Test 4 Flashcards
(81 cards)
1
Q
Medications that effect that kidneys
A
NSAIDS
COX-Inhibitors
ACE Inhibitors
ARBS
2
Q
Flank pain on patient finding often suggests
A
kidney stone
3
Q
Renal labs
A
urinalysis
serum creatinine
BUN (less)
GFR
4
Q
GFR
A
Most accurate predictor of kidney disease.
Patient is given a marker that will clear through the glomerular system and measured. Done by a nephrologist.
Hardly used- in hospital, estimated GFR is used
5
Q
When should you consider a GFR?
A
- Extremes of age and body size
- Severe malnutrition or obesity
- Disease of skeletal muscle
- Paraplegia/quadriplegia
- Vegetarian Diet
- Rapidly changing kidney function
- Pregnancy
6
Q
How to diagnose acute renal failure?
A
Serum creatinine
pre-renal - due to n/v and volume depletion
infrarenal - disease process or kidney stone
post-renal - stone, BPH, blocked ureter or urethra
7
Q
What is creatinine clearance?
A
the measurement used to adjust drug dosages
8
Q
When do you collect a 24-hr urine?
A
When you want to see more of the whole picture.
Done for:
- Hematuria
- Kidney stones
- Pheochromocytoma (tumor of adrenal glands)
- Uncontrolled HTN
- Preeclampsia
- Kidney disease
- Multiple myeloma
9
Q
What can be seen on renal ultrasound
A
- hydronephrosis (swelling of kidney from build up of urine)
- urine flow
- differentiates the renal cortex from renal medulla
- differentiates cysts from masses
- can see stones
can be done at the bedside and avoids contrast
10
Q
what can be seen on a KUB
A
Kidney, ureters, and bladder
-calcifications, stones, neoplasms, tumors, air, soft tissue changes
if the posts muscle or renal outline is obscured- infection? inflammation? tumor?
11
Q
CT scan for kidneys
A
watch out on ordering dye
check creatinine, check medications (no metformin), dehydration, allergies, diabetes?, renal disease history, multiple myeloma.
must hydrate before contrast and after
12
Q
MRA w/o contrast can visualize what?
A
- renal artery stenosis
- mapping of vascular anatomy for surgery/procedures
- assessing previous transplant grafts
13
Q
MRA w/ gadolinium contrast
A
may cause nephrogenic system fibrosis and renal failure
don’t use on patients in AKI
if used on patient on PD or HD, dialyze immediately after testing
14
Q
Contrast nephropathy
A
Occurs after any test with contrast. Greatest risk in patient with existing renal disease or diabetes.
defined as increases in creatinine >25-50% or by 0.5-1.0mg/dL
rises over 1-2 days, peaks 4-7 days, normalizes 10-14 days
15
Q
Renal biopsy performed for?
A
- AKI with no explanation
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Persistent proteinuria
- Hematuria
- Confirming a disease
- Transplant rejection
16
Q
Contraindications to renal biopsy
A
- Sepsis
- Uncontrolled HTN
- Hemorrhagic diathesis
- Parenchymal infection or malignancy
- Solitary or horseshoe kidney
17
Q
What do you look at on the urinalysis to diagnose UTI
A
Nitrites Leukocyte esterase WBCs Casts Bacteria
18
Q
Types of UA testing
A
1) Dipstick
2) Microanalysis - more accurate, ID protein problems better
3) 24 hour urine - renal secretion over 24hrs
19
Q
Urine sample sitting out for >1hr causes:
A
- Increased acidity
- Casts dissolve
- Microorganisms grow
- Ketones and bilirubin decreases
dehydration, fluid overload, food, and medication can give false results and affect UA
20
Q
Normal urine acid level
A
4.5-8
21
Q
Normal urine specific gravity
A
1.003 - 1.030
concentrated = >1.020 diluted = <1.005
22
Q
Normal protein level in UA
A
150mg/24hrs
23
Q
Overhydrations effect on protein in urine
A
will decrease protein levels in urien
24
Q
Dehydration effect on protein in urine
A
will increase protein levels in urine
along with contrast dye, stress, infection, and heart failure
25
Dipstick UA positive for high protein at what level
300-500 mg/day
26
microalbuminuria should be ordered on which patients
diabetic
27
Urine protein 150-300 mg
could be tubular or glomerular, overflow of proteinuria.
To determine which, protein electrophoresis should be ordered.
28
>300 mg urine protein
glomerular proteinuria
29
>350mg urine protein
nephrotic syndrome
30
Most common cause for glucose in urine
diabetes
less common = fanconi's syndrome and multiple myeloma
31
Ketones are commonly present in what population
pregnant women
32
Nitrites
secreted by gram negative bacteria - indicative of UTI.
false negative if patient having UTI with gram positive bacteria and yeast which do not secrete nitrites
33
Leukocyte esterase
2nd most common marker for UTI
positive in the presence of WBCs, but can have false positive if urine has been sitting out too long.
negative result with clinical signs and symptoms would prompt you to follow up with microscopic analysis and culture
34
RBC presence in urine
hematuria requires follow up.
damage to the kidney or stone = darker
bladder cancer = bright red
35
WBC presence in urine
pyuria is associated with infection (>10 WBCS/mm3)
can also be indicative of non-infectious causes- stone, tumor, foreign bodies.
WBCs can lysis if sitting out too long
Casts of WBCs represent pyelonephritis
36
RBC casts
indicated bleeding in the kidneys- usually glomerulus or tubule. Often glomerulonephritis
37
Bacterial casts
indicates acute pyelonephritis
38
Epithelial casts
can be benign- associated with tubular necrosis
39
Bacteria in urinalysis
>100,000 is usually significant
urine can be colonized and not infected
40
Causes of delirium and confusion
a medical condition, substance intoxication, withdrawal, or medication side effect
characterized by disturbances of consciousness with reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention
41
Triad of acute bacterial meningitis
Fever >38 degrees C
Nuchal rigidity
AMS
(Hypothermia in a small percentage)
42
Lumbar puncture results for bacterial meningitis
- WBCS : 1,000-5,000 cells/mL (percentage of neutrophils usually >80%)
- Protein : >200mg/dL
- Glucose : <40 mg/dL
43
Lab work to obtain for meningitis
CBC, blood cultures, lumbar puncture (crucial), and consider CT if a mass or high ICP suspected
44
Clinical features of bells palsy
- sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis
- eyebrow or mouth drooping
- inability to close eye
- altered or loss of taste on 2/3 of tongue
- altered lacrimal and salivary galnd secretions
45
Tests for bells palsy
CT, MRI, serological test for Lyme disease
46
Diagnosing carpal tunnel
- Nocturnal pain or paresthesia in the distribution of the median nerve
- Nerve conduction studies (NCS)
- Electromyography (EMG) = used to exclude other conditions such as neuropathy
- Pain or paresthesia in first three digits and the radial half of the fourth digit
47
Guillain Barre clinical features
progressive, mostly symmetric muscle weakness with absent or depressed deep tendon reflexes - can progress to complete paralysis with severe respiratory muscle weakness requiring ventilator
48
Guillain Barre assessment
weakness usually starts in the legs
facial palsy
oropharyngeal weakness
oculomotor weakness
decreased or absent reflexes in arms or legs
49
Diagnosing Guillain Barre
Electrodiagnostic studies is useful in confirming diagnosis and classifying which type
Lumbar puncture (in all patients) - increased CSF protein with normal WBCs
Albuminocytological dissociation in first week and >75% in 3 weeks
HIV would be alternative diagnosis but WBC count >50
50
Tension headache
most common headache type
51
Signs of non-emergent headache
- age <50 yrs
- history of similar headaches and features are typical
- no abnormal neurological findings
- no concerning change in usual headache presentation
- no high risk comorbidities
- no new finding on history or exam
52
"SNOOP" red flags for headaches
S - systemic symptoms
N - neurological symptoms
O - onset is new (>50yr) or sudden (thunderclap)
O - other associated conditions or features
P - previous headache history progressing or changing
53
Diagnostics for headache
MRI is preferred for headache
54
parkinsons affects which age group
progressive neurodegenerative disease
uncommon <40 years old
commonly >60 years with median being 70
55
manifestations of parkinsons
1) craniofacial - masked facial expression, hypophonia
2) visual - eyelid drooping
3) musculoskeletal - stooped posture, micrographic (handwriting becomes smaller as writing continues)
4) gait - shuffling, short steps, freezing, etc
5) nonmotor - psychosis, depression, anxiety, fatigue, sleep changes, pain and sensory disturbances
56
diagnosing parkinsons
based on clinical symptoms
- tremor
- bradykinesia (slow movements)
- rigidity
- postural instability
57
seizure definition
electric hyper-synchronization in the neuronal networks in the cerebral cortex
for a first seizure, goal is to determine if it was a seizure and determine if it is correctable or could be epilepsy
58
define symptomatic seizure
those that occur in the setting of acute medical illness (hypoglycemia or hyponatremia) or neurological illness/injury (stroke, TBI, meningitis, encephalopathy)
59
diagnosing a seizure
history, physical, neurological exam along with tests that identify the cause
lab studies (CBC, CMP, electrolytes, kidney and liver function)
urinalysis and toxicology screen
60
Preferred testing to diagnose seizure
MRI with or without contrast
secondary = CT
EEG is important when impaired sensorium is persistent
Lumbar puncture if process may be infectious in nature
EKG?
61
Why is determining type of stroke important
acute ischemic strokes are candidates for IV thrombolytics or thrombectomy
bleeds are not
62
imaging for stroke
**Noncontrast CT guide acute therapy
63
tests for stroke
glucose, CBC (note the platelets), troponin, PT/INR, PTT, clotting factors and Xa.
serum electrolytes, LFTs, toxicology screen, etoh level, pregnancy test, ABG, CXR, EEG if seizures are suspected
64
what are most subarachnoid hemorrhages caused from?
rupture of saccular aneurysm
65
symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhages
sudden, severe headache "worst in my life"
66
testing for subarachnoid hemorrhages
1) noncontrast CT
2) lumbar puncture if CT normal but still suspecting SAH. Lumbar puncture will have elevated opening pressure and elevated RBC count in all tubes
67
Gold standard for treating cerebral aneurysm
Formal 4 Vessel cerebral angiogram to coil the aneurysm
68
what is NPH?
normal pressure hydrocephalus.
enlarged ventricle size with normal pressure found in lumbar puncture.
NOT obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus which block the CSF
69
classic triad of NPH
1) Cognitive impairment (dementia)
2) Gait disturbances (THE predominant finding)
3) urinary incontinence (or hesitancy)
70
is NPH reversible?
yes, with ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
71
what can occur if NPH is not identified quickly?
patients develop
1) alzheimers disease
2) neurodegenerative dementia within several years of shunt placement
72
causes of secondary NPH
- subarachnoid hemorrhage
| - meningitis
73
how to diagnose NPH
early identification of classic triad
1) cognitive impairment
2) gait disturbances ***** (is more prominent early on and should be the predominant clinical finding)
3) urinary incontinence or hesitancy
74
first test for NPH
***MRI = essential first test for NPH, indicating ventricular megalyopathy with no evidence of CSF obstruction
good prognosis = enlarged subarachnoid space with hydrocephalus
poor prognosis = extensive white matter disease and cortical atrophy
75
After MRI, how do you test and treat NPH?
1) Lumbar Puncture - LP helps identify patient that will respond positively to a shunt placement. If test results are positive, this indicates a shunt should be placed.
2) VP shunt - placed if patient has clinical symptoms, MRI, and positive LP test
76
What is NEXUS?
National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study
a set of validated criteria used to decide which trauma patients do not require cervical spine imaging.
77
What is the NEXUS criteria?
Trauma patients who do not require cervical spine imaging require all of the following:
- alert and stable
- no focal neurologic deficit
- no altered level of consciousness
- not intoxicated
- no midline spinal tenderness
- no distracting injury
78
What is the Canadian C-Spine Rules?
a set of guidelines that help a clinician decide if cervical spine imaging is not appropriate for a trauma patient in the emergency department. The patient must be alert and stable.
There are 3 rules with high risk criteria and low risk criteria
79
What is the high risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
is there any high-risk factor present that requires cervical spine imaging?
1) ≥65 years
2) a dangerous mechanism: fall from elevation >3 ft (or 5 stairs), axial load to the head, high-speed motor vehicle collision (e.g. >100 km/hr or ~60 mph, rollover, ejection), motorized recreational vehicles, bicycle collision
3) paresthesias in extremities
If any high-risk factor is present, then cervical spine imaging is warranted.
80
What is the low risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
is there any low-risk factor present?
1) simple rear-end motor vehicle collision (excludes being hit by a high-speed vehicle, a large vehicle (e.g. bus) or rollover)
2) sitting position in emergency department
3) ambulatory at any time since the injury
4) delayed onset of neck pain
5) absence of midline C-spine tenderness
If the patient does not meet the criteria of a low-risk injury, then cervical spine imaging is warranted.
81
What if patient meets low risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
If the patient meets the criteria of a low-risk injury, then one should assess on physical exam whether the patient can rotate the neck 45°.
if low-risk injury and the patient can rotate the neck 45° = no cervical spine imaging required
if low-risk injury and the patient cannot rotate the neck 45° = then cervical spine imaging is warranted
