Exam 2 Flashcards

(275 cards)

1
Q

Afferent nerves travel from the (CNS/periphery) to (CNS/periphery)

A

periphery –> CNS

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2
Q

Efferent nerves travel from the (CNS/periphery) to (CNS/periphery)

A

CNS –> periphery (target organ)

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3
Q

What are the 2 efferent pathways?

A

somatic nervous system
autonomic nervous system

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4
Q

How many neurons are in the somatic nervous system between the CNS and skeletal muscle?

A

1 neuron

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5
Q

_______ is the neurotransmitter and ______ is its receptor in the Somatic Nervous System.

A

Acetylcholine
N1 receptor

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6
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System has how many neurons?

A

2 neurons
connected by synapse (CNS–>organ)

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7
Q

What are the two neurons of the Autonomic Nervous System

A

preganglionic
postganglionic

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8
Q

What are the 2 splits of the ANS?

A

parasympathetic
sympathetic

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9
Q

What do lower motor neurons (LMNs) innervate?

A

skeletal muscle

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10
Q

Where are the cell bodies of LMNs located? (2 possibilities)

A

spinal cord OR
cranial nerve nuclei in brain

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11
Q

Where are the axons of LMNs located? (2 possibilities)

A

ventral roots OR
cranial nerves

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12
Q

What are the 4 lesions signs of LMNs?

A
  1. Paresis/Paralysis
  2. Decreased/absent muscle tone
  3. Decreased/absent spinal reflexes
  4. Skeletal muscle atrophy
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13
Q

(T/F) Upper Motor Neurons directly innervate skeletal muscle.

A

False

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14
Q

What is the function of UMNs?

A

“higher brain center” to modulate LMN activity

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15
Q

What are signs of loss of facilitatory UMN (lesion)?

A

paresis/paralysis

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16
Q

What are signs of loss of an inhibitory UMN (lesion)? (3)

A

increased muscle tone
increased reflexes
mild muscle atrophy (disuse)

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17
Q

What is the definition of a reflex?

A

response to stimulus w/o conscious thought

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18
Q

What are the 5 components of a Reflex Arc?

A
  1. Sensor
  2. Afferent nerve
  3. Integrator
  4. Efferent nerve
  5. Effector organ/tissue
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19
Q

Muscle where contraction decreases angle of the joint

A

Flexor muscle

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20
Q

Muscle where contraction increases the angle of a joint

A

Extensor muscle

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21
Q

What is the term for a muscle that produces a similar action?

A

agonist (synergist)

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22
Q

What is the term for a muscle that produces an opposite action?

A

antagonist muscle

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23
Q

Reciprocal Innervation

A

responsible for opposite effects on agonist/antagonist muscles
Ex: extensor relaxes as flexor contracts

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24
Q

Homonymous Muscle

A

muscle that contains sensory receptors which initiates a reflex response

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25
What are the two types of LMNs?
alpha motor neurons gamma motor neurons
26
What do alpha motor neurons innervate?
extrafusal muscle fibers
27
What do gamma motor neurons innervate?
intrafusal muscle fibers (muscle spindle)
28
(T/F) Gamma motor neurons are tonically active.
True
29
Why are gamma motor neurons tonically active?
maintain tone/sensitivity in extrafusal muscle = greater "gain" and discharge on extrafusal fibers
30
What is the function of the Myotatic Reflex?
maintain muscle contraction to maintain posture muscle contracts when stimulated to "maintain load"
31
Explain the Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex
stimulation/tension in the tendon causes a reflex relaxation of a muscle if load is too heavy (drop load)
32
What is the function of the Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex?
protective | spreads out load
33
Explain process of Flexion-Crossed Extension Reflex
if you step on noxious stimuli: -flex limb that stepped (inhibit extensor via inhibitory interneuron) -extend opposite limb (inhibit flexor via inhibitory interneuron)
34
Explain process of Corneal Reflex
Nociceptors on cornea Opthalmic nerve Synapses in brain stem CN VII (facial) induces blink Skeletal muscle closes eyelid
35
What are Renshaw cells?
inhibitory interneurons in spinal cord to mediate negative feedback and connect to alpha motor neurons
36
Function of Renshaw cells (3)
1. regulate motor neuron excitability 2. stabilize alpha motor neuron firing rates 3. limit duration of motor activity
37
What 2 things are Renshaw cells excited by?
-Collateral projections from motor neurons -Descending pathways from UMNs
38
Function of ANS
control of visceral function
39
Homeostasis
maintain constant internal environment
40
Rheostasis
controlled level of parameter that varies with need
41
What two cells are in the efferent path of the ANS?
preganglionic cells postganglionic cells
42
What modifies ANS outflow?
interoreceptors (chemoreceptors + baroreceptors)
43
Where is sympathetic nervous system located?
thoracolumbar
44
Where are the preganglionic cell bodies in the SNS located?
IML (intermediolateral nucleus)
45
Where do the preganglionic neurons of SNS exit?
exit ventral roots
46
Where are the SNS postganglionic cell bodies located?
chain or prevertebral ganglia
47
Where are the SNS postganglionic fibers located?
innervate target organs
48
Effects of SNS: eye | heart | vessels | GI | salivary | sweat glands | metabolism
dilate pupils increase HR | increase force contraction constrict vessels decrease GI motility/secretion decrease salivary secretion increase sweat secretion increase BG, O2 consumption, energy utilization
49
What is the main way to stop norepinephrine activity?
reuptake
50
What neurotransmitter is in most postganglionic sympathetic nerves?
Norepinephrine
51
What two NTs make up the catecholamines?
epinephrine & norepinephrine
52
What produces catecholamines (E/NE)?
chromaffin cells
53
What are catecholamines (NE/E) secreted by?
adrenal gland
54
When catecholamines (E/NE) are secreted into the blood stream, which receptors are activated?
alpha + beta adrenergic receptors
55
What are catecholamine receptors called?
GPCR (g-protein coupled receptors)
56
A-adrenergic receptors bind NE + E, but have greater affinity for (NE/E).
norepinephrine
57
Where are A-adrenergic receptors located?
smooth muscles
58
A1 adrenergic receptors (location + function)
location: blood vessels cause vasoconstriction
59
What is the agonist for A1 adrenergic receptors?
phenylephrine
60
What are the 2 antagonists for A1 adrenergic receptors?
phentolamine phenoxybenzamine
61
A2 adrenergic receptors
Location: presynaptic terminals dampen/control NT release
62
B-adrenergic receptors bind to NE + E, but have greater affinity for (NE/E).
epinephrine
63
B1 adrenergic receptors
location: heart function: increase HR / contractility
64
B2 adrenergic receptors
Location: lungs/vasculature Function: bronchodilation/vasodilation
65
B3 adrenergic receptors
Location: fat cells Function: break down/glycolysis
66
What is the agonist for B1 adrenergic receptors?
doputamine
67
What is the antagonist for B1 adrenergic receptors?
atenolol
68
What is the non-selective agonist for B-adrenergic receptors?
isoproterenol
69
What is the non-selective antagonist for B-adrenergic receptors?
propranolol
70
Location of PSNS
craniosacral
71
Where are PSNS preganglionic cell bodies located?
cranial nerve nuclei or sacral spinal cord
72
Where do preganglionic axons exit in PSNS?
CNs (facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus) OR spinal cord via sacral + ventral roots
73
Where are the PSNS postganglionic cell bodies located?
terminal ganglia (close or within target)
74
PSNS has very (long/short) postganglionic fibers.
short
75
Effects of the PSNS: eye | heart | GI | salivary
eye: constrict pupil heart: decrease HR/force of contraction GI tract: increase motility/secretion Salivary glands: increase amount, decrease viscosity
76
What NT is part of the PSNS? SNS?
PSNS- acetylcholine SNS- catecholamines (NE/E)
77
What stops Acetylcholine from effecting?
Acetylcholinesterase (degrades/stops Ach)
78
What are the two receptor types for Acetylcholine?
Nicotinic receptor Muscarinic receptor
79
Nicotinic receptors
ligand-gated ion channel rapid-acting
80
N1 (nicotinic) receptor
Location: NMJ (somatic)
81
N2 (nicotinic) receptor
Location: ANS ganglia on postganglionic autonomic neurons (SNS + PSNS)
82
What is the antagonist for N1 receptor?
curare tubocurarine
83
What is the antagonist for N2 receptor?
hexamethonium
84
What is the agonist for nicotinic receptors?
nicotine
85
Muscarinic receptors are (faster/slower) acting than nicotinic receptors.
slower
86
GPCR are a type of (nicotinic/muscarinic) receptor
muscarinic
87
M1, M3, M5 (muscarinic) receptors
stimulatory affect gut/glands
88
M2 receptors (muscarinic)
inhibitory Location: heart Function: decreases HR
89
What are the two agonists for muscarinic receptors?
muscarine pilocarpine
90
What is the antagonist for muscarinic receptors?
atropine
91
What does SNS do to the pupil?
contracts radial muscles of iris = dilation of pupil
92
What does the PSNS do to the pupil?
contracts circular muscles of iris = constriction of pupil
93
Pupillary Light Reflex- sensory receptor
RGC (photosensitive retinal ganglion cell)
94
Pupillary Light Reflex- afferent nerve
CN III (oculomotor)
95
Pupillary Light Reflex- integration
multiple synapses in midbrain & crosses over
96
Pupillary Light Reflex- efferent neurons
ganglionic PSNS fibers synapse on ciliary ganglionic PSNS fibers
97
Pupillary Light Reflex- effect/target tissue
iris sphincter = pupillary constriction
98
(T/F) Both eyes constrict is one senses constriction b/c of the cross-over.
True
99
What is dysautonomia?
lack of PSNS drive
100
What is the cause of dysautonomia?
degeneration of neurons in autonomic ganglia (unknown cause)
101
How can you diagnose dysautonomia? (3)
Muscarinic agonist in eye --> hypersensitive pupil constriction Atropine challenge (blocks PSNS) --> up HR normal dog, no change if diseased Megaesophagus seen w/ barium rads
102
Treatment for Dysautonomia
feeding tube / feed while standing IV fluids artificial tears humidify air express bladder / drugs for bladder tone
103
Horse symptoms of Dysautonomia
difficulty swallowing "grass sickness"
104
Dog symptoms of Dysautonomia
V+, D+, dilated pupils, trouble urinating, decreased tear production
105
What is micturition?
action of urinating
106
What 3 systems are required for micturition?
PSNS, SNS, somatic nervous system
107
What is the function of the detrusor muscle? Is it somatic or ANS controlled?
responsible for emptying bladder controlled by ANS
108
What is internal urethral sphincter composed of? What is its function? What is it controlled by (ANS/somatic)?
composition: smooth muscle function: maintain continence (store urine) Controlled by ANS (SNS primary)
109
What is external urethral sphincter composition? Function? Control (ANS/somatic)?
Composition: striated muscle Function: voluntary control Controlled by somatic NS
110
What are the 3 sensory afferent nerves of the urinary tract?
Pelvic N Hypogastric N Pudendal N
111
Pelvic N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)
PSNS
112
Pelvic N innervates _____
Detrusor M
113
What NT is released for pelvic N function
acetylcholine
114
What does increased Pelvic N activity allow for?
emptying of bladder
115
Hypogastric N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)
SNS
116
Where are the ganglia for Pelvic N located?
bladder wall
117
Where are the ganglia for hypogastric N located?
caudal mesenteric ggl
118
What muscles does the hypogastric N innervate?
detrusor + internal sphincter
119
What two NT receptors are used by hypogastric N for bladder function?
alpha + beta adrenergic
120
What does A1 adrenergic receptor do (urinary function)?
constricts internal sphincter
121
What does B3 adrenergic receptor do (urinary)?
relax bladder
122
What does increased activity of the hypogastric N cause?
relaxation of detrusor M + internal sphincter for urine storage
123
Pudendal N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)
somatic
124
What muscle does the Pudendal N innervate?
external sphincter (urethralis M)
125
What NT is used by Pudendal N
acetylcholine
126
What occurs with increased activity to Pudendal N?
constrict external sphincter
127
What kind of nerve fibers tell the brain about bladder fullness?
A-gamma nerve fibers
128
What does the Pontine Storage Center do?
integrates our conscious control of sphincter (constricts external sphincter with filling)
129
(PSNS/SNS) tone dominates during storage of urine.
SNS
130
When urine is being stored, what occurs overall with 3 muscles
Detrusor M- relaxed Internal sphincter- constricted External sphincter- constricted
131
What reflex pathway is activated during voiding of urine?
spinobulbar reflex pathway
132
What does the pontine micturition center tell us?
awareness of how full the bladder is
133
During voiding of urine, (PSNS/SNS) is activated and (PSNS/SNS) is inhibited.
PSNS activated (detrusor M contracts) SNS inhibited (sphincters relax)
134
What two NTs + receptors control voiding of urine?
M3 muscarinic - acetylcholine (PSNS) B3 adrenergic - norepinephrine (SNS)
135
Lower Motor Neuron Bladde is injury to: (sacral spinal cord / above sacral spinal cord)
sacral spinal cord
136
Symptoms of Lower Motor Neuron Bladder Injury
-Reduced PSNS tone (flaccid, overdistension of bladder) -Reduced somatic tone (incontinence) -Unable to completely void urine
137
Upper Motor Neuron Bladder is injury to: (sacral spinal cord / above sacral spinal cord)
above sacral spinal cord
138
Symptoms of Upper Motor Neuron Bladder injury
-Normal PSNS tone (stiff, hard to express) -Sustained external sphincter constriction -Contract detrusor w/o relaxing sphincter
139
What is Detrusor-Sphincter Dyssynergia?
when the Detrusor M is contracted w/o relaxing the sphincter (UMN bladder injury)
140
Where is the Limbic System located?
borders hypothalamus
141
What are the functions of the Limbic System?
control emotion and behavior integrate emotion with visceral function (autonomic response)
142
What are the 3 parts of the Limbic System?
Hippocampus Amygdala Hypothalamus
143
What is the function of the Hippocampus?
learning & memory
144
What is the function of the Amygdala?
emotions
145
What are the 3 functions of the hypothalamus?
-maintain homeostasis -regulate visceral motor activity -neurosecretory (endocrine)
146
What are some Hypothalamus lesion signs?
Rage lethargy reduced cardio stress responses polydipsia abnormal appetite abnormal temp regulation
147
What are some lesion signs for the Limbic System overall?
behavioral changes docile / aggressiveness
148
UMN Lesion Signs
spastic paresis/paralysis increased tone intact reflexes disuse muscle atrophy
149
LMN Lesion Signs
flaccid paresis/paralysis decreased muscle tone decreased/absent reflexes severe muscle atrophy
150
What is "general" proprioception
called general if it is unclear/unknown if it is conscious or unconscious
151
What is the order of functional loss (1-4)
Proprioception --> Voluntary Motor --> Superficial Pain --> Deep Pain
152
What should you notice for gait observation of stance (posture)?
extensor activation, flexor inhibition
153
Which 2 tracts are responsible for stance (posture)?
vestibulospinal pontine reticulospinal
154
What is protraction (swing)?
flexor activation | extensor inhibition
155
What two tracts are responsible for protraction of gait?
rubrospinal medullary reticulospinal
156
What does stride length refer to?
inter-step distance
157
What is interlimb coordination?
spinal stepping circuits in spinal cord pelvic --> thoracic limb
158
What is cadence?
gait rhythm regular-irregular regular-irregular
159
What 3 things can you recognize in abnormal gait?
Lameness Ataxia Weakness
160
Definition of Lameness
short stride on affected limb, long stride on contralateral limb associated with pain
161
What kind of cadence of gait is present in lameness?
regular-irregular gait
162
Explain Ataxia
delayed protraction, longer stride, abduct/adduct limb shows problem with sensory info reaching CNS
163
What are two types of ataxia?
vestibular cerebellar
164
Vestibular Ataxia
loss of orientation of head/eyes/neck/trunk/limb loss of balance
165
Which way will the head tilt in vestibular ataxia? What other sign is associated?
toward lesion nystagmus
166
Cerebellar Ataxia
delayed protraction spasticity, intention tremors seen
167
Hypermetria
"goose-stepping" of excessive flexion with forceful return (caused by loss of cerebellum influence on descending UMN pathway)
168
Hypometria
under-reach or under-step dysfunction of cerebellum
169
Signs of LMN weakness
tire easily difficulty supporting weight wobbly gait
170
UMN weakness
general proprioceptive ataxia motor weakness stiffness/spasticity
171
Function of Basal Ganglia in Forebrain
modulate input from cerebral cortex, initiates movement
172
Forebrain (cortical) Lesion Signs
gait normal loss of contralateral interpretation ipsilateral circling (toward lesion) ignore opposite side of lesion / reaction deficits seizures (-/+) abnormal mentation
173
Hindbrain Lesion Signs
+/- abnormal mentation +/- vestibular signs deficits to ipsilateral CN 5-12 ipsilateral hemi/tetraparesis ipsilateral postural reaction deficits
174
Circling- which way do they circle?
toward lesion
175
Tight circles indicate (vestibular/forebrain) lesion, while wide circles indicate (vestibular/forebrain) lesion.
tight circle = vestibular wide circle = forebrain
176
Cerebellum Lesion Signs
mentation normal cerebellar ataxia intention tremor menace deficit, normal vision
177
What is abasia?
never learns to walk occurs if problem with cerebellum (muscle memory)
178
C1 to C5 lesion
UMN signs to thoracic + pelvic limbs
179
C6 to T2 lesion
LMN signs to thoracic limbs UMN signs to pelvic limbs
180
T3 to L3 lesion
UMN to pelvic limbs only
181
L4 to Ccy lesion
LMN to pelvic limb + tail
182
LMN weakness signs (3)
RAT reflexes (reduced/absent) atrophy (rapid/severe) tone (reduced/absent)
183
What is term for the functional classification for unique functions of CNs for smell/taste?
Special Visceral Afferent (SVA)
184
Which cranial nerves have parasympathetic preganglionic axons?
CN III, VII, IX, X
185
CN I where are neuron cell bodies located?
olfactory epithelium
186
What kind of neurons are in CN I?
Bipolar neurons
187
What is the functional classification of the bipolar neurons of CN I?
Special Visceral Afferent (SVA)
188
What are two types of CN I dysfunction?
anosmia dysosmia
189
Anosmia
loss of smell
190
Dysosmia
alteration/distortion of smell
191
Filum olfactoria
bundles of axons of bipolar neuron that make up CN I
192
What 3 CNs are motor to the eye?
CN III (oculomotor) CN IV (trochlear) CN VI (abducens)
193
Name the 4 types of muscles of the eye that CNs III/IV/VI are responsible for moving?
4 rectus muscles 2 oblique muscles retractor bulbi muscle levator palpebrae superioris
194
Where does CN III originate?
interpeduncular fossa
195
Pathway of CN III
interpeduncular fossa --> cavernous sinus --> orbital fissure --> orbit --> muscles
196
Which muscles of the eye does CN III innervate?
medial, dorsal, ventral rectus Mm ventral oblique M levator palpebrae superioris M
197
Name the two nuclei of CN III
Motor nucleus of oculomotor nerve Parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve
198
Name functional class of motor nucleus of oculomotor nerve
GSE
199
Name functional class of parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve
GVE preganglionic neurons
200
What is another term for the parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve?
Edinger-Westphal's nucleus
201
What ganglia is associated with CN III?
ciliary ganglion
202
The ciliary ganglion of CN III is where axons of PSNS nucleus of oculomotor nerve synapse on:
sphincter of pupil + ciliary muscles of eye
203
Where does CN IV originate?
dorsal surface of brainstem (ONLY CN that does)
204
Where does CN IV decussate?
at rostral medullary velum
205
Pathway of CN IV
transverse fissure --> cavernous sinus --> orbital fissure --> orbit --> muscle
206
What muscle does CN IV innervate?
dorsal oblique M
207
Nucleus + functional classification of CN IV
Motor nucleus of trochlear nerve GSE
208
Where does CN VI originate?
caudal edge of trapezoid body
209
CN VI pathway
cavernous sinus --> orbital fissure --> orbit --> muscle
210
What muscles does CN VI innervate?
lateral rectus M retractor bulbi M
211
What is the nucleus of CN VI? Functional classification?
Motor nucleus of abducens nerve GSE
212
What dysfunction occurs with CN III, IV, VI?
Strabismus
213
Strabismus
abnormal deviation of eyeball
214
What dysfunction only occurs with CN III?
mydriasis
215
Mydriasis
abnormally dilated pupils
216
Where does CN V originate?
rostral edge of trapezoid body
217
What are the 3 branches of CN V (trigeminal)? SMM?
Ophthalmic- sensory Maxillary- sensory Mandibular- mixed
218
Ophthalmic N pathway
cavernous sinus --> orbital fissure --> orbit --> eye, orbit, skin around eye
219
Maxillary N pathway
round foramen --> rostral alar foramen --> upper face/teeth
220
Mandibular N pathway
oval foramen --> lower face/teeth + mastication muscles
221
List the muscles of mastication (innervated by Mandibular N)
temporalis masseter medial + lateral pterygoid digatricus (rostral belly)
222
Nucleus + Functional classification of CN V
Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve GSE
223
What is the ganglion + functional classification of CN V?
Trigeminal ganglion GSA
224
What are the signs of dysfunction of CN V?
masticatory muscle atrophy anesthesia or hypoalgesia
225
Hypoalgesia
decreased sensitivity to painful stimuli
226
Origin of CN VII (Facial)
lateral edge of trapezoid body
227
CN VII pathway
internal acoustic meatus --> facial canal --> stylomastoid foramen
228
What does CN VII innervate?
muscles of facial expression
229
What nuclei are present in CN VII (facial)?
Motor nucleus of facial nerve Parasympathetic nucleus of facial nerve
230
What functional classification of motor nucleus of facial nerve?
GSE
231
What is functional classification of parasympathetic nucleus of facial nerve?
GVE
232
What 3 ganglia are part of Facial N (CN VII)
Geniculate ganglion Mandibular/Sublingual ganglia Pterygopalatine ganglion
233
Which two functional classifications are geniculate ganglion of CN VII (facial)?
GSA + SVA (special visceral afferent for taste)
234
What functional classification are mandibular/salivary ganglia of CN VII (facial)?
GVE postganglionnic neurons
235
What functional classification is pterygopalatine ganglion of CN VII (facial)?
GVE postganglionic neurons
236
Mandibular/sublingual ganglia leads to (lacrimal/salivary) glands.
Salivary glands
237
Pterygopalatine ganglion leads to (lacrimal/salivary) glands.
Lacrimal gland
238
What are two types of Facial N dysfunction?
Facial paralysis Dry eye
239
What is seen with "New" Facial Paralysis?
nose pulls away from lesion by contralateral muscles
240
What is seen with "Old" Facial Paralysis?
muscle atrophy on ipsilateral side
241
Why does dry eye occur with CN VII (facial) dysfunction?
no tear production b/c loss of parasympathetic from CN VII
242
Which two CNs have combined motor nucleus called "Nucleus Ambiguus"?
Glossopharyngeal + Vagus
243
Where does CN IX originate?
medulla oblongata
244
CN IX pathway
jugular foramen --> pharynx muscles sensory to tongue root sensory to carotid sinus / body
245
What does CN IX innervate?
muscles of pharynx
246
What are the two nuclei present in glossopharyngeal N?
Nucleus Ambiguus Parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal nerve
247
What class is nucleus ambiguus of CN IX?
GSE
248
What class if parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal N?
GVE preganglionic neurons
249
What ganglion is comes after parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal N in CN IX? Functional class?
otic ganglion GVE postganglionic neurons
250
What does the otic ganglion of CN IX lead to?
zygomatic + parotid salivary glands
251
(T/F) Glossopharyngeal N has a sensory ganglion made of proximal + distal parts.
True
252
What 3 functional classifications are present in sensory ganglia of glossopharyngeal nerve?
SVA (taste) GVA (carotid sinus/carotid body) GSA (sensation of tongue root)
253
CN X originates (cranial/caudal) to glossopharyngeal N on medulla.
caudal
254
Pathway of CN X
jugular foramen --> muscles of pharynx/larynx sensory to taste + general sensation sensory to thoracic/abd viscera
255
What does CN X innervate?
muscles of pharynx + larynx
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What two nuclei does CN X have?
Nucleus Ambiguus Parasympathetic nucleus of vagus nerve
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What functional class is parasympathetic nucleus of vagus nerve?
GVE postganglionic neurons
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What are the functional classifications (3) of sensory ganglion of vagus N?
SVA (taste) GVA (pharynx/thoracic/abd viscera) GSA (sensation of skin/ear)
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What are 3 signs of dysfunction of Glossopharyngeal + Vagus N?
dysphagia laryngeal paralysis vagal indigestion (cattle)
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Dysphagia
difficulty swallowing
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Laryngeal Paralysis (Laryngeal Hemiplegia)
"roaring" noise and decreased airflow with exercise
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Vagal ingestion in cattle
musculature of ruminant stomach paralyzed --> bloat --> circulatory collapse/death
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What two branches come together to make up the Accessory N?
cranial roots (from medulla) + spinal root s (cervical spinal cord)
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CN XI (accessory) pathway
jugular foramen --> division of external / internal branch
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Internal branch of Accessory N joins _____ N and then forms _______ N.
Vagus N Recurrent Laryngeal N
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The external branch of the Accessory N innervates...
muscles of the neck (COTS)
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The cranial roots of the Accessory N cell bodies are in _________.
Nucleus Ambiguus
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The spinal roots of the Accessory N cell bodies are in _______.
motor nucleus of accessory nerve (in spinal cord)
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What is the one sign of CN XI dysfunction?
muscle atrophy
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Where does the Hypoglossal (CN XII) originate?
medulla oblongata (cranial to foramen magnum)
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Pathway of CN XII
medulla --> hypoglossal canal
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What does CN XII innervate?
all muscles of tongue
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What neuron is present in CN XII?
motor nucleus of hypoglossal nerve
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What is the functional class of motor nucleus of hypoglossal N?
GSE
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What is the one dysfunction seen of CN XII?
deviation of tongue