

Answer 183

too much or too little can be harmful to the functioning of neurons

Question 184

what is a neuromodulater

Answer 184

a subclass of neurotransmitters that alter the strength of neural transmission, by increasing or decreasing the responsiveness of neurons to neurotransmitter signals

Question 185

agonists

Answer 185

mimic the effect of a neurotransmitter e.g a GABA agonist may make it more likely that GAA inhibits neurotransmission

Question 186

antagonist

Answer 186

slow down the effects of neurotransmitter e.g a GABA antagonist will reduce its inhibitory effect

Question 187

what is neuromodulaters role

Answer 187

to alter the neural transmission of neurons by controlling the synthesis and release of the neurotransmitters

Question 188

what do neuromodulaters not do

Answer 188

they do not release their chemical messengers into a signal synapses. Instead they are released into far broader areas affecting a large number of neurons at once

Question 189

where is the site of release for neurotransmitters

Answer 189

into the synapse

Question 190

where is the site of release for neuromodulaters

Answer 190

outside the synapse into the neural tissue in the brain regions

Question 191

dopamine

Answer 191

a multifunctional neurotransmitter with both excitatory and inhibitory effect, that is involved in many central nervous system such as movement, pleasure, attention, mood, cognition and motivation

Question 192

why is dopamine considered a neuromodulaters

Answer 192

because it reinforces the neural activity in regions of the brain associated with these functions, for example the reward pathway

Question 193

reward pathway

Answer 193

a group structure in the brain that are activated by rewarding or reinforcing stimuli

Question 194

how is dopamine and the reward pathway linked

Answer 194

when we are exposed to rewarding stimuli, the brain increases the release of dopamine, which modulates the brain activity of the structure along with it

Question 195

what does the reward pathway control

Answer 195

our responses to natural rewards such as food, sex and social interactions

Question 196

what is the influence of dopamine in thirst and drinking

Answer 196

the gulping motion made by throat as liquid is swallowed sends a message to the brain that water has been consumed -dopamine release is couple with gulping motion which suggests drinking a learnt behaviour

Question 197

the influence of dopamine in hunger and eating part 1

Answer 197

the consumption of food release dopamine and gives us feelings of pleasure, therefore increasing our chance of eating food next time we experience hunger

Question 198

the influence of dopamine in hunger and eating part 2

Answer 198

the brain receives signals from several hormones that indicate when food is needed or not these signals modify dopamine output from the brains reward pathway, controlling motivation for food

Question 199

the influence of dopamine in addiction

Answer 199

whenever seeing a reward worth chasing, our brain produces more dopamine, motivating us to complete the task

Question 200

influence of dopamine in addiction part 2

Answer 200

the dopamine theory suggest that most addictions are caused by the brains inability to produce dopamine naturally without behaviour or the substance that someone is addicted to

Question 201

seratonin

Answer 201

an inhibitory neurotransmitter that also acts as a neuromodulaters influencing a variety of the brain activities

Question 202

why is serotonin a modulated

Answer 202

it modulates virtually all human behavioural processes, including mood, perception, reward and anger

Question 203

the serotonin pathway

Answer 203

serotonins neuromodulatory system, which originated in the brainstem and extends to almost all areas of the cerebellum including the cerebral cortex

Question 204

what happens if their is damage to the serotonin pathway

Answer 204

impairments to the serotonin pathway system have been linked to anxiety disorders and depression, as well as Parkinson disease

Question 205

what is the role of serotonin in mood

Answer 205

when serotonin levels are high, mood improves, leads to more calm state -however their is a lot of other chemical processes happening in the body, so it's difficult to establish a cause and effect relationship

Question 206

the role of serotonin in sleep

Answer 206

research generally shows that is the brain lacks serotonin, a person will have reduced pressure to sleep when required, thus increasing restlessness and wakefulness when they should be sleeping

Question 207

role of serotonin in aggression and impulsivity

Answer 207

low levels of serotonin in the can brain can affect communication between specific structures within the limbic system responsible for regulating emotions

Question 208

synaptic plasticity

Answer 208

specific changes that occur within the synapses between neurons

Question 209

what are the two important processes of neural plasticity

Answer 209

long term potentiation long term depression

Question 210

what happens when we learn something new relating to synaptic plasticity

Answer 210

when we learn smth new and store a memory of it relatively permanent and stable connection between neurons is formed

Question 211

what occurs when neurotransmitters are repeatedly activated together

Answer 211

changes the structure of the synapses, strengthening the connection between these two neuron synapses -when connection is strengthened, more likely to fire together and signals become more efficient

Question 212

long term potentiation

Answer 212

the relatively permanent strengthening or the synaptic connections as a result of repeated activation of neural pathway

Question 213

what is the effect of LTP

Answer 213

to improve ability of two neurons to communicate with eachother

Question 214

long term depression

Answer 214

the relatively permanent weakening of synaptic connection as a result of repeated low level activation

Question 215

what does LTD result from

Answer 215

lack of stimulation of pre and post synaptic neurons or prolonged low level stimulation

Question 216

what are the three specific modifications resulting from LTP and LTD

Answer 216

sprouting rerouting pruning

Question 217

sprouting

Answer 217

the growth of axon or dendrite fibres at the synapses

Question 218

sprouting explanation

Answer 218

the creation of new extensions on a neuron to allow it to make new connection with other neurons, This occurs through the growth of axon or dendrite fibres

Question 219

rerouting

Answer 219

the formation of new connections between neurons to establish alternative neural pathways

Question 220

rerouting explanation

Answer 220

new connections are being made between neurons to create alternate neural pathways. These alternate route may be entirely new neural pathways or connections to other pathways in the brain

Question 221

pruning

Answer 221

the removal of excess neurons and synaptic connections to increase the efficiency of neuronal transmissions

Question 222

pruning explanation

Answer 222

experience determine which synapses will be retained and strengthened and which will be pruned

Question 223

dendritic spine

Answer 223

a dendrite fibre that grows by sprouting on the post synaptic neuron

Question 224

filigree appendage

Answer 224

a fibre that grows by sprouting from the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron

Question 225

synaptogensis

Answer 225

the formation of new synapses that result from the process of sprouting

Question 226

stressor

Answer 226

any event that causes stress or is perceived as a threat and a challenge to our ability to cope

Question 227

stress

Answer 227

a state of mental, emotional and physiological tension, resulting from a stressor

Question 228

what are the two processes of stress

Answer 228

psychological and biological

Question 229

psychological process of stress

Answer 229

includes feelings such as fear, excitement and thoughts such as i can't cope

Question 230

biological processes of stress

Answer 230

including physical responses such as increased hr and increased muscle tension

Question 231

what are the two sources of stress

Answer 231

internal and external

Question 232

what are two example internal sources of stress

Answer 232

psychological and biological

Question 233

what are two examples of external sources of stress

Answer 233

environmental and sociocultural

Question 234

what are example of environment sources of stress

Answer 234

loud noises extreme temperatures

Question 235

what are examples of sociocultural sources of stress

Answer 235

daily habits life events loss of significant relationships

Question 236

internal stressor

Answer 236

a cause of stress that originates within an individual can be both psychological and biological and psychological

Question 237

external stressors

Answer 237

a cause of stress that originates from outside an individual, such as an event or environmental extreme

Question 238

what can stress be categorised as

Answer 238

acute stress chronic stress

Question 239

acute stress

Answer 239

stress that usually occurs because of a sudden threat and only lasts a short time

Question 240

how can acute stress be beneficial

Answer 240

it can help us deal more effectively with a challenge -it can also be intense and involve life threatening situations such as being a victim to assault

Question 241

chronic stress

Answer 241

involves a prolonged and constant feeling of stress

Question 242

what are features of chronic stress

Answer 242

less intense and severe generally more detrimental to out health this can suppress our immune system and increase risk of heart attack

Question 243

flight or fight or freeze response (acute stress)

Answer 243

an automatic biological response to a perceived stressor that increases out chance of survival in out environment

Question 244

what is the flight fight freeze response considered

Answer 244

considered adaptative, in that it minimises possible harm and enables us to deal with the stressor most effectively

Question 245

a flight response

Answer 245

which involves evading or escaping the stressor

Question 246

a fight response

Answer 246

which involves dealing with the stressor directly

Question 247

a freeze response

Answer 247

which involves immobilisation of the body such as minimises movement or vocal sounds

Question 248

what occurs in the flight fight response

Answer 248

the subdivision of the autonomic nervous system works to regulate arousal and internal bodily functions arousal is increased bc the threat was identified by the nervous system

Question 249

1st psychological change of fight and flight response

Answer 249

increased hr, breathing rate and blood pressure

Question 250

adaptive benefit of psychological change 1 (fight or flight)

Answer 250

to quickly transport oxygenated blood to the muscle in our extremities to prepare them for action

Question 251

2nd psychological change of fight and flight response (fight or flight)

Answer 251

dilated pupils

Question 252

adaptive benefit of psychological change 2 (fight or flight)

Answer 252

to increase the amount of light entering the eyes to potentially see more clearly

Question 253

3rd psychological change of fight and flight response

Answer 253

slowed digestion rate and decreased salivation

Question 254

adaptive benefit of psychological change 3 (fight or flight)

Answer 254

to divert energy to where it is needed most, such as the muscles in our extremities

Question 255

the freeze response

Answer 255

this is adaptative -this can be referred as tonic immobility and includes motor and vocal inhibitions -nervous system is preparing to switch into flight or fight not considered passive state but rather the parasympathetic brake on certain body systems

Question 256

cortisol

Answer 256

a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that regulates a wide range of bodily processes, including metabolism and is releases in response due to stress

Question 257

chronic stress-cortisol

Answer 257

when stressor persists and the body continues to perceive it as a threat, cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex, the outer layer of the adrenal glands

Question 258

what does cortisol do

Answer 258

cortisol regulate a wide range of processes throughout the body, including metabolism and the immune response

Question 259

where is cortisol released

Answer 259

it is released directly into the bloodstream and transported throughout the body

Question 260

what are three benefit of cortisol

Answer 260

heightened alertness increased ability to repair tissue -increased energy

Question 261

what happens if cortisol is in our bloodstream for a prolonged period of time

Answer 261

cortisol suppresses our immune system, making us more susceptible to cold and contagious illnesses this increases the risk of cancer and autoimmune diseases

Question 262

the gut brain axis

Answer 262

the connection between the central nervous system and the enteric nervous system, that enables bidirectional communication between the brain and the gastrointestinal tract

Question 263

what does the the ENS do regarding the gut brain axis

Answer 263

coordinates rhythms muscle contractions that move material along the digestive tract; also regulates gastric acid secretion

Question 264

where does the bidirectional communication between the CNS and the ENS

Answer 264

via the vagus nerve and gut microbiota

Question 265

vagus nerve

Answer 265

a nerve threat connects the brain ( CNS) to organs with the autonomic nervous system via nerve fibres that directly link organs such as the lungs, heart, oesophagus and intestinal tract

Question 265

gut

Answer 265

the gastrointestinal tract or long tube that starts at the mouth and ends at the anus

Question 265

what is the vagus nerve function

Answer 265

controls many bodily functions such as mood, immune response, digestion and hr -establishes one of the connections between the brain and the gastrointestinal tract

Question 266

microbe

Answer 266

a microscopic living thing found in water soil and the air

Question 266

guy microbiota

Answer 266

the microbe population found in the guy (digestive system)

Question 267

what does the guy microbiota do

Answer 267

these microbes digest the components of our food to provide their own nutrition while also simultaneously providing us with energy and nutrients

Question 268

what is guy microbiota involved in

Answer 268

also involves in the production of some neurotransmitters in the production of the neurotransmitters in the brain. certain microbiota in the gut are involved in regulating the production, storage and release of neurotransmitters

Question 269

what does stress cause in the gut microbioata

Answer 269

cause change in the gut microbiota and deficiencies in certain bacteria, which have been linked to anxiety and depression

Question 270

what disorder can stress in the gut microbiota cause

Answer 270

has been linked with anxiety disorders

Question 271

what can stress exposure do in early life

Answer 271

this can change an organism microbiota composition

Question 272

how can you reduce anxiety like behaviour with gut microbiota

Answer 272

treatment with healthy microbiota can reduce anxiety like behaviour and reduce stress responsiveness in humans and mice

Question 273

what is the biological model of stress

Answer 273

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

Question 274

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

Answer 274

a biological model of stress that proposes we have non specific biological response to stress that occurs in three stages

Question 275

what is the first stage of GAS

Answer 275

alarm reaction

Question 276

shock

Answer 276

the first phase of alarm reaction stage of the GAS in which the bodies ability to deal with the stressor falls below normal

Question 276

alarm reaction

Answer 276

the first general adaptation syndrome, in which we become aware of the stressor; it consists of two phases- shock and counter shock

Question 277

what is associated with the shock phase

Answer 277

also associated with a decrease in muscle tone, body temp and blood sugar levels

Question 278

what is the second phase of alarm reaction

Answer 278

countershock

Question 279

counter shock

Answer 279

the second phase of the alarm reaction of the GAS model which the bodies ability to deal the stressor rises above normal

Question 280

what is counter shock helped with

Answer 280

helped with the release of stress hormones adrenaline and cortisol, as well as the activation of the flight or fight or freeze response sympathetic nervous system is activated

Question 281

what are the physiological changes associated the counter shock phase

Answer 281

increases muscle tension, heart rate and breathing rate

Question 282

how long does the alarm reaction stage last

Answer 282

does not usually last very long; sometimes just a few seconds, sometimes longer

Question 283

what is the second phase of GAS model

Answer 283

resistance

Question 284

is cortisol at its lowest or highest in the resistance stage

Answer 284

cortisol is at its highest, which helps repair any damage to the body and maximises the bodies resources to cope and adapt to the stressor over time

Question 285

stage 2: resistance

Answer 285

in which the stressors persists and the bodies resources are maximised to cope and adapt over time

Question 286

what occurs during the resistance stage

Answer 286

problems that occur and eventually the body begins to show physiological signs of wear and tear -all unnecessary physiological process are shut down

Question 287

the exhaustion

Answer 287

in which continued depletion of energy stores and high levels of hormones such as cortisol decrease resistance to the stressor and impair of the immune system

Question 288

what happens in exhaustion stage

Answer 288

due to prolonged stress, the bodies resources have been depleted and it become vulnerable to diseases and mental disorders

Question 289

what are three characterisitcs of the exhaustion stage

Answer 289

extreme fatigue high levels of anxiety impaired sexual performance

Question 290

what is the first strength of the GAS model

Answer 290

the model suggests a predictable pattern of response that can easily be tested in a laboratory

Question 291

what is the second strength of the GAS model

Answer 291

it identifies various biological processes that occur as a part of the stress response , such as hormone secretion and immune system depletion

Question 292

what is the first limitation to the GAS model

Answer 292

humans and rates are physiologically different. Cannot be simply generalised to humans

Question 293

what is the second limitation to the GAS model

Answer 293

it does not acknowledge the physiological or cognitive processing involved in the human stress response which can affect how much an individual experiences the stress response

Question 294

Lazarous and folkmans transactional model of stress

Answer 294

a model that suggests a stress response is only elicited if an event is perceived to exceed our ability to cope or is based on our appraisal of the situation

Question 295

appraisal

Answer 295

the process of categorising an event on the basis of perceived significance and how it may affect their wellbeing

Question 296

what are the two forms of appraisal in the transactional model

Answer 296

primary and secondary appraisal

Question 297

primary appraisal

Answer 297

when an individual determines whether a situation or event is significant to them and stressful or not

Question 298

what happens if event is not deemed stressful after primary appraisal

Answer 298

categorised as either benign/positive, irrelevant

Question 299

irrelevant

Answer 299

describes a situations or event that has no implications for an individuals wellbeing because nothing will be gained or lost or they are not invest in the situation

Question 300

benign/positive

Answer 300

describes a situation or event that is perceived as having a positive outcome for an individual

Question 301

what happens if the event is deemed into irrelvant or benign/positive

Answer 301

they will not need to perforn any further appraisal -if event is deemed stressful it will be categorised as a threat or harm/loss or challenge

Question 302

threat

Answer 302

the anticipated harm/loss in the future because of an event

Question 303

harm/loss

Answer 303

the damage to that individual that has already occurred as a result of a stressor

Question 304

challenge

Answer 304

the perceived potential for personal gain or growth from any event

Question 305

what if the event is still seemed stressfull

Answer 305

something must be done to manage the situation and so secondary appraisal occurs

Question 306

secondary appraisal

Answer 306

when an individual considers the available resources and their own coping strategies to decide the best way of dealing with a stressor

Question 307

what is the first strength of the transactional model

Answer 307

the model acknowledges the physiological determinants or causes of stress response

Question 308

what is the second strength of the transactional model

Answer 308

it emphasis the personal nature and individuality of the stress response, accounting for why individual responses to an event vary widely

Question 309

what is the first limitation of the transactional model

Answer 309

it is difficult to test through experimental research because of the subjective nature of an individual responses to stress

Question 310

what is the second limitation of the transactional model

Answer 310

individuals may not always be consciously aware of all factors causing them stress or the thought process that take place internally when experiencing stress

Question 311

coping

Answer 311

all the things we do to manage and reduce the stress we experience

Question 312

coping strategy

Answer 312

a method that we use to manage and reduce the stress we experience

Question 313

what is a coping strategy influenced by

Answer 313

copiing flexability context specific effectiveness

Question 314

coping flexibility

Answer 314

the ability to modify our coping strategies to adapt and meet the demands of different stressful situations

Question 315

what does the coping flexibility dictate

Answer 315

when we physiologically and physically response to stressors, a richer coping flexibility tends to produce more adaptative outcomes

Question 316

what does coping flexibility include

Answer 316

recognise whether the use of coping strategy is appropriate for a specific situation -select a coping strategy that suits the circumstances of the situation

Question 317

what do people with high coping flexibility have

Answer 317

quickly recognise and adjust their coping strategies i they are ineffective match strategies to the demands of the situation

Question 318

what do individuals of low coping flexibility have

Answer 318

tend to rely on the sam limited coping strategies across different situations and persist with them

Question 319

context specific effectiveness

Answer 319

when a coping strategy matched or is appropriate to the stressful situation

Question 320

what does context specific effectiveness

Answer 320

considers whether a coping strategy is effective from aspects of the situation such as the physical environment, the stressor itself and the individual involved

Question 321

what is the approach strategy

Answer 321

an effort to confront a stressor and deal directly with it and its effects

Question 322

what are two examples of an approach strategy

Answer 322

seeking advice from an expert' talking through your problems with a friend or family member

Question 323

1st benefits of an approach strategy

Answer 323

generally considered to be more adaptative and effective then avoidance strategies

Question 324

2nd benefit of an approach strategy

Answer 324

people who rely more on approach strategies to cope with a stressor ten to experience fewer psychological symptoms and can function more effectively

Question 325

what is the 1st limitation of a approach strategy

Answer 325

initially or in the short term, approach strategies may increase stress levels while the individual is directly engaged with the stressor and its causes

Question 326

what is the 2nd limitation of an approach strategy

Answer 326

an approach strategy may require a lot of the individuals energy and focus to deal with the streesors, which means they might neglect other aspects of their lives

Question 327

avoidance strategies

Answer 327

an effort to avoid a stressor and not deal directly with it and its effects

Question 328

what are two examples of an avoidance strategy

Answer 328

procrastination napping or oversleeping substance use or abuse

Question 329

what is the first benefit of an avoidance strategy

Answer 329

selectively avoiding to deal with unchangeable aspects of a stressor by switching off may be considered an adaptative strategy

Question 330

what is the second benefit of a avoidance strategy

Answer 330

it allows you to conserve your energy to focus on other stressors that can be changed

Question 331

what is the first limitation of an avoidance strategy

Answer 331

avoidance strategies tend to be maladaptive

Question 332

what is the second limitation of an avoidance strategy

Answer 332

long term avoidance strategies can also contribute to other problems

Question 333

is exercise a avoidance or approach strategy

Answer 333

exercise is usually an avoidance strategy because it does not directly deal with the stressor a person is facing. however this is not the case if the stressor is exercise

Question 334

what is one benefit of exercise

Answer 334

it increases demands on the body for energy and in the process uses up stress hormones

Question 335

what is a second benefit of exercise

Answer 335

it can also help work out tension that has built up in the muscles

Question 336

learning

Answer 336

the process of acquiring knowledge or skills resulting from experience; there are many approaches

Question 337

behaviourist approach

Answer 337

an approach to learning that states that behaviours are learned through interactions with the environment

Question 338

conditioning

Answer 338

the learning process by which the behaviour of an organism becomes dependant on an event occurring in its environment

Question 339

stimulus

Answer 339

an environmental event that triggers a response in an organism

Question 340

response

Answer 340

a behavioural reaction to a stimulus

Question 341

before conditioning

Answer 341

the first stage of classical conditioning at this stage no learning has occured

Question 342

unconditioned stimulus

Answer 342

a stimulus that consistently produces a naturally occurring automatic response

Question 343

unconditioned response

Answer 343

a response that occurs automatically involuntarily when the unconditioned stimulus is presented

Question 344

neutral stimulus

Answer 344

a stimulus prior to conditioning that doesn't produce a response

Question 345

conditioned stimulus

Answer 345

a stimulus that was previously nei=utral but now as as a result of repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus, produces a conditioned response

Question 346

conditioned response

Answer 346

a learned behaviour that is similar to the unconditioned response and is now triggered by the conditioned stimulus as a result of conditioning

Question 347

classical conditioning answer template

Answer 347

before conditioning, the neutral stimulus (NS) of the.... elicit no response in.... The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) of the.... elicited the unconditioned response (UCR) of... in.... which elicited the UCR of.... in... After conditioning, the NS of... turned into the conditioned stimulus... The CS.... now elicits the conditioned response of... in...

Question 348

operant conditioning

Answer 348

a learning process in which the likelihood of a voluntary behaviour occurring is determined by it's consequences

Question 349

what does the three phase model of operant conditioning include

Answer 349

antedecent behaviour consequence

Question 350

antedecent

Answer 350

an environmental stimulus that triggers an action

Question 351

behaviour

Answer 351

any observable action by an organism

Question 352

consequence

Answer 352

something that makes a behaviour more or less likely to occur again

Question 353

consequences in operant conditioning

Answer 353

reinforcement positive reinforcement negative reinforcement punishment positive punishment negative punishment

Question 354

reinforcement

Answer 354

stimulus from the environment that increases the likelihood of a response occurring in the future

Question 355

positive reinforcement

Answer 355

when a behaviour is followed by adding a desirable stimulus, increasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

Question 356

negative reinforcement

Answer 356

when a behaviour is followed by the removal of an undesriable stimulus, increasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

Question 357

punishment

Answer 357

a stimulus from the environment that decreases the likelihood of a behaviour occurring again

Question 358

positive punishment

Answer 358

when a behaviour is followed by adding an undesirable stimulus decreasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

Question 359

negative punishment

Answer 359

when a behaviour is followed by the removal or desirable stimulus decreasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

Question 360

what is observational learning

Answer 360

a type of learning that occurs when a learner observes a models actions and their consequences to guide their future actions is a social cognitive approach

Question 361

social cognitive approach

Answer 361

when an individual process, remembers and leans information in social contexts to explain and predict their behaviour and that of others

Question 362

what are the five stages of observational learning

Answer 362

attention retention reproduction motivation reinforcement

Question 363

attention

Answer 363

the first step of observational learning when the learner actively watched the models behaviour and the consequences

Question 364

retention

Answer 364

second stage when the learner stores a mental representation of the models behaviour

Question 365

reproduction

Answer 365

the third stage of observational learning when the learners physical and mental capabilities enable them to perform the models behaviour

Question 366

motivation

Answer 366

in observational learning, the learners desire to perform the models behaviour

Question 367

reinforcement

Answer 367

receiving a reward or desirable factor that increases the likelihood that the learner will reproduce the behaviour in the future

Question 368

what does each indigenous community have

Answer 368

has their own personalised system of thinking doing and knowing based on years of sharing, community and life with the environment around them

Question 369

global communities of indigenous communties

Answer 369

include indigenous people of each country

Question 370

national communities of indigenous communities

Answer 370

include the first people of specific countries

Question 371

non indigenous cultures

Answer 371

non indigenous school teach students how to learn in a way that is mostly from how to live day to day

Question 372

indigenous communities

Answer 372

australia culture combines both aspects in its teaching for knowing

Question 373

how do indigenous people share knowledge

Answer 373

their is potential for much knowledge transfer from indigenous communities to western communities

Question 374

connection to country

Answer 374

indigenous ways of knowing are rooted in a deep respect for the ecology and an understanding of the importance of the connected relationship with the land

Question 375

what is the 8 ways of knowing

Answer 375

story sharing learning maps non-verbal symbols and images non-linear deconstruct/reconstruct community links

Question 376

story sharing

Answer 376

approaching learning through narrative Connect through stories they share

Question 377

learning maps

Answer 377

explicitly mapping/visualising processes. We picture our pathways of knowledge

Question 378

non verbal

Answer 378

applying intra-personal and kinaesthetic skills to thinking and learning. We see, think, act make and share without words

Question 379

symbols and images

Answer 379

using images and metaphors to understand concepts and content. We keep and share knowledge with art and objects

Question 380

land links

Answer 380

place based learning, linking and content to local land. We work with lessons from land and nature

Question 381

non linear

Answer 381

producing innovations and understanding by thinking laterally or combining systems. We. put different ideas together and create new knowledge

Question 382

deconstruct/reconstruct

Answer 382

modelling and scaffolding, working from wholes to parts (watch then do). We work from the wholes to parts, watching and then doing

Question 383

community links

Answer 383

entering local viewpoints, applying learning for community benefit. We bring new knowledge home to help our mob

Question 384

memory

Answer 384

an information processing system that actively receives, organises, stores and recovers information

Question 385

encoding

Answer 385

converting sensory information into a usable from that can be processed by the brain -you must pay attention

Question 386

storage

Answer 386

retaining information over time

Question 387

retrieval

Answer 387

accessing information that has previously been stored

Question 388

the attinkson shriffin multi store model of memory

Answer 388

represents memory as consisting of three seperate stores cal sensory memory, short term memory

Question 389

what does each store do

Answer 389

process information in different ways and also differs in term of function capacity duration

Question 390

role

Answer 390

the function of a memory store

Question 391

capacity

Answer 391

the amount of information held within a memory store

Question 392

duration

Answer 392

the length of time information is held within a memory store

Question 393

sensory memory

Answer 393

a memory store that receives and stores unlimited amount of incoming sensory information for a brief time

Question 394

what information enter sensory information

Answer 394

- the information is in it's raw form -you must pay attention to important sensory information for it to be further processed and transferred into the next memory store

Question 395

what is the function of sensory memory

Answer 395

the entry point of sensory information from the environment enabled perceptual continuity for the world around us

Question 396

what is the duration of sensory memory

Answer 396

momentary 0.2-4 seconds info only stays in the sensory memory long enough for us to select what to transfer to STM

Question 397

capacity of sensory memory

Answer 397

vast, potentially unlimited

Question 398

what happens if sensory memory is attended to

Answer 398

is sensory info is attended too-then it is transferred into the short term memory

Question 399

what happens is sensory info is not attended to

Answer 399

is the sensory info is not attended it is lost forever

Question 400

what are the two memories involved with sensory memory

Answer 400

iconic and echoic

Question 401

iconic memory

Answer 401

is used to describe visual sensory memory

Question 402

what is the duration of iconic memory

Answer 402

0.3-0.5 seconds -however they last just long enough to recognise and process the sensory information

Question 403

echoic memory

Answer 403

is used to describe auditory sensory memory

Question 404

what does echoic memory do

Answer 404

registers and retains all kinds of sounds, such as speech, the barking of a dog -the availability of auditory info for 3 or 4 seconds

Question 405

short term memory

Answer 405

a memory store that has limited capacity of short duration, unless the information is renewed

Question 406

what happens in short term memory

Answer 406

information is conscious and is actively manipulated so that we can retain the information for long enough to use it

Question 407

what could occur to information in short term memory

Answer 407

Since short term memory has limited duration and capacity, info can easily be lost unless it is renewed or manipulated in some way

Question 408

short term memory duration

Answer 408

18-30 seconds after 12 sec recall starts to decline and by 18 seconds almost all the information disappears entirely if it has not been renewed in some way

Question 409

short term memory- maintenance rehearsal

Answer 409

a conscious effort to continually rehearse the info

Question 410

short term memory- elaborative rehearsal

Answer 410

giving meaning to new information and making association with other information stored in the LTM-more effective type of rehearsal

Question 411

short term memory capacity

Answer 411

STM has very limited capacity 7+2 unrelated items can be held by an adult

Question 412

STM- decay

Answer 412

the fading away of information in STM when no maintained through rehearsal

Question 413

STM- displacement

Answer 413

adding new single items to short term memory by pushing out old items

Question 414

how can capacity be extended in STM

Answer 414

chunking: grouping seperate items together to form a larger single of information

Question 415

STM- working memory

Answer 415

as our working memory, ATM enables us to actively work on and manipulate information while we undertake our everyday tasks

Question 416

long term memory

Answer 416

a memory that is relatively permanent and holds huge amounts of information for a long time possibly lifelong

Question 417

function of LTM

Answer 417

responsible for the storage of information for an extended period of time

Question 418

duration of LTM

Answer 418

indefinite, possibly permanent

Question 419

capacity of LTM

Answer 419

unlimited

Question 420

what are memories relating to LTM

Answer 420

explicit and implicit

Question 421

explicit memory

Answer 421

information that can be consciously retrieved and stated such as known facts -we are AWARE of these memories

Question 422

what are the two sub types of explicit memory

Answer 422

semantic episodic

Question 422

what happens when explicit memory is used

Answer 422

their is deliberate and conscious attempt to retrieve previously stored information

Question 422

semantic memory

Answer 422

the declaratives memory of facts and knowledge about the world

Question 422

what can episodic memories include

Answer 422

details of the time, place and our psychological and physiological state when the event occured

Question 422

episodic memory

Answer 422

the declrative memory of personally experienced events

Question 422

implicit memory

Answer 422

memory not requiring conscious retrieval such how to skills

Question 423

how can procedural memories be demonstrated

Answer 423

through behaviour and include skill, motor, body or muscle memories

Question 423

what are the two sub types of implicit memory

Answer 423

procedural memory classical conditioned memory

Question 423

what does procedural memory involves

Answer 423

involves memories on how to do something following the procedure

Question 423

procedural memory

Answer 423

is the memory of motor skills and actions that have been learned previously

Question 424

cerebral cortex

Answer 424

a thin, outer layer of the brain: involved in complex, mental abilities, sensory processing, voluntary movements and the strorage of explicit memories

Question 425

hippocampus

Answer 425

a structure in the temporal midbrain: involves in formation of long term explicit memories and their transfer to the cerebral cortex for storage

Question 426

what is the first important role of the hippocampus

Answer 426

is it crucial for consolidation (encoding) of new explicit memories - semantic and episodic memories so they are neurologically stable and long lasting

Question 427

what does the hippocampus not do

Answer 427

does not store any explicit memories, but processes them, then transfers them to the cerebral cortex

Question 428

what is the second important role of the hippocampus

Answer 428

also transfers newly encoded explicit memories to relevant parts of the brain for permanent long term storage

Question 429

how to the hippocampus and amygdala relate to each other

Answer 429

both parts of the limbic systems, and work together in the formation of emotional memories, particularly the explicit memory component of an emotional event

Question 430

amygdala

Answer 430

a structure located deep in the temporal midbrain: involved in emotional relations and formation of emotional memories particularly relating to fear

Question 431

what does the amygdala do

Answer 431

responsible for encoding implicit memories relating to emotion

Question 432

example- bitten by a dog amygdala

Answer 432

amygdala encodes emotion of fear that you felt at the time that the dog but yours leg, then activated the hippocampus to encode the explicit event as significant

Question 433

neocortex

Answer 433

the top layer of the cerebral cortex that is involved in high order mental processes such as language, attention and memory

Question 434

what is generally stored in the neocortex

Answer 434

long term explicit semantic and episodic memories are widely distributed throughout the cortex

Question 435

what occurs in the neocortex when required

Answer 435

seperate parts are gathered together and reconstructed as a single, integrated memory for retrieval into our conscious awareness

Question 436

what does the neocortex does

Answer 436

storage of explicit memories

Question 437

basal ganglia

Answer 437

a group of structures deep within the cerebral hemispheres: involved in motor movement, procedural memory and learning

Question 438

what is one of basal ganglias main role

Answer 438

to encode implicit procedural memory, specifically habits

Question 439

what does the basal ganglia do

Answer 439

works to form habits by associating movement with reward reinforcement

Question 440

how does the basal ganglia achieve what it needs to do

Answer 440

does this by communication with other regions of the brain to acquire motor or cognitive skills gradually through practice

Question 441

cerebellum

Answer 441

structure at the base of the brain: coordinates timing and fluency of movements: encodes and temporarily stores implicit memories of simple conditioned reflexes

Question 442

what is cerebellums main role

Answer 442

encoding and temporary storage of implicit memory related movement

Question 443

autobiographical memory

Answer 443

a memory system consisting of episodes recollected from an individual life, based on the combination of episodic and semantic memory

Question 444

reconstruction

Answer 444

combining of stored information with other available to information to from what is beleived to be a more coherent or accurate memory

Question 445

episodic future thinking

Answer 445

projecting yourself forwards in time to pre experience an event that might happen in your personal future

Question 446

mental time travel

Answer 446

the capacity to mentally reconstruct past personal events and imagine possible future scenerios

Question 447

alzheimer disease

Answer 447

a neurodegenerative disease characterised by the progressive deterioration of brain nuerons causing memory loss, decline in cognitive and social skills and personality changes

Question 448

dementia

Answer 448

a collection of symptoms that ar caused by disorders affecting the brain

Question 449

symptoms of early stage (2-4 years) alzheimers disease

Answer 449

-forgets recently read material -has trouble organising or planning -has trouble managing money

Question 450

middle stage (2-10) alzheimers disease

Answer 450

experience delusions, compulsion and repetitive behaviour

Question 451

late stage 1-3 years alzheimers disease

Answer 451

has significantly personality and behaviour changes -loses ability to hold a conversation -has difficulty moving, eating or swallowing

Question 452

what are the five biologcal causes of alzheimers disease

Answer 452

brain lesion amyloid plaques neurofibrillary tangles acetylcholine brain atrophy

Question 453

brain lesion

Answer 453

any disruption of or damage to the brains normal structure

Question 454

amyloid plaques

Answer 454

an abnormal build up of beta amyloid proteins between the synapses of neurons that interfere with communication

Question 455

neurofibrillary tangles

Answer 455

an abnormal build up of proteins inside a neuron that is associated with cell death

Question 456

aphantasia

Answer 456

the inability to visualise imagery

Question 457

what people with aphantasia might do

Answer 457

-struggle to remember or relive autobiographical events -have difficulty imagining future or hypothetical events -have problems with. factual memory

Question 458

what is the cause of aphantasia

Answer 458

the visual cortex may be under active

Question 459

what are the two forms of aphantasia

Answer 459

congenital- present from birth acquired- present after brain injury or significant psychological event, such as depression or anxiety NO CURE

Question 460

what is a mnemonic

Answer 460

any technique used for improving or enhancing memory

Question 461

written cultures

Answer 461

a culture in which stories and information are shared and preserved through the process of reading and writing

Question 462

method of loci

Answer 462

a mnemonic system that commits a familiar location or sequence of locations to memory, then visually link them with information that needs to be recalled

Question 463

method of loci explanation

Answer 463

each location has a retrieval cue that makes it easier to retrieve the information when it is needed when it's needed

Question 464

how many mnemonics are there

Answer 464

written culture method of loci acronyms acrostics mnemonics is oral culture songlines

Question 465

acronyms

Answer 465

an abbreviation formed from the first letter of each word and pronounced as a single word

Question 466

what does the acronym need to be

Answer 466

when constructing an acronym, the mnemonic doesn't have to be a real word but it needs to be pronounceable

Question 467

acrostics

Answer 467

a phrase in which the first letter of each word function as a cue to help with recall

Question 468

when are acrostics useful

Answer 468

when you need to remember information in sequential order, such as a set of history facts or list of information

Question 469

oral culture

Answer 469

a culture in which information and stories are communicated by word of mouth

Question 470

sung narrative

Answer 470

a story told through singing music and sometimes dance

Question 471

dreaming

Answer 471

a guide to life and living; determining is not just stories; it is art, songs, dances and it is written into the land itself

Question 472

songline

Answer 472

one of many sung narratvies of the landscapes that weave across country and able eery significant place in aboriginal dreaming to be known

Question 473

consciousness

Answer 473

the awareness of your own internal mental processes, including your thoughts, feelings, sensations and perceptions and your awareness of the external world around you

Question 474

what is your consciousness dominated by sometimes

Answer 474

internally focused thoughts and feelings; at other times it is dominated by sensations and perceptions from out external environment

Question 475

consciousness in depth

Answer 475

the contents of your consciousness constantly changes as you shift your focus of attention -we also experience variations in the extent or degree of overall awareness at different times throughout each day

Question 476

psychological construct

Answer 476

a construct that cannot be objectively observe or measured directly through the collection of data but is widely understood to exist

Question 477

why is consciousness considered a psychological construct

Answer 477

because it cannot be objectively observed or measured through the collection of data, but is widely understood to exist

Question 478

states of consciousness

Answer 478

we experience are broadly categorised into normal waking consciousness and altered state of consciousness

Question 479

what are the two state of consciousness

Answer 479

normal waking consciousness altered states of consciousness

Question 480

normal waking consciousness

Answer 480

a state of associated with being aware of our internal and external environments

Question 481

normal waking consciousness explanation

Answer 481

we experience normal walking consciousness in everyday activities when we are awake, and have a regular level fo awareness

Question 482

altered state of consciousness

Answer 482

any state that differs in awareness when compared to normal waking consciousness

Question 483

naturally occurring altered state of consciousness

Answer 483

an altered states of consciousness that occurs without any external influence

Question 484

induced altered state of consciousness

Answer 484

an altered state of consciousness that has been brought about on purpose

Question 485

sleep

Answer 485

a naturally occurring and reversible altered state os conscious characterised by a reduction in awareness and responsiveness to external surroundings

Question 486

non-rapid eye movement (NREM sleep)

Answer 486

a type of sleep characterised by a progressive declines in psychological activity

Question 487

how many sleep cycles will someone experience during an eight hour sleep

Answer 487

the average person will experience about five sleep cycles, each lasting approximately 90 minutes

Question 488

NREM stage 1 (N1)

Answer 488

when sleep begins in the first sleep cycle and is period of relatively light sleep

Question 489

what are psychological changes in NREM 1

Answer 489

changes that indicates lower level of bodily arousal decrease in hr and rr and muscle tension

Question 490

how long does N1 last for

Answer 490

first sleep cycle of a healthy young adult lasts for about 5 minutes after falling asleep but as little as 1 minute for some some could go up to 7 or 8 minute

Question 491

can you be easily awakened in N1

Answer 491

you can be easily awakened by a gentle nudge or sound such as a door closing

Question 492

NREM stage 2

Answer 492

is a period of light sleep, sometimes described as moderate because it gradually becomes deeper

Question 493

NREM 2 deeper understanding

Answer 493

about midway through N2 however we are unlikely to response to anything except extremely strong or loud stimuli indicating that our sleep has become noticeable deeper

Question 494

NREM stage 3

Answer 494

period of deep sleep. Our hr and breathing rate are at their lowest levels. our muscles are completely relaxed and we barely move

Question 495

NREM stage 3 explanation

Answer 495

delta waves become permanent they occur more then 50% of the time

Question 496

how much does NREM stage 3 make up in sleep

Answer 496

as the night progresses, less and less time is spent in N3 deep sleep and it may disappear altogether. Overall, N3 make ups about 10-15% of total sleep

Question 497

REM sleep

Answer 497

a type of sleep characterised by quick darting of the eyes behind closed eyelids and an increase in physiological activity

Question 498

what occurs in REM sleep

Answer 498

brain is active and internal functioning is more active

Question 499

what are the techniques to measure consciousness

Answer 499

measurement of pyshsioligcal responses (EEG, EMG, EOG) -sleep diaries to obtain self reports -video monitoring

Question 500

electroencephalograph (EEG)

Answer 500

a technique that detects, amplifies and records electrical activity of the brain

Question 501

what happens in an EEG

Answer 501

electrodes are attached to a persons scalp or through a cap or headset with wires

Question 502

what do electrodes do

Answer 502

detect the synchronised electrical impulses of many neurons communication together just beneath the scalp at the surface of the cortex

Question 503

frequency

Answer 503

refers to the number of brain waves per second high frequeny= more per second

Question 504

amplitude

Answer 504

refers to the intensity of the brain waves and can be measured through peaks and troughs visually seen in an EEG high amplitude= higher peaks and thoughts

Question 505

what are the four types of brain waves

Answer 505

beat alpha theta delta BATD

Question 506

beta

Answer 506

frequency=highest amplitude=lowest

Question 507

what is the state of people with beta brainwaves

Answer 507

normal waking consciousness -awake, alert and focused -high environmental stimulation

Question 508

alpha

Answer 508

frequency: high amplitude: low

Question 509

what is the state of people with alpha brainwaves

Answer 509

-lower alertness -awaked by relaxed -quiet and calm

Question 510

theta

Answer 510

frequency: low amplitude: high

Question 511

what is the state of people with theta brainwaves

Answer 511

-low alertness -light sleep -sense withdrawn from the external environment

Question 512

delta

Answer 512

frequency: lowest amplitude: highest

Question 513

what is the state of people with delta brainwaves

Answer 513

-lowest alertness -deep N3 sleep -dreamless sleep

Question 514

electromyography (EMG)

Answer 514

a technique that detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the skeletal muscles

Question 515

what does EMG show

Answer 515

EMG recording show that our muscle relax as we change consciousness (e.g fall asleep)

Question 516

electro-oculargraph (EOG)

Answer 516

a technique that detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the muscles controlling the eyes

Question 517

what does EOG do

Answer 517

electrodes are attached to areas surrounding the eyes. It is most used to measure changes in eye movement over time during different stages of sleep

Question 518

self report

Answer 518

is the participants written or spoken responses, statement or instructions presented by the researcher. This is considered subjective

Question 519

sleep diary

Answer 519

a subjective self report tool used by a person to track their own sleep wake patterns

Question 520

video monitoring

Answer 520

a sleep study tool used to collect qualitative visual and audio information about a person sleep

Question 521

what are the four types of biological rhythms

Answer 521

circadian rhythm ultradian rhythm melatonin SCN

Question 522

ultradian rhythm

Answer 522

biological processes that coordinate the timing of body activities over a period of less than 24 hours

Question 522

what is a circadian rhythm

Answer 522

are biological processes in all animals that coordinate the timing of activity of body systems over a 24 hour period

Question 522

what happens when we are out of sync with our sleep wake cycle

Answer 522

a participants cycle quickly adjusts to match the 24 hour day night cycle of the normal environmental time cues

Question 522

what is our sleep wake cycle influenced by

Answer 522

our sleep wake cycle is influenced by environmental time giving cues or stimuli

Question 523

melatonin

Answer 523

a hormone that induces drowsiness and decreases cell activity

Question 524

the suprachiasmatic nucleus

Answer 524

a master body clock in the hypothalamus that regulates body activities to daily schedule of sleep and wakefulness

Question 525

what happens where there is less light

Answer 525

the suprachiasmatic nucleus signals pineal gland pineal gland release more melatonin increase in melatonin makes a person more drowsy if darkness low levels o flight continues, person remains sleepy

Question 526

what is the 1st trend of change across the lifespan

Answer 526

the total amount of sleep decreases

Question 527

what is the 2nd trend of change across the lifespan

Answer 527

the proportion of REM sleep decreases significantly from birth until 2 years old

Question 528

neonatal period (1-15 days)

Answer 528

sleep duration is at it's highest -approximately 16 hours of sleep -approx 50% REM and 50% NREM

Question 529

what occurs in the neo natal lifespan

Answer 529

sleep onset stage 1, through REM sleep, not NREM stage 1, and each episode only consists of 1 or two sleep cycles

Question 530

infancy up to 24 months

Answer 530

sleep duration decreases to approximately 13.5 hours approx 35% REM and 65% NREM

Question 531

childhood 2-14 years

Answer 531

sleep duration is 11 hours NREM 80% and REM 20%

Question 532

adolescents 14-18

Answer 532

sleep duration is 9 hours REM 20 and NREM 80%

Question 533

what happens to adolescents

Answer 533

tend to get less sleep then they need to function at their best partly due to sleep wake cycle and how they experience biological delayed sleep onset

Question 534

adulthood 18-75

Answer 534

sleep duration is 7-8 REM 20% and NREM 80%

Question 535

older adults

Answer 535

average 6 hours a day but also experience a 30 minute nap a day 20% REM and 80% NREM

Question 536

partial sleep deprivation

Answer 536

the experience of achieving inadequate sleep in terms of quality and quantity

Question 537

sleep quantity

Answer 537

refers to the amount of sleep. This can be measured objectively using time

Question 538

sleep quality

Answer 538

refers to how well we feel after we have slept

Question 539

what are three factors that contribute to sleep deprivation

Answer 539

consuming caffeine, food, drugs or alcohol -work or school requirements -medical conditions

Question 540

affective functioning

Answer 540

a persons experience of their emotions

Question 541

total sleep deprivation

Answer 541

involves not having any sleep at all over a short term or long term period. The person stays awake for one or more days or weeks

Question 542

sleep debt

Answer 542

is the accumulated amount of sleep loss from insufficient sleep

Question 543

what is an example of affective functioning

Answer 543

a child who is sleep deprived, they may get overly annoyed when asked to clean their room

Question 544

behavioural functioning

Answer 544

a persons observable actions

Question 545

behavioural functioning

Answer 545

when sleep deprived, may have trouble controlling behaviour, participate in more risk taking or impulsive behaviour, take longer to finish tasks

Question 546

cognitive functioning

Answer 546

a persons mental processing

Question 547

what cognitive functioning issues will a person experience if sleep deprived

Answer 547

trouble with memory decreased alertness poor concentration

Question 548

blood alcohol concentration

Answer 548

the percentage of alcohol in the bloodstream

Question 549

what are the cognitive effects of sleep deprivation v BAC

Answer 549

17 hours of sleep deprivation equals to 0.05 blood alcohol concentration 24 hours of sleep deprivation is equivalent to that of someone with a BAC of 0.10%

Question 550

circadian rhythm sleep disorders

Answer 550

a category of sleep disorders in which sleep is disrupted because the circadian rhythm and a person sleep wake schedule are misaligned

Question 551

what are the three different circadian rhythm disorders

Answer 551

delayed sleep phase syndrome advanced sleep phase disorder shift work

Question 552

delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS)

Answer 552

a circadian rhythm sleep disorder characterised by a delay in timing of sleep onset and awakening compared with the time that is desired

Question 553

what does DSPS cause

Answer 553

the delay is usually for two or more hours person falls asleep later then they should and wake up later results in the person unable to achieve recommended amount of sleep

Question 554

how many months does a person need to experience symptoms before being diagnosed with DSPS

Answer 554

three months

Question 555

what is DSPS cause by

Answer 555

by a misalignment between external cues and internal cues that regulate the circadian rhythm

Question 556

what are the three predominant symptoms of DSPS

Answer 556

sleep onset insomnia difficulty awakening at the desired or necessary time excessive sleepiness

Question 557

advanced sleep phase syndrome

Answer 557

a circadian rhythm sleep disorder characterised by an advance in the timing of sleep onset and awakening compared to the timing that is desired

Question 558

what are the typical sleep time for people with advanced sleep phase disorder

Answer 558

6pm and 8pm and wake times are between 1am and 3am

Question 559

what occurs in individual with ASPD

Answer 559

still receives the external cues of light in the morning and dark at night, but their are internal cues are not being received properly in the morning or night

Question 560

what is the effect of ASPD

Answer 560

persistant sleep deprivation and daytime sleepiness. In turn, they experience significant distress and or impairments in important areas of everyday life

Question 561

shift work disorder

Answer 561

work that regularly takes a place outside of normal business hours, particularly at night and the very early morning can cause a circadian rhythm sleep disorder

Question 562

what are the two main symptoms of shift work disorders

Answer 562

sleep onset insomnia and excessive sleepiness

Question 563

night shift workers

Answer 563

major sleep episoide of the night shift worker is unrefreshing excessive sleepiness if often experience during the night and may impair performance due to reduced alertness and can have consequences to safety

Question 564

fixed vs rotating shifts

Answer 564

generally, if rotating shifts have to be used, the longer a person works on their particular shift the more likely it is their sleep-wake cycle will make at least some adjustments and the better for the individual

Question 565

bright light therapy

Answer 565

a therapy to treat a sleep disorder in which the person is exposed to a bright light to reset the sleep wake cycle

Question 566

what is the intervention for circadian rhythms

Answer 566

blue light therapy

Question 567

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for delayed sleep phase disorder

Answer 567

individual exposed to bright light in the morning at appropriate waking time this will act as an external cue and will signal the SCN to release cortisol and promote wakefulness this will help SCN send single for melatonin release at an earlier time

Question 568

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for advanced sleep phase disorder

Answer 568

individual gets exposed in the evening when feeling sleep to act as external cue to the SCN and promote wakefulness This will help SCN send signals to melatonin release later, more appropriate sleeping time

Question 569

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for shift work disorder

Answer 569

depends on the details and timing of the individuals work should be shown blue light at beginning of their shift, when they need to be awake and alert this will promote sleepiness at a later more suitable time

Question 570

sleep hygiene

Answer 570

involves practices that tend to improve and maintain good sleep and full daytime alertness. This include behaviours and with a good nights sleep and waking feeling rested and ready to take on the days activity

Question 571

what is the first good sleep hygiene practice

Answer 571

establish a regular relaxing sleep schedule and bedtime routine

Question 572

what is the second good sleep hygiene practice

Answer 572

associate your bed and bedroom with sleep

Question 573

what is the third good sleep hygiene practice

Answer 573

avoid activities that are stimulating in the hour before bed

Question 574

zeitgebers

Answer 574

an environmental cue such as light, temperature and eating patterns that can synchronise and regulate with the bodies circadian rhythm

Question 575

improving sleep- exposure to daylight

Answer 575

during morning hours and early afternoon advances the sleep wake cycle, pushing it forward to a slightly earlier time daylight in the afternoon has the opposite effect

Question 576

blue light

Answer 576

a part of the visible light spectrum that is entitled from the smartphone, screens, computer etc

Question 577

ways to avoid blue light

Answer 577

blue light glasses built in screen filter or the night mode settings on your smart phone

Question 578

what happens with an over exposure on light

Answer 578

to much exposure in the evening disrupts our circadian rhythm leaving us feeling alert instead of drowsy and ready to sleep

Question 579

improving sleep- temperature

Answer 579

body temp gradually falls during the night and rises during the wake phase sleep is most likely to occur when core body temp decreases

Question 580

what temperature is a zeitgebur

Answer 580

air temperature as it signals and help get the body ready for sleep, but probably with a weaker strength than light

Question 581

improving sleep- eating and drinking patterns

Answer 581

for most people who routinely consume foo during active daylight phase of a 24 hour cycle, the SCN and the peripheral clocks remain synchronised allowing for a more appropriate sleep wake cycle

Question 582

how to adjust eating and drinking patterns

Answer 582

bringing mealtimes back to normal schedule during the active, light phase of the day

Question 583

mental wellbeing

Answer 583

is a state of wellbeing in which an individual realises his or her own abilities can with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and is able to make a contribution to his or her community

Question 584

what does a person with good mental health have

Answer 584

-have a high level of functioning -manage with their feelings and emotions -can form positive relationships with others (high levels of social wellbeing)

Question 585

mentally healthy

Answer 585

the state of not having difficulty with everyday activities and displaying resilience

Question 586

resilience

Answer 586

the ability to recover from adversity

Question 587

high level of functioning

Answer 587

the ability to carry out a wide range of daily activities attend to self care, maintain interpersonal relationship and demonstrate resilience in the face of everyday challenges

Question 588

social wellbeing

Answer 588

relates to the connections you make with other people and your ability to get along with people in a community

Question 589

what does a person with high social wellbeing exhibit

Answer 589

develop and maintain healthy relationships -socially interact with others in an appropriate way -respects other individuals

Question 590

emotional wellbeing

Answer 590

relates to the ability to feel a range of emotions and express them in a positive way

Question 591

people with high level of emotional wellbeing exhibit

Answer 591

-develop awareness of their awareness -regulate emotions and exercise control -express a range of emotions

Question 592

life stressor

Answer 592

an everyday or conceivable event such as a relationship breakdown work, challenge or failing a test

Question 593

ATSI social and emotional framework

Answer 593

the term social and emotional wellbeing is used by aboriginal and torres straight islander people to describe the physical, social, emotional, spiritual and cultural wellbeing of a person

Question 594

what is the framework based on

Answer 594

its based on a holistic, multidimensional view of health that recognises their connection to country, culture and spirituality, ancestry, family and community

Question 595

aboriginals and torres straight islanders social and emotional wellbeing framework

Answer 595

many aboroginal and torres straight islander