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A&PI Theory Nursing School Quarter 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ cells come in a variety of different sizes and shapes, and all have specific functions.

A

Human

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2
Q

Human cells come in a variety of sizes and shapes, and all have specific ________

A

Functions

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3
Q

Cells are the smallest unit of ____ and can perform many functions to maintain homeostasis.

A

Life

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4
Q

Cells are the smallest unit of life and can perform many functions to maintain ____________

A

Homeostasis

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5
Q

Who was the first person to discover cells using a microscope?

A

Robert Hooke

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6
Q

Robert hook proposed ________, which has three parts.

A

Cell theory

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7
Q

How many parts does cells theory have?

A

Three

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8
Q

What are the three parts to cell theory?

A
  1. All living things are made of cells
  2. The cell performs all functions necessary for life.
  3. All cells come from preexisting cells.
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9
Q

Humans are _______, meaning they have a membrane-bound nucleus.

A

Eukaryotic

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10
Q

Most cells have ___ nucleus

A

One

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11
Q

The nucleus is the _______ center of the cell

A

Control

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12
Q

The _______ holds the genetic material of the cell (DNA)

A

Nucleus

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13
Q

The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear _________ with pores

A

Membrane

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14
Q

Inside the nucleus is a nucleolus where _______ is made

A

rRNA

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15
Q

Inside the nucleus is a ________ where rRNA is made.

A

Nucleolus

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16
Q

The _____________ is connected to the nuclear membrane

A

Rough ER

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17
Q

The _____ ER is studded with ribosomes

A

Rough

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18
Q

Which ER is studded with ribosomes?

A

Rough

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19
Q

Which ER is responsible for the synthesis and modification of proteins that are for export?

A

Rough

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20
Q

Which ER lacks ribosomes?

A

Smooth

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21
Q

Which ER is responsible for making phospholipids for the cell membrane or steroid lipids for hormones?

A

Smooth

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22
Q

In some cells (muscle), the _______ ER can store calcium

A

Smooth

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23
Q

What is smooth endoplasmic reticulum responsible for?

A

Making phospholipids for the cell membrane or steroid lipids for hormones

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24
Q

Smooth ER lacks _______

A

Ribosomes

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25
Q

The site of protein synthesis in a cell

A

Ribosomes

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26
Q

Ribosomes are made of a small and large ribosomal unit made in the _________

A

Nucleolus

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27
Q

Proteins made by fixed _________ are usually exported as part of a membrane.

A

Ribosomes

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28
Q

Proteins made by free ribosomes usually stay in the _________

A

Cytoplasm

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29
Q

The golgi apparatus receives products from the ___________________

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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30
Q

The golgi apparatus has ____ sides; incoming and exiting

A

Two

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31
Q

The _____________ modifies, sorts, and ships the products

A

Golgi apparatus

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32
Q

Exported products from the golgi apparatus will travel by vesicles to the __________ and fuse with it releasing their products.

A

Cell membrane

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33
Q

Lysosomes come from the ______

A

Golgi

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34
Q

________ contain digestive enzymes for ridding the cell of old organelles or pathogens

A

Lysosomes

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35
Q

________ can also be used for apoptosis under some conditions

A

Lysosomes

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36
Q

Lysosomes can sometimes be used for _________ under some conditions

A

Apoptosis

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37
Q

A programed cell death, sometimes called “cell suicide” that occurs when a cell is damaged, infected with a virus, or becoming cancerous.

A

Apoptosis

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38
Q

_______ are used for energy production in the cell

A

Mitochondria

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39
Q

The powerhouse of the cell

A

Mitochondria

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40
Q

Site of cellular respiration

A

Mitochondria

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41
Q

The mitochondria makes ___% of the ATP a cell uses

A

95

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42
Q

The ________ make 95% of the ATP a cell uses

A

Mitochondria

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43
Q

The inner membrane of ____________ perform oxidative phosphorylation

A

Mitochondria

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44
Q

Making ATP with the electron transport chain is called:

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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45
Q

Mitochondria are self-_________

A

Replicating

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46
Q

Mitochondria have their own DNA and their own _________ to make needed proteins

A

Ribosomes

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47
Q

Mitochondria are present in cells that have a high _______ need

A

Energy

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48
Q

Many cells that have a high energy need have __________ of mitochondria

A

Thousands

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49
Q

Peroxisomes perform many __________ in cells

A

Functions

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50
Q

Peroxisomes have a _______ metabolism

A

Lipid

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51
Q

Peroxisomes are responsible for chemical ____________, like alcohol

A

Detoxification

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52
Q

Enzymes in __________ are used for making H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and then reducing it to water.

A

Peroxisomes

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53
Q

In cells, enzymes in peroxisomes are used for making H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and then reducing it to water. This reduces ________ stress on the cell from free radicls

A

Oxidative

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54
Q

The cytoskeleton functions in _________

A

Cell support, cell movement, cell division, and transportation inside the cells

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55
Q

What are the three fibrous proteins of the cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules
Intermediate filaments
Microfilaments

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56
Q

Support and maintain organelle position

A

Microtubules

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57
Q

Responsible for cell shape and support

A

Intermediate filaments

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58
Q

Responsible for cell movement

A

Microfilaments

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59
Q

Centrioles make _________

A

Microtubules

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60
Q

_________________ help separate chromosomes during mitosis

A

Microtubules

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61
Q

Microtubules make up ________

A

Centrioles

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62
Q

__________ are made of microfilaments of the cytoskeleton

A

Microvilli

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63
Q

Microvilli are made of ___________________ of the cytoskeleton

A

Microfilaments

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64
Q

Microvilli are made of microfilaments of the ________________

A

Cytoskeleton

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65
Q

Flagellum are made of ______________ of the cytoskeleton

A

Microtubules

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66
Q

The only human cells that use flagella are?

A

Sperm

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67
Q

Flagellum are longer than ______

A

Cilia

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68
Q

Cilia are made of ____________ from the cytoskeleton

A

Microtubules

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69
Q

Cilia have motility to move substances across cell ________

A

Surfaces

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70
Q

Cilia are longer than ________

A

Microvilli

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71
Q

Makes proteins

A

Ribosome

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72
Q

Moves particles across the cell surface

A

Cilia

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73
Q

Site of energy production

A

Mitochondrion

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74
Q

Increases surface area/absorptive area of the cell

A

Microvilli

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75
Q

Liquid-like portion of the cytoplasm absent the organelles

A

Cytosol

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76
Q

Helps maintain cell shape

A

Cytoskeleton

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77
Q

Digestive sacs

A

Lysosomes

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78
Q

Allows sperm to swim

A

Flagellum

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79
Q

Guides DNA during mitosis

A

Centrioles

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80
Q

Modifies and packages material for export

A

Golgi apparatus

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81
Q

Makes protein with a membrane for export

A

Rough ER

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82
Q

Large fibrous proteins of the cytoskeleton

A

Microtubules

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83
Q

Makes cell membrane lipids

A

Smooth ER

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84
Q

Holds the genome of the cell

A

Nucleus

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85
Q

Important in cell detoxification of free radicals

A

Peroxisomes

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86
Q

Which organelle would we need to “gum up” to hinder protein production?

A

Ribosomes

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87
Q

Why don’t antibiotics stop us from synthesizing proteins?

A

Because humans and bacteria have different sizes of ribosomes. The antibiotics will stop bacteria from making proteins, but not us.

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88
Q

A child suffers from a disease where their food molecules are not completely broken down and do not release the full energy. The child grows slowly, has muscle weakness, and has developmental delays. What organelle is not functioning properly?

A

Mitochondrion. It is responsible for making energy from sugars and other nutrients. Without ATP, cells can’t function properly.

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89
Q

A power plant worker has been exposed to atoms with a higher than usual atomic mass. These isotopes have irradiated him. Now he has mutations in his DNA that have damaged his genes. What organelle is damaged?

A

The nucleus. DNA is housed in the nucleus. Isotopes will break down, releasing radioactivity that can cause damage to the chromosomes and induce cancer or genetic changes if gametes (sex cells) are damaged.

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90
Q

T/F: The endoplasmic reticulum is called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) if mitochondria are associated with the membrane.

A

False

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91
Q

The _________ is a group of fibrous proteins that provide structural support for cells, are critical for their cell motility, cell reproduction, and transportation of substances within the cell.

A

Centriole

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92
Q

Cell structure that sorts, modifies, and ships off the products that come from the rough ER.

A

Golgi apparatus

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93
Q

Cell’s central organelle, which contains the cell’s DNA

A

Nucleus

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94
Q

Cell structure specialized for cell locomotion

A

Flagella

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95
Q

Cell structure responsible for lipid metabolism and chemical detoxification

A

Peroxisomes

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96
Q

Cell structure that serves as the site of protein synthesis

A

Ribosomes

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97
Q

Cell structure which synthesizes phospholipids, the main component of biological membranes, as well as steroid hormones

A

Smooth ER

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98
Q

Cell structure that serves as the cellular origin point for microtubules extending outward as the cilia or flagella can assist with the separation of DNA during cell division

A

Centrioles

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99
Q

Cell structure which moves rhythmically; they beat constantly, moving waste materials such as dust, mucus, and bacteria upward through the airways, away from the lungs toward the mouth.

A

Cilia

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100
Q

A membranous, bean-shaped organelle that is the “energy transformer” of the cell.

A

Mitochondria

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101
Q

Cell structure responsible for synthesis and modification of proteins destined for the cell membrane or for export from the cell.

A

Rough ER

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102
Q

Cell structure which contains enzymes that break down and digest unneeded cellular components.

A

Lysosomes

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103
Q

Allows some molecules to pass through and inhibits others

A

Semipermeable

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104
Q

Non-polar, fearing water

A

Hydrophobic

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105
Q

Polar, likes water

A

Hydrophilic

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106
Q

Contains both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic part, ie. phospholipid

A

Amphipathic

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107
Q

The molecules that dissolve in the solvent

A

Solute

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108
Q

The substance that can dissolve molecules (usually water)

A

Solvent

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109
Q

A molecule that binds to a protein on the cell membrane

A

Ligand

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110
Q

Difference in concentration of substances across the membrane

A

Concentration gradient

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111
Q

The glycocalyx is made of _______, __________, and other sugars

A

Glycoproteins; glycolipids

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112
Q

The glycocalyx helps ________________ and _______________ cells

A

Protect; lubricate

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113
Q

The glycocalyx helps with cell _________ to other cells

A

Binding

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114
Q

The glycocalyx can have either _______ or _________

A

Receptors; enzymes

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115
Q

The big role of the glycocalyx is?

A

Self-identity

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116
Q

Phospholipids move _________

A

Laterally

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117
Q

The phospholipid bilayer is selectively __________

A

Permeable

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118
Q

________________ Contain carbohydrates for cell identity and act as identifiers and part of the glycocalyx

A

Glycolipids

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119
Q

Glycolipids contain ___________ for cell identity and act as identifiers and part of the glycocalyx

A

Carbohydrates

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120
Q

A ringed lipid made by the body that helps to stabilize the plasma membrane and maintain fluidity

A

Cholesterol

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121
Q

______ proteins pass all the way through the membrane

A

Integral

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122
Q

Channel proteins

A

Integral proteins

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123
Q

________ proteins can act as receptors to bind ligands

A

Integral

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124
Q

________ proteins are only on one side of the membrane

A

Peripheral

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125
Q

_________ proteins can aid in cell signaling or act as enzymes

A

Peripheral

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126
Q

The functions of the human cell membrane include acting as a ________, being used as a self-__________, and containing receptors for _________________.

A

Barrier; identifier; hormones

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127
Q

The phosphate head of a cell membrane is hydro_______

A

philic

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128
Q

The fatty acid tails of the cell membrane are hydro________

A

phobic

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129
Q

Lipid + carbohydrate

A

Glycolipids

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130
Q

_______ proteins are built into the membrane, i.e., channel proteins

A

Integral

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131
Q

_________ stabilizes the plasma membrane

A

Cholesterol

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132
Q

________ proteins are attached to only one side of the membrane

A

Peripheral

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133
Q

________________ transport uses the concentration gradient of a substance, so no energy or ATP is required

A

Passive

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134
Q

__________ transport moves substances against the concentration gradient or must expend energy to perform the transport, so it will need energy or ATP.

A

Active

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135
Q

Diffusion is movement from areas of _____ concentration to areas of _____ concentration

A

High; low

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136
Q

What are the types of passive transport mechanisms?

A

Diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis

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137
Q

Do passive transport mechanisms need energy to perform?

A

No

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138
Q

A greater difference in the concentration of a substances will make molecules move more __________

A

Quickly

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139
Q

During __________ diffusion, substances move with the concentration gradient across the cell membrane via the protein channel.

A

Facilitated

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140
Q

During _______, water moves from high water concentration to low water concentration.

A

Osmosis

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141
Q

Where there is a ______ solute concentration, there is a _____ water concentration

A

High; low

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142
Q

Active transport needs _____ to move molecules against the concentration gradient

A

ATP

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143
Q

Active transport proteins are often called _______, ________, and _________

A

Pumps
Endocytosis
Exocytosis

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144
Q

The sodium/potassium pump is an example of an ______ transport pump.

A

Active

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145
Q

The sodium/potassium pump is an active transport pump that moves sodium ____ of the cell and potassium ______ the cell.

A

Out; into

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146
Q

Endocytosis brings molecules ______ the cell.

A

Into

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147
Q

Exocytosis transports molecules _______ the cell

A

Out of

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148
Q

The movement of glucose into a cell is ______ transport.

A

Passive.

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149
Q

The movement of gases through a membrane is _______ transport.

A

Passive

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150
Q

The sodium/potassium pump is _______ transport

A

Active

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151
Q

Osmosis is _______ transport

A

Passive

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152
Q

Phagocytosis is _______ transport

A

Active

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153
Q

Facilitated diffusion is _________ transport

A

Passive

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154
Q

Endocytosis is _______ transport

A

Active

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155
Q

White blood cells removing bacteria is ______ transport

A

Active

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156
Q

Diffusion is __________ transport

A

Passive

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157
Q

Pinocytosis is ________ transport

A

Active

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158
Q

Exocytosis is ________ transport

A

Active

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159
Q

A _______ molecule (or region of a molecule) is one that is attracted to water

A

Hydrophilic

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160
Q

A ____________ molecule (or region of a molecule) repels and is repelled by water.

A

Hydrophobic

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161
Q

A _______________ molecule is one that contains both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic

A

Amphipathic

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162
Q

A channel protein is an example of a __________ protein that selectively allows particular materials, such as certain ions, to pass into or out of the cell.

A

Integral

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163
Q

A _________ is the specific molecule that binds to and activates a receptor.

A

Ligand

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164
Q

__________ helps to contribute to the fluidity of the cell membrane.

A

Cholesterol

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165
Q

During __________, ATP is required to move a substance across a membrane, often with the help of protein carriers, and usually against its concentration gradient.

A

Active transport

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166
Q

A membrane that has selective permeability allows only substances meeting certain criteria to pass through it unaided.

A

True

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167
Q

____________ diffusion is the diffusion process used for those substances that cannot cross the lipid bilayer due to their size, charge, and/or polarity.

A

Facilitated

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168
Q

A solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than another solution is said to be ____________

A

Hypertonic

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169
Q

While a solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than another solution is said to be ______________________

A

Hypotonic

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170
Q

Sequence of DNA that codes for a single protein

A

Gene

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171
Q

Loose strand of DNA

A

Chromatin

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172
Q

Condensed structure of DNA and proteins formed during cell division; in humans arranged in 23 pairs

A

Chromosome

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173
Q

_____ is a nucleic acid made of nucleotides containing nitreogenous bases.

A

DNA

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174
Q

DNA is a nucleic acid made of __________ containing nitreogenous bases.

A

Nucleotides

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175
Q

DNA is a nucleic acid made of nucleotides containing _______________ bases.

A

Nitrogenous

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176
Q

The bases of DNA are arranged in _______________ base pairs.

A

Complimentary

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177
Q

Two strands of DNA form a ________

A

Double helix

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178
Q

What are the four nitrogenous bases of DNA?

A

Adenine (A)
Thymine (T)
Cytosine (C)
Guanine (G)

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179
Q

In addition to the nitrogenous bases, DNA also contains the sugar __________ and __________ groups

A

deoxyribose; phosphate

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180
Q

What are the complementary bases of DNA?

A

A-T, and C-G

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181
Q

Bases in DNA are held together by ________ bonds

A

Hydrogen

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182
Q

DNA is usually found in loose strands called _________

A

Chromatin

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183
Q

Chromatin is wound around proteins (_______) for packaging and called a nucleosome.

A

Histones

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184
Q

Chromatin is wound around proteins (histones) for packaging and called a ________

A

Nucleosome

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185
Q

During cell division, the chromatin will _____ and become visible. This is known as a chromosome.

A

Condense

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186
Q

During cell division, the chromatin will condense and become visible. This is known as a _____

A

Chromosome

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187
Q

Humans have __ pairs of chromosomes, to a total of __ chromosomes.

A

23; 46

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188
Q

Both forms of DNA, loose chromatin and densely-coiled chromosomes, still hold the ______ each cell needs to operate.

A

Genes

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189
Q

A _____ is a segment of DNA that codes for a product, usually a protein.

A

gene

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190
Q

A gene is a segment of DNA that codes for a product, usually a ______

A

Protein

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191
Q

The sequence of bases found on DNA is the genetic ______ that is read to make a protein.

A

Code

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192
Q

The sequence of bases found on DNA is the genetic code that is read to make a _____

A

Protein

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193
Q

Before a cell can divide, the DNA in the cell needs to _____ so each new cell gets all the DNA needed to _____ properly.

A

Replicate; function

194
Q

An enzyme needed for replication, _______ separates the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs.

A

Helicase

195
Q

An enzyme needed for replication, ____________ brings in the complimentary base to build a new strand.

A

DNA Polymerase

196
Q

Once the two new strands are built, the process ______

A

Stops

197
Q

Replication can take place in _______ and results in two identical strands. The strands have one new strand and one old strand.

A

Interphase

198
Q

The two complementary strands are separated, much like unzipping a zipper. Special enzymes, including helicase, untwist and separate the two strands of DNA.

A

Initiation

199
Q

Each strand becomes a template along which a new complementary strand is built. DNA polymerase brings in the correct bases to complement the template strand, synthesizing a new strand base by base. A DNA polymerase is an enzyme that adds free nucleotides to the end of a chain of DNA, making a new double strand. This growing strand continues to be built until it has fully complemented the template strand.

A

Elongation

200
Q

Once the two original strands are bound to their own, finished, complementary strands, DNA replication is stopped and the two new identical DNA molecules are complete.

A

Termination

201
Q

Complementary strand of AGTGCC

A

TCACGG

202
Q

__________ is the copying of DNA that occurs before cell division can take place.

A

DNA replication

203
Q

A cell with two copies of a chromosome

A

Diploid

204
Q

A pair of chromosomes, one from each parent

A

Homologous

205
Q

Exact copies of DNA molecules found during mitosis

A

Sister chromatid

206
Q

Attaches two sister chromatids together

A

Centromere

207
Q

Normal body cells (Does not include sex cells: eggs or sperm)

A

Somatic cell

208
Q

Normal body cells (Does not include sex cells: eggs or sperm)

A

Sex cell

209
Q

All cells have a cell ______, and the time that is spent in different phases of the cell cycle varies by cell ______.

A

Cycle;type

210
Q

Neurons ______ divide and spend much of their cell cycle in ___

A

Do not; G0

211
Q

Epithelial cells divide _________ and will go through _________ and ________ every few days. The result is two new identical cells to the original parent cell.

A

Frequently; interphase; mitosis

212
Q

Before cells can divide, their DNA must be _______

A

Copied

213
Q

Before cells can divide, their DNA must be copied. The resulting DNA is arranged in __________, and in __________________.

A

Sister chromatids; homologous pairs

214
Q

The time when a cell is not dividing.

A

Interphase

215
Q

During interphase, the cell will do normal cell functions and prepare for _______

A

Division

216
Q

The first growth phase for cells that will divide again

A

G1 (aka Gap phase 1)

217
Q

___ phase is the replication (synthesis) of DNA

A

S

218
Q

____ phase is the second growth phase, and the cell prepares for mitosis

A

G2

219
Q

The last phase of the cell cycle, when the cell is actively dividing

A

Mitosis

220
Q

Five phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis

221
Q

Cell cycle: chromosomes condense and become visible as homologous pairs and as sister chromatids

A

Prophase

222
Q

Cell cycle: nuclear membrane disappears

A

Prophase

223
Q

Cell cycle: Spindle fibers form from the centrosome (centriole) and attach to the centromere

A

Prophase

224
Q

Cell cycle: Centrioles move toward opposite poles

A

Prophase

225
Q

Cell cycle: Chromosomes are lined up at the metaphase plate or equator

A

Metaphase

226
Q

Cell cycle: Spindle fibers are attached to the centromere holding sister chromatids together

A

Metaphase

227
Q

Cell cycle: centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled toward each pole

A

Anaphase

228
Q

Cell cycle: Spindle fibers shorten to pull the chromosomes toward the poles. Other fibers elongate to begin separating the cell.

A

Anaphase

229
Q

Cell cycle: Chromosomes at their new poles decondense into chromatin

A

Telophase

230
Q

Cell cycle: Nuclear membrane starts surrounding the chromosomes

A

Telophase

231
Q

Cell cycle :Mitotic spindle breaks down

A

Telophase

232
Q

Cell cycle: Spindle fibers keep pushing the poles apart

A

Telophase

233
Q

Cell cycle: Overlaps the end of telophase, the cytoplasm separates between the two new cells

A

Cytokinesis

234
Q

Cell cycle: A cleavage furrow is made by microfilaments (actin filaments) which create a separation between the two new cells

A

Cytokinesis

235
Q

During the normal cell cycle there are ______ checkpoints where the cell either proceeds or stops.

A

Three

236
Q

What are the three checkpoints where the cell either proceeds or stops?

A

G1, G2, and M

237
Q

The restriction checkpoint in the cell cycle

A

G1

238
Q

The ____ checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready to replicate the DNA. The cell is large enough and has enough reserves for DNA replication

A

G1

239
Q

The ____ checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready for mitosis. The DNA must be properly replicated.

A

G2

240
Q

The ___ checkpoint occurs during metaphase of mitosis to make sure all sister chromatids are attached and in the proper places so each cell gets a complete set of chromosomes

A

M

241
Q

Cell ________ tell the cell to either go (divide) or stop (don’t divide)

A

Signals

242
Q

_______ are a common cell signal regulating mitosis.

A

Cyclins

243
Q

____________ tell the cell to divide.

A

Proto-oncogenes

244
Q

____________ genes tell the cell to stop dividing.

A

Tumor suppressor

245
Q

__________ can make a proto-oncogene into an oncogene.

A

Mutations

246
Q

A change in the nucleotide sequence in a gene within a cell’s DNA, potentially altering the protein coded for that gene.

A

Mutations

247
Q

____________________________ can cause permanent damage to cellular lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids.

A

Reactive oxygen species (ROS)

248
Q

Reactive oxygen species (ROS) can cause permanent damage to?

A

Cellular lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids

249
Q

Damaged DNA can lead to genetic ______ and even _______

A

Mutations; cancer

250
Q

Lack of cell _________ can allow cells to grow out of control

A

Regulation

251
Q

____________ cells lack contact inhibition, don’t resemble the cell of origin and often invade nearby tissues.

A

Cancerous

252
Q

Possible causes of cancer can be?

A

An abnormal oncogene with a continuous go signal; or a lack of a tumor suppressor gene that doesn’t tell the cell to stop.

253
Q

Cancerous cells that travel to new sites are _________

A

Metastasizing

254
Q

The cytoplasm splits to form daughter cells.

A

Cytokinesis

255
Q

Spindle fibers break down and chromatin appears.

A

Telophase

256
Q

Chromosomes align down the center of the cell.

A

Metaphase

257
Q

Chromosomes pear, the nucleoli disappear, and the nuclear envelope disappears.

A

Prophase

258
Q

Chromatid pairs separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell.

A

Anaphase

259
Q

Correct sequence of cell cycle?

A

Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

260
Q

During this stage, the sister chromatids, with their attached microtubules, line up along a linear plane in the middle of the cell.

A

Metaphase

261
Q

Characterized by the formation of two new daughter nuclei at either end of the dividing cell is this phase?

A

Telophase

262
Q

________ are changes in DNA that can be passed to a new generation of cells

A

Mutations

263
Q

T/F: A lack of cell signaling during mitosis can lead to cancer.

A

True

264
Q

Checkpoint: getting ready to replicate DNA

A

G1

265
Q

Checkpoint: The DNA replicated correctly

A

G2

266
Q

Checkpoint: The chromosomes are all attached and lined up

A

M

267
Q

The chemical that can signal a cell to divide or stop dividing is

A

Cyclins

268
Q

Two bases bonded together making the rung of the DNA and used to create DNA or RNA. (A-T, C-G in DNA; A-U, C-G in RNA)

A

Base pairing

269
Q

DNA to RNA

A

Transcription

270
Q

RNA to protein

A

Translation

271
Q

Codes for an amino acid

A

Sense codons

272
Q

Stop signs for translation

A

Stop codons

273
Q

Found on tRNA; complementary bases to the mRNA codon

A

Anticodon

274
Q

Small proteins made with amino acids joined by peptide bonds.

A

Polypeptide

275
Q

DNA has the genes needed to code for a particular _______

A

Protein

276
Q

The process of protein synthesis occurs is a series of steps starting in the ______ and ending at the ________

A

Nucleus; ribosome

277
Q

DNA is in the _______ and is ________ stranded.

A

Nucleus; double

278
Q

________ is the sugar on one strand and _________ is on the other stand with the base pairs AT & CG connecting them.

A

Deoxyribose; Phosphate

279
Q

Proteins are ______ dependent and run many of the cells functions as ________.

A

Shape; enzymes

280
Q

The process of making protein is _____________, not all genes are expressed at all times.

A

Gene expression

281
Q

___ > RNA > Protein

A

DNA

282
Q

DNA > ___ > Protein

A

RNA

283
Q

DNA > RNA > ______

A

Protein

284
Q

______ > Codon > Amino Acid

A

Triplet

285
Q

Triplet > _____ > Amino Acid

A

Codon

286
Q

Triplet > Codon > _________

A

Amino acid

287
Q

There are several different types of RNA, each having different _______ in the cell.

A

Functions

288
Q

The structure of RNA is similar to ____ with a few small exceptions.

A

DNA

289
Q

Most types of RNA, including mRNA, are ______-stranded and contain no _________ strand.

A

Single; complementary

290
Q

RNA contains _____, whereas DNA has ________.

A

Ribose; deoxyribose

291
Q

Instead of the base _______, RNA contains the base _______. This means that _______ will always pair up with _______ during the protein synthesis process.

A

Thymine; Uracil; adenine; uracil

292
Q

RNA is _____-stranded

A

Single

293
Q

RNA is made of:

A

Ribose sugar
Phosphates
The bases A, U, C, G

294
Q

The DNA strand is used to create:

A

RNA
mRNA (messenger)
tRNA (transfer)
rRNA (ribosomal)

295
Q

Transcription takes place in the?

A

Nucleus

296
Q

The gene of DNA is made into a _______ molecule that can be used to create a protein.

A

mRNA

297
Q

DNA is written in three base groups called a ______

A

Triplet

298
Q

RNA is written in three bases called ______

A

Codons

299
Q

To go from DNA to RNA, ___________ reads the DNA template and adds the complimentary base.

A

RNA polymerase

300
Q

If the DNA reads ATC; the mRNA would be ____.

A

UAG

301
Q

*Remember RNA doesn’t use __ so if you want to add a T it would be a __.

A

T; U

302
Q

Translation uses the ________ and the ________
to create a protein.

A

mRNA; ribosome

303
Q

The process of translation begins at a __________ (____) and ends when it reaches a stop codon.

A

Start codon; AUG

304
Q

mRNA leaves the nucleus through a pore and associates with a ribosome (made of rRNA) either in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Step 1 of translation

305
Q

In step 1 of translation, the mRNA leaves the nucleus through a pore and associates with a __________ (made of rRNA) either in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Ribosome

306
Q

The ribosome “reads” the mRNA and tRNA carries in the complimentary anticodon that matches the codon on mRNA.

If the codon is AUG then the anticodon is UAC.

A

Step 2 of translation

307
Q

In step 2 of translation, The ribosome “reads” the mRNA and tRNA carries in the complimentary ________ that matches the codon on mRNA.

If the codon is AUG then the anticodon is _____.

A

Anticodon; UAC

308
Q

Each tRNA drops off the amino acid it carries, and the amino acids are joined together by peptide bonding.

The polypeptide made is the primary sequence of that protein.

A

Step 3 of translation

309
Q

In step 3 of translation, Each tRNA drops off the amino acid it carries, and the amino acids are joined together by ________ bonding.

The polypeptide made is the primary ________ of that protein.

A

Peptide; sequence

310
Q

The polypeptide leaves the ribosome and will either be ready for use or undergo more processing by the RER and Golgi.

A

Step 4 of translation

311
Q

In step 4 of translation, The polypeptide leaves the ribosome and will either be ready for use or undergo more processing by the _____ and _______

A

RER; Golgi

312
Q

The rRNA has _____ subunits, a large and small, that join around the mRNA. As the mRNA makes its way down the mRNA strand, tRNA brings the matching amino acid until a stop codon is reached.

A

Two

313
Q

____________ is the synthesis of a strand of mRNA that is complementary to the gene of interest.

A

Transcription

314
Q

___________ is the process of synthesizing a chain of amino acids called a polypeptide.

A

Translation

315
Q

The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence AUG on a tRNA is

A

UAC

316
Q

A ______ is a section of three DNA bases in a row that codes for a specific amino acid.

A

Triplet

317
Q

Translation takes place on the _________

A

Ribosome

318
Q

Has the anticodon

A

tRNA

319
Q

Makes the large and small ribosomal subunit

A

rRNA

320
Q

Carries the message from DNA to the ribosome

A

mRNA

321
Q

_________ are collections of specialized cells that perform a limited number of functions.

A

Tissues

322
Q

Tissues are ________ according to cellular appearance and function

A

Classified

323
Q

The study of tissues

A

Histology

324
Q

What are the three different types of cell shapes?

A

Squamous, cuboidal, columnar

325
Q

What are the two types of squamous tissue?

A

Simple squamous epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium

326
Q

What are the two types of cuboidal tissue?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium

327
Q

What are the three types of columnar tissue?

A

Simple columnar epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

328
Q

What is the type of tissue that is pseudostratified in addition to simple and stratified?

A

columnar

329
Q

This type of tissue means “flattened” or “squished”

A

Squamous

330
Q

This type of tissue means “cube-shaped”

A

Cuboidal

331
Q

This type of tissue means rectangular-shaped

A

Columnar

332
Q

A single layer of cells attached to the basement membrane

A

Simple

333
Q

Layered cells dividing from the basement membrane

A

Stratified

334
Q

False stratified. Closely packed cells which appear to be stratified, but are actually attached to the basement membrane.

A

Pseudostratified

335
Q

___________ tissue covers body surfaces; lines cavities, passageways, and ducts; and forms glands.

A

Epithelial

336
Q

Different functions are performed by different __________ of epithelia.

A

Classifications

337
Q

What type of epithelia is found in the air sacs of the lungs?

A

Squamous epithelium

338
Q

What type of epithelia is found in the intestines?

A

Columnar epithelium

339
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the kidneys?

A

Cuboidal epithelium

340
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the respiratory tract?

A

Ciliated epithelium

341
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the bladder?

A

Transitional epithelium

342
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the skin?

A

Stratified keratinised epithelium

343
Q

Why is simple squamous epithelium found in the air sacs of the lungs?

A

Simple squamous epithelium is thin; it allows oxygen and carbon dioxide to easily diffuse across the lungs and in/out of the bloodstream.

344
Q

Why is simple columnar epithelium found in the digestive tract?

A

Simple columnar epithelia have microvilli, which increases their surface area much like the strings of a mop. This increases their ability to absorb nutrients from the digestive tract and then allow them to diffuse into the bloodstream.

345
Q

Why is pseudostratified epithelium found in the lungs?

A

The pseudostratified epithelium of the lungs includes cells that make mucus which traps dirt and bacteria. This epithelium can move and clear out the mucus as well.

346
Q

Why is cuboidal epithelium found in the kidneys?

A

Simple cuboidal cells are able to absorb large volumes of water and other chemicals from our urine and return it to the bloodstream.

347
Q

Why is transitional epithelium found in the bladder?

A

Transitional epithelium is built to stretch. As the bladder fills, this epithelium is able to hold more and more urine.

348
Q

Why is stratified keratinized epithelium found in the skin?

A

Layer after layer of cells form a protective barrier in our skin. The top layers are keratinized which means they are hard and dead and thus immune to infection.

349
Q

Epithelium is __________ which means that it lacks blood vessels

A

Avascular

350
Q

Epithelium is avascular, which means that it lacks ___________

A

Blood vessels

351
Q

Most epithelial tissue rapidly ___________

A

Regenerates

352
Q

Epithelial tissue provides the body’s first line of protection from _________, _____________, and _____________ wear and tear

A

Physical; chemical; biological

353
Q

Epithelial tissue controls ___________ by acting as gatekeepers to the body

A

Permeability

354
Q

The basement membrane of the skin includes the ___________ and __________ laminas

A

Basal; reticular

355
Q

The __________ surface of skin is exposed to an external or internal environment. It can contain cilia or microvilli.

A

Apical

356
Q

The apical surface of skin can contain ________ or ________

A

Cilia; microvilli

357
Q

The ___________ is the opposite side of apical surface, and helps to connect the Epithelial Tissue to the underlying Connective Tissue, while providing strength.

A

Basement membrane

358
Q

The basement membrane is the opposite side of the _________ surface, and helps to connect the Epithelial Tissue to the underlying Connective Tissue, while providing strength.

A

Apical

359
Q

Stratified squamous epithelia can be classified as either ____________ or ______________

A

Keratinized; non-keratinized

360
Q

Keratinized cells are filled with the protein _______, which makes skin and hair hard and waterproof.

A

Keratin

361
Q

In keratinized cells, the upper layers of the epithelium are dead and become _________.

A

Flattened

362
Q

The epidermis (superficial topmost layer of the skin) is ___________ _____________.

A

Keratinized epithelium

363
Q

In non-keratinized cells, the surface cells are __________.

A

Living

364
Q

Moist coverings of the body and organs are non-______________. Examples are the linings of the vagina, mouth, and internal organs.

A

Keratinized

365
Q

What are some examples of moist coverings of the body and organs that are non-keratinized?

A

Vagina, mouth, internal organs.

366
Q

Non-keratinized cells do not contain?

A

Keratin

367
Q

Functions of simple columnar epithelium?

A

Secretes and absorbs, may contain microvilli which increase surface area and help with absorption.

368
Q

Where is simple columnar epithelium located?

A

Stomach, intestines, gallbladder

369
Q

Function of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium?

A

Protects

370
Q

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium locations?

A

Skin (keratinized)
Esophagus
Mouth
Vagina

371
Q

Functions of pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

Contains goblet cells, which secrete mucus.
Cilia move mucus and can gently move reproductive cells.

372
Q

Where is pseudostratified columnar epithelium found in the body?

A

Nasal cavity
Trachea
Conductive respiratory tract
Portions of the male reproductive system

373
Q

What is the function of transitional epithelium?

A

Allows urinary organs to expand and stretch

374
Q

Cell __________ connect one cell to another.

A

Junctions

375
Q

What are the three types of cell junctions?

A

Tight
Anchoring
Gap junctions

376
Q

In _______ cell junctions, there is no extracellular space between two cells. Forms a zipper-like closure and an impermeable barrier.

A

Tight

377
Q

Which type of cell junction forms a zipper-like closure and an impermeable barrier.

A

Tight

378
Q

What is an example of a tight junction between cells in the body?

A

between the epithelial cells lining your bladder which prevents urine from leaking out into the extracellular space.

379
Q

What is the purpose of tight junctions between cells lining the bladder?

A

Prevents urine from leaking out into the extracellular space

380
Q

What type of junction between cells provides a strong but flexible connection?

A

Anchoring junctions

381
Q

Anchoring junctions between cells are commonly found where?

A

In tissues that are prone to constant mechanical stress, like the skin

382
Q

What type of cell junction forms an intercellular passageway between the membranes of adjacent cells?

A

Gap junctions

383
Q

What is an example of a gap junction between cells in the body?

A

Between heart muscle cells which share electrical current

384
Q

Epithelial membranes are composed of both __________ tissue and ____________ tissue.

A

Epithelial; connective

385
Q

These epithelial membranes are found lining the ________ body surface: cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes

A

External

386
Q

Which epithelial membranes are found lining the external body surface?

A

Cutaneous; mucous

387
Q

These epithelial membranes are found lining the ________ body cavities: serous membranes

A

Internal

388
Q

_________ membranes line organs in cavities that do not open to the outside.

A

Serous

389
Q

Serous membranes line organs in cavities that ____________________.

A

Do not open to the outside

390
Q

________ membranes secrete a fluid that reduces friction between opposing surfaces

A

Serous

391
Q

The ________ layer of a membrane lines the walls of the body cavity

A

Parietal

392
Q

The _________ layer of a membrane covers the organ’s surface

A

Visceral

393
Q

The visceral pleura is?

A

The outer covering of the lungs

394
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A

Encloses the peritoneal cavity and organs of the abdomen

395
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

The outer covering of the heart.

396
Q

Outer layer lining the lung cavity

A

Parietal pleura

397
Q

Outer layer lining the abdominal cavity

A

Parietal peritoneum

398
Q

Outer layer lining the heart cavity

A

Parietal pericardium

399
Q

Inner layer covering the lungs

A

Visceral pleura

400
Q

Inner layer covering the abdominal cavity

A

Visceral peritoneum

401
Q

Inner layer covering the heart cavity

A

Visceral pericardium

402
Q

________ membranes line the body cavities and hollow passageways that are open to the external environments

A

Mucous

403
Q

What type of membrane is the mouth?

A

A mucous membrane

404
Q

In the mouth, ________ covers the epithelial layer.

A

Mucous

405
Q

Mucous membranes include the mouth and what other tracts?

A

Digestive tract
Respiratory tract
Urinary tract
Reproductive tract

406
Q

The ______ is an epithelial membrane also called the cutaneous membrane.

A

Skin

407
Q

The skin is an epithelial membrane also called the ____________ membrane.

A

Cutaneous

408
Q

The cutaneous membrane is made up of ______________ __________ _____________ tissue superficial to connective tissue.

A

Stratified squamous epithelial

409
Q

The cutaneous membrane is made up of stratified squamous epithelial tissue superficial to ___________ tissue.

A

Connective

410
Q

The apical surface of the ___________ membrane is exposed to the external environment and helps to protect the body.

A

Cutaneous

411
Q

The cutaneous membrane has many layers of _______ _________ cells to help protect against pathogens.

A

Stratified squamous

412
Q

The cutaneous membrane has many layers of stratified squamous cells to help protect against _________.

A

Pathogens

413
Q

A _______ is a structure made up of one or more cells modified to synthesize and secrete chemical substances.

A

Gland

414
Q

A gland is a structure made up of one or more cells modified to _________ and __________ chemical substances.

A

Synthesize; secrete

415
Q

A gland is a structure made up of one or more cells modified to synthesize and secrete _______ _________

A

Chemical substances

416
Q

Most glands consist of groups of modified epithelial cells. Glands can be classified as either __________ or ___________

A

Endocrine; exocrine

417
Q

Ductless glands that release secretions directly into surrounding tissues and fluids.

A

Endocrine glands

418
Q

Use ducts and empty into the external environment.

A

Exocrine glands

419
Q

Most common type of exocrine secretion?

A

Merocrine

420
Q

In a merocrine secretion, watery secretions are released by _________

A

Exocytosis

421
Q

This form of secretion affects the function of the cell the least, as it does not damage the cell.

A

Merocrine secretion (exocrine)

422
Q

What is an example of a merocrine (exocrine) secretion in the body?

A

Mucous glands in the mouth, eccrine (sweat) glands, mammary glands.

423
Q

In an _________ secretion, the Apical portion of cell is broken down and becomes the secretory product.

A

Apocrine

424
Q

In an apocrine secretion, the ______ portion of cell is broken down and becomes the secretory product.

A

Apical

425
Q

What are a few examples of apocrine glands in the body?

A

Apocrine sweat glands in the armpit and mammary glands

426
Q

Mammary glands also use the __________ mode for secretion of milk proteins, even though they are mostly ________ and secrete lipid droplets.

A

Merocrine; apocrine

427
Q

Type of exocrine secretion in which the entire cell ruptures and is secreted.

A

Holocrine

428
Q

In a ______ secretion, cell division replaces lost cells, then the cells increase in size, and then burst again.

A

Holocrine

429
Q

What is an example of a holocrine secretion?

A

Sebaceous glands (oil glands of the skin)

430
Q

The salivary glands include which glands?

A
  1. Sublingual glands
  2. Submandibular glands
  3. Parotid glands
431
Q

____________ secrete mucins that form mucus.

An example is the sublingual salivary gland.

A

Mucous glands

432
Q

_______ glands are both serous and mucous.

An example is the submandibular salivary gland.

A

Mixed

433
Q

The _______ glands produce watery secretions with enzymes. They help to reduce friction and begin digestion.

An example is the parotid salivary gland.

A

Serous

434
Q

True or false, a visceral layer will cover the surface of an organ?

A

True

435
Q

_________ epithelium is found only in the urinary system, specifically the ureters and urinary bladder

A

Transitional

436
Q

An _________ gland uses ducts and empties into the external environment

A

Exocrine

437
Q

True or false, the cutaneous membrane is a stratified squamous epithelial membrane resting on top of connective tissue.

A

True

438
Q

These epithelial membranes line the body cavities and hollow passageways that open to the external environment, and include the digestive, respiratory, excretory, and reproductive tracts.

A

Mucous membranes

439
Q

Three ______ membranes line the thoracic cavity; the two pleura that cover the lungs and the pericardium that covers the heart.

A

Serous

440
Q

_____ tissues are the most diverse body tissues

A

Connective

441
Q

__________ tissues help with support and protection, along with transportation, storage of energy, and defense of the body.

A

Connective

442
Q

Connective tissues fall into three categories classified by the characteristics of their _____________ and type of ______________

A

Fluid ground substance; protein fibers

443
Q

What are the types of connective tissue proper?

A

Areolar
Adipose
Reticular
Dense regular
Dense irregular

444
Q

What are the types of supportive connective tissue?

A

Cartilage (hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic) and bone (compact, spongy)

445
Q

What are the two types of liquid/fluid connective tissue?

A

Blood and lymph

446
Q

A type of white blood cell, derived from a monocyte

A

Macrophage

447
Q

An essential component of the immune system

A

Macrophage

448
Q

When stimulated, macrophages release ________ (small proteins that act as chemical messengers), that mobilize the immune system

A

Cytokines

449
Q

Consumes bacteria and waste using phagocytosis

A

Macrophages

450
Q

Most abundant cell in connective tissue

A

Fibroblasts

451
Q

Produces the connective tissue fibers and ground substance

A

Fibroblasts

452
Q

Stores lipids as droplets

A

Adipocyte

453
Q

What are the two types of adipocytes?

A

White and brown

454
Q

Which type of adipocyte stores lipids as a single large drop?

A

White

455
Q

Which type of adipocyte stores lipids as many droplets?

A

Brown

456
Q

Releases the chemical signals histamine and heparin to help out with inflammation

A

Mast cells

457
Q

Causes vasodilation and increased blood flow at site of injury

A

Histamine

458
Q

Slows the formation of blood clots

A

Heparin

459
Q

Primary cell of mature bone

A

Osteocyte

460
Q

Cartilage cells that help to maintain cartilage

A

Chondrocyte

461
Q

What are the three main types of fibers of connective tissues?

A

Collagen
Elastic
Reticular

462
Q

Collagen is thick, long, straight, and ________

A

Unbranched

463
Q

Collagen has great tensile strength, resists stretching while being ________

A

Flexible

464
Q

Collagen holds ________ tissues together

A

Connective

465
Q

Elastic connective tissue is wavy and _________

A

Branched

466
Q

Elastic connective tissue contains the protein ________

A

Elastin

467
Q

______ connective tissue will return to its original shape after being stretched or compressed

A

Elastic

468
Q

_______ connective tissue is narrow and branched

A

Reticular

469
Q

________ connective tissue is abundant in the reticular tissue of soft organs, like the liver and spleen

A

Reticular

470
Q

___________________ fills spaces between cells and surrounds fibers.

A

Ground substance

471
Q

All connective tissue fibers are embedded in _________ in connective tissue.

A

Ground substance

472
Q

Ground substance slows down the movement of ________

A

Pathogens

473
Q

Ground substance is usually a _________, but can be mineralized and solid, like in bone.

A

Fluid

474
Q

Ground substance and protein fibers make up the ___________

A

Matrix

475
Q

What are the two types of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose connective tissue
Dense connective tissue

476
Q

Loose connective tissue has more ________, fewer fibers

A

Ground substance

477
Q

What are some types of loose connective tissue?

A

Areolar, adipose, reticular

478
Q

______ connective tissue has less ground substance, more fibers

A

dense

479
Q

What are the two types of dense connective tissue?

A

Regular; irregular

480
Q

Provides framework that helps to support the rest of the body.

A

Supportive connective tissue

A&PI Theory Nursing School Quarter 1 (5 decks)

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