Exam 2 Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
3 vaccines to ask about in respiratory assessment
A
flu, covid, TB
2
Q
if the pt. has problems breathing during sleep while laying flat and NO lower extremity edema, it is a ________ problem
A
respiratory
3
Q
if the patient has problems breathing during sleep while laying flight and HAS lower extremity edema, then it is a ______ problem
A
cardiac
4
Q
position is seen in abnormal breathing where the pt. is hunched forward with their hands on their knees
A
tripod position
5
Q
_______ breathing is deep and labored hyperventilation
A
Kussmaul
6
Q
2 things Kussmaul breathing is a sign of
A
diabetic ketoacidosis
chronic kidney problems
7
Q
_____ _____ breathing is periods of breathing followed by periods of apnea
A
cheyne stokes
8
Q
cheyne stokes breathing pattern is seen in people who have _____ diseases
A
terminal
9
Q
the AP:T diameter ratio
A
2:1
10
Q
barrel-chested is when the _______ diameter is the same width as the AP diameter
A
transverse
11
Q
retraction seen in intercostal spaces when exhaling and bulging seen when inhaling can be seen in patients who have _______
A
asthma
12
Q
when your trachea is pushed to one side of your neck
A
tracheal deviation
13
Q
tracheal deviation indicates __________
A
pneumothorax
14
Q
crackling or popping felt when you palpate
A
crepitus
15
Q
test done to test the vibration of air in the bronchial tubes
A
tactile fremitus
16
Q
during tactile fremitus, have the patient say ___ and feel for vibration
A
99
17
Q
test done that shows the lungs capacity to expand by putting hands on the rib cage as they inhale
A
thoracic expansion
18
Q
in thoracic expansion, your thumbs should separate __ to ___ cm
A
5 to 10
19
Q
the normal sound you percuss over lungs filled with air
A
resonance
20
Q
dullness heard when percussing is because of a _____ or _____
A
mass or fluid
21
Q
higher pitched sound heard when percussing that indicates an abnormal amount air air
A
tympany
22
Q
__________ heard when percussion indicated COPD and/or emphysema
A
hyperessonance
23
Q
percussion test done to show how much the diaphragm moves when inhaling/exhaling
A
diaphragmatic excursion
24
Q
in the diaphragmatic excursion, the difference sound be __ to __ cm
A
3 to 5
25
bronchial sounds are heard over the ______
trachea
26
brocnhovesiclar sounds are over the ______ _____
bronchial tubes
27
vesicular sounds are heard over the _______
lungs
28
the loudest lung sounds are the ______ sounds and the lowest are the _______ sounds
bronchial, vesiculae
29
an adventitious sound is when there is an abnormal sound that does not go away with ______
coughing
30
_______ are heard when there is fluid blocking the alveolar sacs
crackles
31
most common cause of crackles in the lungs
congestive heart failure
32
_______ is caused by the bronchial tubes being inflamed
wheezing
33
wheezing that is emergent and doesn't need a stethoscope to be heard
stridor
34
3 tests done when you hear an adventitious sound
bronchophony
egophony
whisper pectoriloquy
35
test done where you auscultate lungs when the patient says 99
bronchophony
36
normal bronchophony test results
faint and muffled
37
test where you ascultate while the pt. says E
egophony
38
normal egophony results
sounds like pt. is saying Eeeeeeeee
39
abnormal egophony results
sounds like Aaaaaaa; loud and clear
40
test where you auscultate while the pt. whispers 123
whisper pectorilquy
41
normal whisper pectoriloquy results
faint and muffled, almost inaudible
42
abnormal whisper pectoriloquy results
clear and distinct, still faint though
43
when the lining between the pleura gets dry and causes friction between the layers
pleural friction rub
44
if the pt. holds their breath, and the friction rub goes away then it is a _______ friction rub
pleural
45
if the pt. holds their breath, and the friction rub stays, then it is a ______ friction rub
pericardial
46
meds to treat crackles
diuretics
47
meds to treat diminished breath sounds
antibiotics
48
meds to treat wheezes
bronchodilators
49
sounds heard with someone with pneumonia
dull
50
a chest ____ confirms diagnoses of pneumonia
X-ray
51
specialist that works on electrical problems in the heart
electrophysiologist
52
lack of blood supply to the chest causes pain called _____
angina
53
______ ______ disease refers to the build up of plaque and blockage of arteries
coronary artery
54
when cardiac muscle is ischemic, it is not yet ____, just damaged
dead
55
______ is when cardiac tissue is dead
infarction
56
2 things that can diagnose CAD
EKG
heart catheriterization
57
2 things that can treat CAD
angioplasty
CABG surgery
58
procedure where a stent is placed in the heart
angioplasty
59
the P wave signifies the ____ node firing
SA
60
the AV node can fire at __ to __ beats per minute
40 to 60
61
QRS wave signifies the ___ node firing
AV
62
when the SA node fails, the ___ node takes over and can sustain life
AV
63
if the SA and AV node fail, the ______ ______ take over
bundle branches
64
the bundle branches fire at __ to __ beats per minute
20 to 40
65
life cannot be sustained when the _____ _____ take over contraction
bundle branches
66
4 positive cations that provide electrical charge
Mg, K, Ca, Na
67
normal magnesium levels
1.5 to 2.5
68
normal potassium levels
3 to 5
69
4 things that affect CO
stroke volume
heart rate
contractability
pre-load
70
the amount of blood that will go into the heart to be pumped out
pre-load
71
S1 is the closure of the __ valves
AV
72
2 AV valves
mitral and tricuspid
73
S2 is the sound of the ____ valves closing
semilunar
74
2 semilunar valves
aortic and pulmonic
75
heart sound heard when blood passively flows into the ventricle
S3
76
sound heard when blood is ejected into the ventricle from atrial contraction
S4
77
S1 is heard at the _____ of the heart
apex
78
S1 signals the beginning of ______
systole
79
S1 corresponds to the _____ pulse
carotid
80
S2 is heard at the _____ of the heart
base
81
S2 signals the beginning of ______
diastole
82
S3 and S4 can be best heard with the ____ of the stethoscope
bell
83
S3 and S4 are heard best at the ____ of the heart
apex
84
S3 is a lower pitch than ____
S2
85
appearance of S3 could indicate ____ _____ ______
coronary heart failure
86
S3 is heard right after ____
S2
87
S4 is heard right before ___
S1
88
S4 is caused by the ____ ____ being stiff with scar tissue
left ventricle
89
S$ could indicate _____ ____ _____
coronary artery disease
90
______ are caused by blood flowing through a stenotic (narrow) valve
murmurs
91
_____ are caused by backward blood flow through a regurgitant valve
murmurs
92
______ are caused by abnormal opening of chambers
murmurs
93
what a murmur sounds like
harsh swishing or blowing sound
94
2 mumurs classification
systolic
diastolic
95
a _____ murmur separates S1 from S2
systolic
96
a ______ murmur is after S2 or before S1
diastolic
97
pericardial friction rud is best heard with the _____ of the stethoscope
diapraghm
98
a murmur grade is 1 to __
6
99
grade __ to __ murmurs are very loud and large
4 to 6
100
only __% of the population has a palpable apical pulse
50
101
valvular heart disease is acquired or congentinal disorder of heart valve characterized by _____ or _____ valve
stenotic or incompetent
102
narrowing valve that does not open completely
stenotic
103
valve that does not close completely
incompetent
104
2 main causes of valvular heart disease
rheumatic fever
endocarditis (infection of endocardium)
105
a _____ is caused by plaque in the peripheral arteries causing a swishing sound
bruit
106
coronary artery disease is usually caused by ________
atherosclerosis
107
angina can occur at rest due to ______ of the coronary arteries
spasms
108
______ ____ occurs when myocardial ischemia goes on for so long it causes necrosis
myocardial infarction
109
2 things that diagnose myocardial infarction
heart catheter
stress test
110
_____ ____ occurs when either ventricle fails tp pump blood efficiently into the aorta to pulmonary artery
heart fialure
111
heart failure is more common in the ____ ventricle
left
112
left-sided heart failure affects the ____
lungs
113
right sided heart failure effects the _____
body
114
BNP lab diagnoses ______ ____ ____
coronary heart failue
115
lab that shows how much blood volume is backed up in the heart
BNP
116
normal BNP levels
80-100
117
an _______ allows you to see the fluid in the heart and help diagnose CHF
enchocardiogram
118
hypertension must be recorded ____ over ____ on 3 or more times on two different occasions
140/90
119
an ______ shows what the heart is doing right then and an _______ is a continuous reading
EKG, telemetry
120
and EKG is ___ leads and a telemetry is __ leads
10, 5
121
a heart catheter is put through the ______ artery
femoral
122
and angioplasty smashes the clot with a ______
balloon
123
high systolic blood pressure puts you at risk for ____
stroke
124
high diastolic blood pressure puts you at risk for _____
syncope
125
S3 can be normal in _____
athletes
126
_____ is an auscultated murmur outside of the heart
bruit
127
______ is palpable blood flow outside the heart
thrill
128
MONA acronym for emergency treatment for MI
morphine
oxygen
nitroglycerine
aspirin
129
forceful heart contractions you can see from the outside
lifts and heaves
130
4 positions the pt. will be in to listen to heart sounds
sitting up
leaning forward
lying on back
lying of left side
131
elevation pallor is seen in people with _______ insufficiency
venous
132
when the pt. lifts their extremities and they turn a very pale color
elevation pallor
133
dependent rubor is seen in pts. with _______ insufficiencies
arterial
134
when the pt. dangles their extremities and they turn a dark purple or red color
dependent rubor
135
2 major risk factors for venous insufficiency
pregnancy
obesity
136
4 major risk factors for arterial insufficiency
high BP
smoking
diabetes
high cholesterol
137
_________ occurs when their is a problem with the valves that causes lymph to build up in one area
lymphedema
138
any condition that affects the arteries or the veins
venous disease
139
2 ways vascular disease affects blood flow
blocks or weakens vessels
damaging valves
140
oral contraceptives slightly increase your risk of getting a ______
clot
141
_______ disease is when your arteries supplying blood to the skin are smaller and narrower than normal and the affected areas are pallor and cold
Raynaud's
142
test done to test perfusion to the hand by pressing down on the radial and ulnar artery and releasing to see if the hand pinks up again
Allen's test
143
_______ _____ ______ is when there is something (usually a blood clot) blocking blood flow to the tissues
acute arterial occlusion
144
3 P's to look for in arterial occlusion
Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
145
an _______ is a procedure to remove a blood clot or embolus
embolectomy
146
______ _____ checks for DVT and you have the patient slightly bend their knee, dorsiflex their foot, and ask if they have pain
Homan's sign
147
2 lymph nodes to check for vascular examination
epitrochlar
inguinal
148
localized blood filled balloon like bulge in the wall of an artery caused by a weakened vessel wall
aneurysm
149
most common type of aneurysm
abdominal aortic aneurysm
150
inflammation of veins that may or may not be caused by a clot
thrombophlebitis
151
thrombophlebitis is usually caused by ______ of the vein
infection
152
5 chronic diseases to ask about in a musculoskeletal assessment
osteoporosis
diabetes
sickle cell anemia
lupus
osteoarthritis
153
____ is related to high consumption of alcohol
gout
154
5 things to assess when assessing gait
weight bearing stability
posture
stride
foot position
arm movement
155
normal muscle tone
smooth and firm in relaxation
156
abnormal muscle tone
hypotonicity and spasticity
157
normal muscle strength
complete voluntary ROM against gravity and resistance
158
grade __ of muscle strength where there is no contraction or muscle movement
0
159
grade __ of muscle strength where there is trace of contraction, but no movement at the joint
1
160
grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is movement at the joint with gravity eliminated
2
161
grade __ of muscle strength is when there is movement against gravity, not not against added resistance
3
162
grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is movement against external resistance with less strength than usual
4
163
grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is normal strength
5
164
normal TMJ ROM is few clicks, opens ___ to __ cm with ease, and moves ___ to ___ cm laterally
3 to 6
1 to 2
165
when assessing TMJ, assess the muscle strength of the _____ muscles
masseter
166
it is normal when the lumbar concavity _____
flattens
167
lateral curvature of the spine indicates _____
scoliosis
168
the _____ ____ _____ test tests for herniated discs
straight leg raising
169
in the straight leg raising test, you have one hand on their ___ and the other on their ____ and ask them to _____ their foot
heel
calf
dorsiflex
170
measure from ____ ____ _____ _____ to ____ ____ to measure leg length
anterior superior iliac spine to medial malleolus
171
proximal and distal interphalangeal flexion
bending fingers down
172
______ _____ is a chronic, autoimmune inflammatory disease of the connective tissue
rheumatoid arthritis
173
in rheumatoid arthritis the ______ lining is inflamed and there are ____
synovial
spurs
174
in RA, the joint involvement is ______
bilateral
175
3 things you may see as RA becomes chronic
ulnar deviation
swan neck deformity
boutonniere deformity
176
osteoarthritis is a degenerative change in ______ cartilage
articular
177
_________ effects weight bearing joints
osteoarthritis
178
type of arthritis that may be unilateral or bilateral
osteoarthritis
179
______ and _____ nodes are seen in osteoarthrtits
Heberden's and Bouchard's
180
______ _____ syndrome includes burning, numbness, and tingling in the hands
carpal tunnel
181
2 tests used to assess carpel tunnel syndrome
Tinel's sign and Phalen's sign
182
test where you tap on median nerve to see if pt. has any burning, numbness, or tingling
Tinel's sign
183
test where pt. flexes elbows and presses the back of their hands together to see if they have numbness in their palms
Phalen's sign
184
_____ test is used to detect small amount of fluid in the knee
bulge test
185
in bulge test you stroke ___ knee upward a few times and then press on _____ knee to see if there is a bulge on the medial side
medial
lateral
186
______ test helps to detect large amounts of fluids in the knee
Ballottement
187
in ballottement test you squeeze the ____ and press it towards the femur to assess for clicking or fluid wave
patella
188
_______ test is a test for torn meniscus
McMurray's
189
______ ____ arthritis is seen when the toe is tender, hot, painful, and red
acute gouty
190
lateral deviation of great toe overlapping the 2nd toe
hallux valgus
191
inflamed bursa on the medial side of the great toe
bunion
192
_______ is a loss of bone density
osteoporosis
193
pt. with osteoporosis may develop ______ in the thoracic spine
kyphosis
194
skin is intact is a _____ fracture, but no intact in a _____ fracture
closed, open
195
______ fracture results from bone weakness
pathologic
196
ROM that decreases angle of the joint
flexion
197
lordosis is seen mostly in _____ women
pregnant
