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Diagnostics > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is ABC DE stand for?

A

Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution

Red flags: color variation (black, blue-grayish)

If the diameter is greater than 6mm

If there is a change is size,shape or color or new lesions form

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2
Q

Is melanomas curable?

A

Almost always curable by surgical excision alone

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3
Q

What is the most serious form of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma

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4
Q

What is the most common malignancy in Caucasian?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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5
Q

What is the second most common skin cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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6
Q

What are characteristics of Merkel cell carcinoma?

A

They are a rare, aggressive malignancy.
They are rapidly growing, Painless, nontender, shiny, flesh colored or bluish-red intracutaneous nodule on neck or head region

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7
Q

What is the skin issue for:

Sandpaper like skin, beefy red erythematous enlarged tonsils, Associated with group strep A, And the patient will have a strawberry like tongue

A

Scarlatina

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8
Q

What is the skin issue:

Known as sixth disease, associated with herpes human virus six and seven, begins with a high fever then subsides, rose pink blanchable macule and papules that may spread to the trunk

A

Roseola

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9
Q

What is this skin illness:

The patient will have a slapped cheek appearance, a Lacey rash that is blanchable, and can occur over torso and upper extremities

A

Fifth disease

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10
Q

What virus causes fifth disease?

A

Parovirus B19

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11
Q

What’s the skin illness associated with this?

Flesh colored, dome shaped papules. Can occur anywhere except the palms and soles. Associated with contact sports and can be sexually transmitted

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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12
Q

Herald patch and Christmas tree distribution are associated with what skin illness?

A

Pityriasis rosea

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13
Q

What skin illness is associated:

HSV 1 or 2, known as kaposi varicellform eruption.

A

Eczema herpeticum

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14
Q

What skin illness is known as ritter disease?

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

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15
Q

Which 2 skin illnesses need to go to the ER?

A

Staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome and eczema herpeticum

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16
Q

What immunoglobulin is involved in allergic rhinitis?

A

IgE

It attaches to mast cells that release histamine and cause bv to open which causes skin redness, swollen membranes, sneezing and congestion

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17
Q

What are some causes of non allergic rhinitis?

A

Cigarette smoke, pollutants, strong odors, alcoholic beverages, cold temps

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18
Q

Blockages in the nose, deviated septum, infections and over use of decongestants are what type of rhinitis?

A

Non allergic rhinitis

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19
Q

What is hay fever associated with?

A

Seasonal allergic rhinitis

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20
Q

What rhinitis is caused by a hypersensitivity to ragweed?

A

Seasonal allergic rhinitis

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21
Q

What type of rhinitis is associated with pet hair, mold on wallpaper, houseplants, carpeting, upholstery and automobile pollution?

A

Perennial allergic rhinitis

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22
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Caused by a bacterial or viral infection

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23
Q

What does CAGE stand for in regards to the alcohol screening tool?

A

Cut, annoyed, guilty, and eye-opener

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24
Q

What is aged related macular degeneration?

A

Physical disturbance of the center of the retina called the macula

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25
Q

What is proptosis know as?

A

Bulging eyes

Due to swelling of the muscles, fat, and tissue behind the eye

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26
Q

What eye condition is this?

Degenerative form of eye disease in which the lens gradually becomes opaque and vision “mists’ over

A

Cataracts

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27
Q

What is CMV retinitis associated with?

A

Infection of the retina, associated with AIDS

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28
Q

What is strabismus?

A

Crossed eyes

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29
Q

What’s eye condition is this?

A build of fluid in the eye creates pressure, damaging the optic nerve

A

Glaucoma

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30
Q

What eye condition is this?

The cornea becomes thin and cone shaped (cornea is usually round)

A

Keratoconus

31
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

Lazy eye

It’s poor vision in a eye that doesn’t receive adequate use during childhood

32
Q

What is this term: low Vision

A

Ordinary glasses or contact lenses do not produce clear vision

33
Q

Uveitis is what?

A

Inflammation of one or more parts of the eye that make up the uvea

34
Q

What’s the medical term for swimmers ear?

A

Otitis externa

35
Q

What is a virus that causes mononucleosis?

A

Epstein barr virus

36
Q

For acute viral rhinosinusitis the fever can last for how long?

A

24 to 48 hours

37
Q

For acute bacterial rhinosinusitis how long does the fever last?

A

Greater than 48 hours

38
Q

What is the duration for acute rhinosinusitis?

A

Less than 10 days

39
Q

What is the duration for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Greater than 10 days

40
Q

What type of headache wakes you up from sleep?

A

A cluster headache

41
Q

What type of headache is associated with nausea occurs more in women and can see in Aurora or see flashes?

A

Migraine headache

42
Q

How long can a migraine headache last?

A

4 to 72 hours

43
Q

What headache is associated with Periorbital pain and occurs more and men?

A

A cluster headache

44
Q

What a headache feels like they have a band across their head?

A

It’s stress or tension headache also called muscle contraction headache

45
Q

If a patient reports this is the worst headache I have ever had in my life what do you think the problem could be?

A

A possible brain bleed or hemorrhagic stroke

This can also be called a thunder clap headache

46
Q

What are some red flags for patients associated with headaches?

A

Change in size and symptoms, difficulty thinking, patient is greater than 55 who report the signs or symptoms, and early morning vomiting

47
Q

When instilling Fluirescein dye into the eye, where should you apply the dye strip?

A

Apply it to the lower lid and have the patient blink

48
Q

What color is the fluorescein eye dye?

A

Green

49
Q

In doing cerumen removal, How should you hold the ear?

A

Retract the pinna posteriorly and laterally to straighten out the external auditory canal

50
Q

What is trigeminal autonomic cephalagia associated with?

A

Cluster headache and paroxysmal hemicrania

51
Q

What is pseudotumor cerebri also known as?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

52
Q

What are some lifestyle causes for headaches?

A 
Red wine (etoh use) 
Sleep changes or lack of sleep
Processed meats because of nitrates 
Poor posture 
Skipped meals 
Stress
53
Q

What is the maximum dose for lidocaine?

A

Maximum dose for lidocaine is 4.5 mg per kilogram

54
Q

What is the duration of lidocaine?

A

30 minutes

55
Q

When using Eppy with lidocaine how much time can I extend the duration?

A

4 to 6 hours

56
Q

What can cryo-therapy be used on?

A

Common warts,

Actinic keratosis, and seborrheic keratosis

57
Q

The greater density for X-rays means what for penetration?

A

Less penetration

It’ll be white

58
Q

The less density an object has means what for penetration?

A

The more penetration it’ll have

Black

59
Q

The heart appears larger in what chest x-ray of you?

A

The heart appears larger on the anterior-posterior view

60
Q

If a patient is able to stay and white chest x-ray order should the provider do?

A

PA and lateral view

61
Q

If a patient is not able to stand and what X-ray order should the provider do?

A

AP view

62
Q

The heart appears larger on which chest x-ray view?

A

The PA view

Because it’s closer to the film

63
Q

On a chest x-ray, the hemi diaphragm separates what?

A

It separates the chest from the abdomen

64
Q

What is consistent with a silhouette sign, loss of borders and landmarks and increase density that occurs with infiltrates?

A

Pneumonia

65
Q

What is the first thing you lose on a chest x-ray when a patient has a plural effusion?

A

The costophrenic angle

66
Q

For a patient that has a plural effusion, What chest x-ray dimension would show you how high the fluid fills?

A

The lateral chest x-ray

67
Q

What is a abdominal x-ray KUB flat plate?

A

Kidneys ureter and bladder

Done while lying down

68
Q

What is included in abdominal series?

A

Flat plate KUB, upright, and PA chest

69
Q

What is the most common cause of abdominal pain in children under eight years old?

A

Lower lobe pneumonia which irritates the diaphragm

70
Q

What is the sail sign associated with?

A

It is associated with swelling

71
Q

What ultrasound mode is most commonly use for pocus?

A

Two dimensional mode

It’ll show gray to black images

72
Q

What ultrasound mode is best for you in cardiac structure And it’s flow?

A

M mode or motion mode

73
Q

For the color ultrasound mode, red and blue mean what?

A

Red is towards and blue is away

Color does not indicate artery or vein but flow towards the probe

Diagnostics (3 decks)

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