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ANSI 3414 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functions of the nervous system?

A

Communication and control of all body activities

Monitor of internal and external environment

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2
Q

What are the 3 componenets of the nervous system?

A

Brain

Spinal cord

Nerves

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3
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the nervous system? What is a minor third section?

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Enteric nervous system (ENS)

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4
Q

What composes the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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5
Q

What composes the PNS? What is it’s function?

A

All nerves of the body

Carries information between CNS and other parts of the body

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6
Q

What is the ENS in charge of? What is the ENS controlled by?

A

Digestive activities

Controlled by autonomic nervous system

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7
Q

What are the two divisions of the PNS? What direction does the nervous signal go for each?

A

Afferent - sensors to CNS

Efferent - CNS to effector organs (muscles, glands, other organs)

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8
Q

What are the 3 nervous systems that fall under the efferent classification? What environments do they interact with?

A

Somatic - outside world

Autonomic - internal
Includes enteric - digestive

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9
Q

What do the somatic nervous system signal to?

A

Fibers of motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles

Voluntary organs

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10
Q

What do the autonomic nervous system signal to?

A

Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, other motor organs

Involuntary organs

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11
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system? What “catch phrase” summarizes their function?

A

Sympathetic - fight or flight (stimulation)

Parasympathetic - feed and breed (relaxation)

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12
Q

What are the primary cells that encompass nervous tissue?

A

Neurons - make up brain, spinal cord, and nerves

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13
Q

What are some characteristics of neurons?

A

High maintenance:
High requirement for O2
Cannot reproduce
Need support cells called glial cells

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14
Q

What are the 3 structures in a neuron?

A

Central cell body

Dendrites

Axon

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15
Q

Describe the central cell body of a neuron -

A

resembles the typical cell

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16
Q

Describe dendrites in a neuron -

A

process and increase surface area

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17
Q

Describe the axon in a neuron -

A

outgoing information

<1 micrometer to >1 meter in length

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18
Q

What are the neuron cell types in the CNS called? Where are they found?

A

Interneurons

In the CNS between afferent and efferent neurons

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19
Q

What are some things interneurons are responsible for?

A

planning, memory, creativity, intellect, motivation, and other complex actions

more interneurons = more complex action

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20
Q

What are the neuron cell types in the PS called? Where are they found?

A

Afferent neuron - cell body in PNS and axon terminals in CNS

Efferent neuron - cell body in CNS with axon terminals in PNS

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21
Q

What are the support cells for neurons called? How many per neuron?

A

glial cells

10 glial cells per 1 neuron

connective tissue of the CNS

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22
Q

What are the 6 types of glial cells in the CNS?

A

astrocytes

oligodendrocytes

ependymal

microglia

schwan cells

satellite cells

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23
Q

Describe astrocytes

A

glial cell

star shaped

most abundant

“glue” of the CNS - BBB, brain injury repair, nutrient transport from blood to neurons

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24
Q

Describe oligodendrocytes

A

glial cell

insulator

form myelin sheath
multilayered
white
phospholipid
segmented covering

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25
Q

Describe ependymal cells

A

glial cells

neural stem cells

line ventricles of brain and help form/move cerebrospinal fluid

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26
Q

Describe microglia

A

glial cell

immune cell derived from type of white blood cell

stationary until infection/injury

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27
Q

Describe schwan cells

A

glial cell

form myelin sheath
multilayered
white
phospholipid
segmented

Nodes of Ranvier

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28
Q

Describe stellite cells

A

glial cell

“glue” of the CNS - BBB, brain injury repair, nutrient transport from blood to neurons

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29
Q

What are nerves?

A

bundles of peripheral neuronal axons

afferent and efferent neurons encased in connective tissue

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30
Q

How do afferent nerves work?

A

incoming signals –> enter through dorsal root of nerve

sensory nerves

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31
Q

How do efferent nerves work?

A

outgoing signals –> leave through the ventral root

motor nerves

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32
Q

What are the 3 parts of the vertebrate brain? What are the other terminology for each term and parts of them?

A

hindbrain - brainstem
medulla, pons, midbrain

midbrain - cerebellum

forebrain
hypothalamus, thalamus, basal nuclei, cerebral cortex

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33
Q

Describe the brainstem

A

the smallest region of the CNS

continuous to the spinal cord

midbrain, pond, and medulla

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34
Q

What are the functions of the brainstem?

A

sensation inputs and motor outputs via 12 pairs of cranial nerves

reflex control of the heart, blood vessels, respiration, and digestion via the pons and medulla

modulating sense of pain

regulation of muscle reflexes related to the equilibrium and posture

reticular activating system
controls the degree of cortical alertness

some sleep function

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35
Q

Describe the cerebellum

A

Rear portion of the brain

more individual neurons than rest of brain

made of 3 distinct parts
vestibulocerebellum
cerebrocerebellum
spinocerebellum

very convulated (wrinkly) - more neurons

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36
Q

What are the three parts of the cerebellum?

A

vestibulocerebellum

cerebrocerebellum

spinocerebellum

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37
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocerebellum?

A

balance and eye movement

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38
Q

What is the function of the cerebrocerebellum?

A

planning nonreflex muscle activity

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39
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellum?

A

enhances muscle tone and coordinates skilled, nonreflex movements

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40
Q

What are the two major subdivisions of the forebrain?

A

diencephalon (inner)

cerebrum (outer)

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41
Q

What are the two sections of the diencephalon?

A

hypothalamus

thalamus

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42
Q

Describe the thalamus

A

relay station for preliminary processing of sensory input

direct attention to stimuli of interest

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43
Q

Describe the hypothalamus

A

homeostatic and endocrine functions

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44
Q

What are the two sections of the cerebrum?

A

basal nuclei (inner layer)

cerebral cortex (outer layer)

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45
Q

Describe the cerebrum

A

largest part of brain

more convoluted (grooves)

left and right side connected by corpus callosum

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46
Q

What is the corpus callosum

A

connective tissue between the left and right sides of the cerebrum

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47
Q

Describe the basal nuclei/ganglia

A

inhibition of muscle tone

coordination of slow, sustained movement

suppression of useless patterns of movement

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48
Q

Describe the cerebral cortex

A

has left and right half seperated by corpus callosum

contains white and gray matter

4 pairs of functional lobes

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49
Q

Describe grey matter of the cerebral cortex

A

neural cell bosies, dendrites, and glial cells

computer of the brain

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50
Q

Describe white matter of the cerebral cortex

A

bundles/tracts of myelinated axons

contains myelin (white due to lipids)

wires of the brain

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51
Q

What are the lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

Occipital

Temporal

Paritel

Frontal

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52
Q

What does the occipital lobe do? Where is it located?

A

initial perception and visual input

back of head

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53
Q

What does the temporal lobe do? Where is it located?

A

auditory sensation

sides of the head

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54
Q

What does the parietal lobe do? WHere is it located?

A

receiving and processing body sensory input

behind the central sulcus
top of head

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55
Q

What does the frontal lobe do? Where is it located?

A

nonreflex motor activity, vocal ability, long-term memory, higher mental functions

in front of central sulcus
front of head

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56
Q

What nervous system does the spinal cord belong to?

A

CNS

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57
Q

What is the vertebrate spinal cord?

A

long, slender cylinder of nerve tissue

18 inches long, thumb wide

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58
Q

How far does the vertebrate spinal cord extend?

A

to the 1st or 2nd lumbar vertebrate

ascends and descends signals

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59
Q

How do you identify spinal nerves?

A

number determined by species and length of body

named by region of vertebral column

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60
Q

How many cervical spinal nerve pairs? Thoracic? Lumbar? Sacral? Coccygeal?

A

8
12
5
5
1

spinal cord ends at beginning of lumbar with sacral and coccygeal being extension of nerves

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61
Q

What are the 4 major features for protection of the CNS?

A

skull
meninges
cerebrospinal fluid
blood-brain barrier

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62
Q

What encompasses the meninges?

A

dura mater (outer)
arachnoid mater (middle)
pia mater (inner)

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63
Q

What encompasses cerebrospinal fluid?

A

clear fluid
shock absorber
carries nutrients
removes waste

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64
Q

What encompasses the blood-brain barrier?

A

capillary bed
transporeters

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65
Q

What are the layers of protection of the CNS starting from outermost to innermost?

A

skin
aponeurosis
periosteum
bone
dura mater
arachnoid mater

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66
Q

Nerve impulses help maintain what?

A

homeostasis

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67
Q

What is the number of the resting membrane potential for nerves? What ions are used and what is their concentration?

A

-70 mV

K+ high intracellular
Na+ higher extracellular

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68
Q

What is active transport?

A

Na+ per 2 K+

Na+ is actively transported outside the cell

K+ is actively transported into the neuron

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69
Q

What is action potential?

A

sequence of rapidly occurring events that depolarize the membrane potential, then repolarize back to resting membrane potential

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70
Q

What are the two components of action potential?

A

excitability - ability of nerve impulses to respond to stimuli and convert it to nerve impulses

stimulus - change in environment initiates an impulse. examples are electrical, physical, chemical, mechanical, and temperature

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71
Q

What does the phrase All or None apply to?

A

action potential

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72
Q

Describe depolarization of the membrane of a neuron

A

stimuli opens Na+ channels, Na+ enters the cell

inside of cell becomes positively charged

membrane p[potential becomes +30mV

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73
Q

Describe repolarization of the membrane of a neuron

A

inflow of Na+ slows, causing Na+ channels to close and K+ channels to open

K+ leaves cell and establishes the resting membrane potential of -70 mV

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74
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

membrane potential becomes lower than -70mV after repolarization

75
Q

What are the two types of action potential conduction?

A

continous

saltatory

76
Q

What is continuous conduction of action potential?

A

step-by-step depolarization

unmyelinated fibers

continous transmission of nerve impulse

77
Q

What is saltatory conduction of action potentials?

A

conduction pulse jumps between Nodes of Ranvier

myelinated fibers

requires less energy –> less membrane depolariazation

78
Q

Define electrical synapse/gap junction. Where does it occur? What are some advantages?

A

ion current directly from one cell to another

visceral smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
developing embryos

faster than chemical synapse
synchronized nerve/muscle activity

79
Q

Define chemical synapse. What are some characteristics?

A

extracellular fluid is in synaptic cleft, preventing pulses from continuously transmitting
neurotransmitters help transport nerve pulses

Ca2+
lower than electrical synoapses
susceptible to lack of oxygen (fatigue)
drugs can inhibit impulse

80
Q

What type of cellular component are axons missing?

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

81
Q

Describe axonal transport

A

slow axonal transport
-cytoplasmic flow

fast axonal transport
-motor proteins cause movement

82
Q

What is the neurotransmitter involved in the PNS? Is it excitatory or inhibitory?

A

acetylcholine

excitatory or inhibitory

83
Q

What are the neurotransmitters involved in the CNS? Are they excitatory or inhibitory?

A

acetylcholine - excitatory or inhibitory
glutamate/asparate - excitatory
GABA/glycine - inhibitory
norepinephrine/epinephrine/dopamine - excitatory or inhibitory
nitric oxide/carbon monoxide - not indicated

84
Q

What are the neuropeptides in the CNS and PNS? Are they excitatory or inhibitory?

A

hormone - oxytocin, melatonin, etc

excitatory or inhibitory

85
Q

What are the different types of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal

cardiac

smooth

86
Q

What muscle types are striated? Unstriated?

A

skeletal and cardiac

smooth

87
Q

What muscle tissues are voluntary? Involuntary?

A

skeletal

cardiac + smooth

88
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

causes movement of the skeleton

voluntary striated muscle

multinucleated

89
Q

How much of total body weight is skeletal muscle?

A

40%

90
Q

What are the muscle terminology for muscle cell? Cell membrane? Cytoplasm? Modified endoplasmic reticulum?

A

muscle fiber

sarcolemma

sarcoplasm

sarcoplasmic reticulum

91
Q

What is the purpose of connective tissue in muscles?

A

houses the group of muscle fibers into muscle fasicles

92
Q

What are muscle fascicles?

A

groups of adjacent muscle fibers bundled together

93
Q

What are the 4 main components of the skeletal muscle?

A

connective tissue

muscle fasicles

blood vessels

nerves

94
Q

What are muscle fibers?

A

large, elongated, cylindrical cells that run parallel and the entire length of the muscle

95
Q

What are the sarcolemma/t-tubules?

A

continuation of muscle fiber membrane

96
Q

Muscle fibers contain what?

A

sarcolemma

sarcoplasm
-MYOFIBRILS

multiple nuclei

97
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

modified ER with longitudinal tubules

98
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

specialized contractile units

99
Q

What encompasses the sarcoplasm of the muscles?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

myofribrils

mitochondria

glycogen granules

100
Q

What are myofribrils composed of?

A

troponin

actin

tropomyosin

myosin

titin

nebulin

101
Q

What are the layers of muscle connective tissue? What do they surround?

A

epimysium - muscle

perimysium - muscle bundle

endomysium - muscle fibers

102
Q

What is myosin?

A

thick filament

protein chains that intertwine with tadpole heads
-stiff tail and hinge region

creates movement

head is actin binding site

myosin ATPase binding site

103
Q

What is the myosin ATPase binding site?

A

motor domain

binds ATP

considered an enzyme

104
Q

Describe actin

A

thin filament
-g actin (globular)
-f actin (filament)

f actin is made of a chain of g actin

105
Q

Define tropomyosin

A

thin filament

protein that lie on the edge of the actin spiral

blocks actin-binding site to block muscle contraction

106
Q

Describe troponin

A

thin filament

3 binding units
-tropomyosin binding TnT
-actin bindingTnI
-calcium bindingTnC

107
Q

Describe titin

A

huge elastic molecule

stabilizes position of contractile filaments

elasticity returns stretched muscle to resting length

108
Q

Describe nebulin

A

huge inelastic molecule

aligns actin filamnent

attaches to Z disk

109
Q

Define sarcomere

A

contractile unit of myofibril

110
Q

What are the 5 elements of the sarcomere?

A

z line
I band
A band
H zone
M line

111
Q

Describe Z line of sarcomere

A

zigzag proteins structure

attachment site for THIN filaments

2 per sarcomere (one on each end)

112
Q

Describe I band of the sarcomere

A

lightest colored band

only thin filament space

Z line runs between I bands

113
Q

Describe A band of the sarcomere

A

darkest colored band

entire length of thick filament

overlaps with thin filament at edges

114
Q

Describe H zone of the sarcomere

A

central region of A band

thick filament only

115
Q

Describe M line of the sarcomere

A

protein structure that is attachment site for THICK filaments

divides A band in half

116
Q

Define contraction

A

creation of force to move or resist a load

active process requiring ATP

117
Q

escribe the sliding filament theory of contraction

A

thin filament move inward

z lines move closer together

sarcomere shortens

118
Q

Define neuromuscular junction

A

chemical synapse formed by a motor neuron terminal and a muscle fiber

release ACh to stimulate contraction

release AChE to stop contraction

119
Q

What is the path from interpreting pain to stopping pain (feel heat and pul away from heat) inmuscular contration?

A

Sensation of environment

actional potential created in afferent neuron

depolarization of afferent neuron

hyperpolarization of afferent

repolarization of afferent neuron

action potential to neuron

action potential to efferent neuron

depolarization of efferent neuron

hyperpolarization of efferent neuron

repolarization of efferent neuron

action potential causes Ca2+ channels to open

exocytosis of ACh via chemical synapse

action potential to muscle cell

impulse through sarcolemma/t-tubules

terminal cisternaw release Ca2+

Ca2+ binds to troponin

troponin binds to tropomyosin and moves

ATP binds myosin

myosin binds actin and forms crossbridge

power stroke pushes actin towards sarcomere

movement of skeletal muscle

120
Q

Describe power stroke

A

in presence of Ca2+-troponin binding, myosin cross bridge swivels and pushes actin filaments towards center of sarcomere

121
Q

Describe smooth muscle. What are some characteristics?

A

encloses and controls movement of contents via hollow tubes

spindle shaped
no striations
single nucleus
smooth involuntary

122
Q

What filaments are in smooth muscle?

A

myosin and actin

123
Q

Describe the cardiac muscle. What are some characteristics?

A

responsible for pumping blood out of heart

found only in the heart

shape-branching network of cells
striated
single nuclei
involuntary

124
Q

What are the necessary functions of cells to be able to regulate body functions?

A

grow
reproduce
metabolize nutrients
process information

125
Q

What are other components besides cells that can help regulate the body?

A

biochemical reactions caused by nervous/endocrine systems
-chemical messengers

126
Q

Describe hormones

A

chemical messenger produced by a specific gland

secreted into the blood or other fluid spaces

acts on distant tissues or cells

127
Q

What do hormone receptors allow?

A

tissue specificity

128
Q

Where are hormone receptors located?

A

cell membrane
-protein hormones

nuclear
-steroid and thyroid hormones

cyctolic
-possible steroid and protein

129
Q

What are some characteristics of hormones?

A

modify an exisiting process

act as a stimulus

not be secreted at a constant rate

secreted independently

be present in very small amounts

130
Q

What are the 3 types of hormones? How are they categorized?

A

peptide
amine
steroid

biochemical structure

131
Q

Define peptide hormones

A

specific amino acid chains

short chain - peptide
long chain - protein

132
Q

Define amine hormones

A

derived from amino acid tyrosine

secreted from thyroid and adrenal medulla

133
Q

Define steroid hormones

A

neutral lipids derived from cholesterol

134
Q

What hormones require secondary messenger systems?

A

peptide and amine

needed as first messenger is hydrophilic and cannot pass through phospholipid bilayer

135
Q

What hormone requires mode of action?

A

steroid

enters cell by diffusion

136
Q

Describe negative feedback and gvive an example

A

one hormone inhibits release of another

increased insulin decreases blood glucose

137
Q

Describe positive feedback and give and example

A

one hormone stimulates release of another

increased estrogen stimulates release of GnRH, LH, FSH

138
Q

What organs only function in the endocrine system?

A

pituitary gland
parathyroid gland
thyroid gland
adrenal gland

139
Q

What organs have a mixed funcion in the endocrine system?

A

hypothalamus
thymus
heart
stomach
pancreas
duodenum
kidney
skin
ovaries
placenta
testes

140
Q

What organ has an uncertain function in the endocrine system?

A

pineal gland

141
Q

Describe the pineal gland. What hormone does it produce?

A

tiny, pinecone shaped in the center of the brain

melatonin

142
Q

Describe melatonin

A

indoleamine (AMINE) hormone that affects mood and sleep-wake cycle

synthesized from seratonin

hormone of darkness

143
Q

Describe the circadian rhythm

A

24 hour cycle in the physiological processes of living beings

can be manipulated

duration of melatonin each day is directly proportional to length of night

144
Q

What time of day does melatonin peak? At what age does melatonin opeak?

A

middle of the night

early childhood

145
Q

Describe seasonal estrus

A

melatonin is an anti-gonadotrophic hormone

inhibits LH and FSH

146
Q

hat is an example of a long-day breeder? Short-day breeder?

A

horse and groundhog

sheep and deer

147
Q

Describe the hyypothalamus

A

regulate pituitary

secretes peptide hormones

148
Q

What hormones are released by the hypothalamus and directed to the pituitary?

A

thyrotropin-releasing hormone TRH
corticotropin-releasing homrone CRH
gonadotropin-releasing hormone GnRH
growth hormone-releasing homrone GHRH
growth hormone-inhibiting hormone GHIH
prolactin-releasing hormone PRH
prolactin-inhibiting hormone PIH

149
Q

Describe what the thyrotropin-releasing hormone does

A

paraventricular nucleus

thyroid stimulating hormone becomes released from the anterior pituitary

150
Q

Describe what the prolactin-releasing hormone does

A

paraventricular nucleus

stimulates prolactin release from anterior pituitary

151
Q

Describe what the prolactin-inhibiting hormone does

A

dopamine
arcuate nucleus

inhibits release of prolactin from anterior pituitary

152
Q

Describe what the corticotrophin-releasing
hormone does

A

paraventricular nucleus

adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) release from anterior pituitary

153
Q

Describe what the gonadotropin-releasing hormone does

A

preoptic area

FSH and LH from anterior pituitary

154
Q

Describe what the growth hormone-releasing hormone does

A

arcuate nucleus

stimulates growth hormone release from anterior pituitary

155
Q

Describe what the growth hormone-inhibiting hormone does

A

somatostatin
periventricular nucleus

inhibits growth hormone release from anterior pituitary

156
Q

What relationship does the hypothalamus have with the pituitary? Specific linkages for the anterior? Posterior?

A

regulates the pituitary through a direct connection

anterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus via portal blood system

posterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus via specialized nerves

157
Q

What is the pituitary gland?

A

double lobed gland located just below the hypothalamus

anterior creates and releases hormones

posterior stores and releases oxytocin and ADH

158
Q

Describe the anterior pituitary. What 6 peptide hormones does it synthesize, store, and release?

A

growth hormone (somatotropin)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
prolactin
gonadotropins

159
Q

What are gonadotropins?

A

follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone (FSH and LH)

160
Q

What type of tissue is the anterior pituitary?

A

glandular epithelial tissue (5 different cell populations)

161
Q

Describe thyroid stimulating hormones

A

secreted by thyrotropes

stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone and growth of thyroid

hypothyroidism occurs if absent

regulated by thyroid releasing hormone

162
Q

What is hypothyroidism

A

thyroid becomes atrophic

163
Q

Describe adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

ACTH

secreted by corticotropes

stimulates cortisol secretion by adrenal cortex and growth of adrenal cortex

absence leads to inability to respond to stressful situations

regulated by external stimuli

164
Q

Describe the sternum

A

breastbone

consists of sternebrae

165
Q

What is the first sternebrae called?

A

manubrium

166
Q

What is the last sternebrae called?

A

xiphoid

167
Q

Describe the ribs

A

protect the chest cavity

paired

sternal ribs, asternal ribs, and floating ribs

dorsal contains bone, ventral contains costal cartilage

168
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

thoracic and pelvic limbs

169
Q

What three bones are fused together to make the pelvic girdle?

A

ilium
ischium
pubis

170
Q

What are examples of hooks and pins?

A

ilium and ischium

171
Q

What are the parts of the visceral skeleton?

A

os cordis, os rostin, os penis

172
Q

What is the os cordis?

A

bone in heart of cattle and sheep

173
Q

What is the os rostri?

A

bone in snout of swine

174
Q

What are the 3 types of joints?

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

175
Q

What is an example of a fibrous joint?

A

the joints between the bones of the skull

176
Q

What is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

A

intervertebral disks between vertebrae

177
Q

What is an example of a synovial joint?

A

knees and elbows

178
Q

What are the 4 types of synovial joints?

A

hinge
gliding
pivot
ball and socket

179
Q

What are the different types of synovial joint movement and their definition?

A

flexion - decrease angle
extension - increase angle
adduction - move towards median
abduction - move away from median
rotation - twist along own axis
circumduction - distal end moves in circle

180
Q

Describe hinge joint. Give an example

A

move on one plane
only capable of flexion and extension

elbow joint

181
Q

Describe gliding joint. Give an examplke

A

slight rocking movement
flexion and extension capable

carpal joint

182
Q

Describe pivot joint. Give an example

A

rotary movement only

neck; only pivot joint

183
Q

Describe ball and socket joint. Give an example

A

extensive movement
capable of all synovial joint movements

hip joint

ANSI 3414 (2 decks)

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