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A&PI Theory Nursing School Quarter 1 > Exam 2 Slow Study Deck > Flashcards

Exam 2 Slow Study Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Smallest unit of life

A

Cell

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2
Q

Cells perform many functions to maintain?

A

Homeostasis

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3
Q

First person to discover cells using a microscope.

A

Robert Hooke

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4
Q

What are the three parts of cell theory?

A
  1. All living things are made of cells
  2. The cell performs all the functions necessary for life
  3. All cells come from preexisting cells.
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5
Q

Human cells are ___________, meaning they have a membrane-bound nucleus

A

Eukaryotic

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6
Q

Human cells are eukaryotic, meaning they have a membrane-bound __________

A

Nucleus

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7
Q

Most cells have _____ nucleus

A

One

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8
Q

The ________ is the control center of the cell

A

Nucleus

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9
Q

_________ holds the genetic material of the cell (DNA)

A

Nucleus

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10
Q

The cell nucleus is surrounded by a _____________ with pores

A

Nuclear membrane

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11
Q

The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear membrane with __________

A

Pores

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12
Q

Inside the nucleus is a __________ where rRNA is made

A

Nucleolus

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13
Q

Inside the nucleus is a nucleolus where _______ is made

A

rRNA

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14
Q

What are the two types of endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough and smooth

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15
Q

Which endoplasmic reticulum is connected to the nuclear membrane?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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16
Q

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with _________

A

Ribosomes

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17
Q

The _______ ER is responsible for the synthesis and modification of proteins that are for export

A

Rough

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18
Q

Which ER is responsible for the synthesis and modification of proteins that are for export?

A

Rough

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19
Q

Which ER lacks ribosomes?

A

Smooth ER

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20
Q

Which ER is responsible for making phospholipids for the cell membrane or steroid lipids for hormones?

A

Smooth

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21
Q

In some cells (muscle), the smooth ER can store __________

A

Calcium

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22
Q

What is the difference between rough and smooth ER functionally?

A

Rough ER is responsible for the synthesis and modification of proteins that are for export, and smooth ER is responsible for making phospholipids for the cell membrane or steroid lipids for hormones.

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23
Q

Site of protein synthesis?

A

Ribosomes

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24
Q

Ribosomes are made of a small and large ribosomal subunit made in the __________

A

Nucleolus

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25
Q

Ribosomes are made of a ________ and _________ ribosomal subunit made in the nucleolus

A

Small; large

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26
Q

Proteins made by fixed ribosomes are usually exported as part of a _________

A

Membrane

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27
Q

Proteins made by free ribosomes usually stay in the _________

A

Cytoplasm

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28
Q

Receives products from the endoplasmic reticulum

A

Golgi apparatus

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29
Q

How many sides does the golgi apparatus have?

A

Two; incoming and exiting

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30
Q

What is the purpose of the golgi apparatus?

A

Modifies, sorts, and ships products from the ER.

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31
Q

Exported products from the golgi apparatus will travel by vesicles to the _________ and fuse with it, releasing their products.

A

Cell membrane

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32
Q

Where do lysosomes come from?

A

The golgi

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33
Q

Lysosomes contain digestive ______ for ridding the cell of old organelles or pathogens

A

Enzymes

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34
Q

Lysosomes can also be used for _________ under some conditions

A

Apoptosis

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35
Q

Programmed cell death, sometimes called “cell suicide” that occurs when a cell is damaged, infected with a virus, or becoming cancerous.

A

Apoptosis

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36
Q

Mitochondrion are used for ________ production

A

Energy

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37
Q

Site of cellular respiration in a cell

A

Mitochondrion

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38
Q

The process of burning carbohydrates to make energy for the cell

A

Cellular respiration

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39
Q

Makes 95% of the ATP a cell uses

A

Mitochondrion

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40
Q

What part of the mitochondria performs an oxidative phosphorylation (making ATP with the electron transport chain.

A

Inner membrane

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41
Q

Process of making ATP with the electron transport chain

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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42
Q

Mitochondria are self-_________

A

Replicating

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43
Q

Mitochondria have their own ______ and their own _________ to make needed proteins

A

DNA; ribosomes

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44
Q

Mitochondria are present in cells that have a high _______ need

A

Energy

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45
Q

The higher the energy need of the cell, the more ________ it will contain

A

Mitochondria

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46
Q

Peroxisomes perform ______ functions in the cells

A

Many

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47
Q

Peroxisomes have a ______ metabolism

A

Lipid

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48
Q

What kind of metabolism do peroxisomes have?

A

Lipid

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49
Q

Peroxisomes are responsible for ________ detoxification, like alcohol

A

Chemical

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50
Q

Enzymes in peroxisomes are used for making ________ and then reducing it to water

A

H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)

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51
Q

How do peroxisomes make H2O2 and then reduce it to water?

A

Enzymes

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52
Q

Why do peroxisomes make H2O2 and then reduce it to water?

A

To reduce oxidative stress on the cell from free radicals

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53
Q

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton?

A

Cell support
Cell movement
Cell division
Transportation inside the cells

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54
Q

What are the three fibrous proteins of the cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules
Intermediate filaments
Microfilaments

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55
Q

Purpose of microtubules in the cytoskeleton?

A

Support and maintain organelle position

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56
Q

Purpose of intermediate filaments in the cytoskeleton?

A

Cell shape and support

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57
Q

Purpose of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton?

A

Movement

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58
Q

What are microvilli made of?

A

Microfilaments of the cytoskeleton

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59
Q

Purpose of microvilli?

A

Increase absorptive area of a cell

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60
Q

What are flagellum made of?

A

Microtubules of the cytoskeleton

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61
Q

The only human cell that uses flagella are?

A

Sperm

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62
Q

What is used to propel sperm?

A

Flagellum

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63
Q

Are flagellum longer or shorter than cilia?

A

Longer

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64
Q

What are cilia made of?

A

Microtubules of the skeleton

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65
Q

Cilia have ______ to move substances across cell surfaces

A

Motility

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66
Q

Which is longer? Microvilli or cilia?

A

Cilia

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67
Q

What makes microtubules?

A

Centrioles

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68
Q

What helps separate chromosomes during mitosis?

A

Microtubules

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69
Q

Makes proteins

A

Ribosome

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70
Q

Increases surface area/absorptive area of the cell

A

Microvilli

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71
Q

Digestive sacs

A

Lysosomes

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72
Q

Modifies and packages material for export

A

Golgi apparatus

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73
Q

Makes cell membrane lipids

A

Smooth ER

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74
Q

Moves particles across the cell surface

A

Cilia

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75
Q

Liquid-like portion of the cytoplasm absent the organelles

A

Cytosol

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76
Q

Allows sperm to swim

A

Flagellum

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77
Q

Makes protein within a membrane for export

A

Rough ER

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78
Q

Holds the genome of the cell

A

Nucleus

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79
Q

Site of energy production

A

Mitochondrion

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80
Q

Helps maintain cell shape

A

Cytoskeleton

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81
Q

Guides DNA during mitosis

A

Centrioles

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82
Q

Large fibrous proteins of the cytoskeleton

A

Microtubules

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83
Q

Important in cell detoxification of free radicals

A

Peroxisomes

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84
Q

What organelle would we need to “gum up” to prevent proteins synthesis?

A

Ribosomes

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85
Q

A child suffers from a disease where their food molecules are not completely broken down and do not release full energy. The child grows slowly, has muscle weakness, and has developmental delays. What organelle is not functioning properly?

A

Mitochondria

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86
Q

A power plant worker has been exposed to atoms with a higher than normal atomic mass. These isotopes have irradiated him. Now he has mutations in his DNA that have damaged his genes. What organelle is damaged?

A

Nucleus

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87
Q

Organelle responsible for sorting, modifying, and shipping off the products that come from the rough ER.

A

Golgi apparatus

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88
Q

Organelle which contains enzymes that break down and digest unneeded cellular components.

A

Lysosomes

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89
Q

Organelle which serves as the site of protein synthesis

A

Ribosomes

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90
Q

Organelle which serves as the cellular origin point for microtubules extending outward as cilia or flagella or can assist with the separation of DNA during cell division

A

Centrioles

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91
Q

Cell’s central organelle, which contains the cell’s DNA

A

Nucleus

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92
Q

Organelle responsible for the synthesis and modification of proteins destined for the cell membrane or for export from the cell

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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93
Q

Organelle specialized for cell locomotion

A

Flagella

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94
Q

A membranous, bean-shaped organelle that is the “energy transformer” of the cell

A

Mitochondria

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95
Q

Synthesizes phospholipids, the main component of biological membranes, as well as steroid hormones

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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96
Q

Organelle which moves rhythmically; they beat constantly, moving waste materials such as dust, mucus, and bacteria upward through the airways, away from the lungs and toward the mouth.

A

Cilia

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97
Q

Organelle responsible for lipid metabolism and chemical detoxification

A

Peroxisomes

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98
Q

The _________ is a group of fibrous proteins that provide structural support for cells, are critical for cell motility, cell reproduction, and transportation of substances within the cell.

A

Cytoskeleton

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99
Q

True or false? The endoplasmic reticulum is called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) if mitochondria are associated with the membrane.

A

False

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100
Q

Allows some molecules to pass through and inhibits others

A

Semipermeable

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101
Q

Non-polar, fearing water

A

Hydrophobic

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102
Q

Polar, likes water

A

Hydrophilic

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103
Q

Contains both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic part, i.e., phospholipid

A

Amphipathic

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104
Q

The molecules that dissolve in the solvent

A

Solute

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105
Q

The substance that can dissolve molecules (usually water)

A

Solvent

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106
Q

A molecule that binds to a protein on the cell membrane

A

Ligand

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107
Q

Difference in concentration of substances across the membrane

A

Concentration gradient

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108
Q

Components of the cell membrane?

A

Glycocalyx
Phospholipid bilayer
Glycolipid
Cholesterol
Peripheral protein
Integral protein

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109
Q

The dense, gel-like meshwork that surrounds the cell, constituting a physical barrier for any object to enter the cell.

A

Glycocalyx

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110
Q

A thin polar membrane made of two layers of lipid molecules in the cell wall.

A

Phospholipid bilayer

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111
Q

a carbohydrate that is covalently linked to a lipid.

A

Glycolipid

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112
Q

a waxy substance found in your blood.

A

Cholesterol

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113
Q

Membrane-spanning proteins which reside within the bilayer membranes that surround cells and organelles.

A

Integral proteins

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114
Q

Proteins which form temporary bonds with the cell membrane, allowing them to detach and reattach at specific times, with specific signals.

A

Peripheral proteins

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115
Q

Part of cell membrane made of glycoproteins, glycolipids, and other sugars.

A

Glycocalyx

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116
Q

Membrane structure which helps protect and lubricate cells

A

Glycocalyx

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117
Q

Cell membrane structure which helps with cell binding to other cells.

A

Glycocalyx

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118
Q

Cell membrane structure, can have receptors or enzymes

A

Glycocalyx

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119
Q

Cell membrane structure whose big role is self-identity

A

Glycocalyx

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120
Q

In the phospholipid bilayer, phospholipids move in which direction?

A

Laterally

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121
Q

The phospholipid bilayer is __________ permeable

A

Selectively

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122
Q

Part of cell membrane that contains carbohydrates for cell identity and act as identifiers and part of the glycocalyx

A

Glycolipids

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123
Q

Glycolipids contain ________ for cell identity and act as identifiers and part of the glycocalyx

A

Carbohydrates

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124
Q

A ringed lipid made by the body that helps to stabilize the plasma membrane and maintain fluidity

A

Cholesterol

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125
Q

Proteins which pass all the way through the membrane

A

Integral proteins

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126
Q

Channel proteins in the cell membrane

A

Integral proteins

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127
Q

Proteins in the cell membrane that can act as receptors to bind ligands

A

Integral proteins

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128
Q

Proteins which are only on one side of the membrane

A

Peripheral proteins

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129
Q

Proteins in the cell membrane which can aid in cell signaling or act as enzymes

A

Peripheral proteins

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130
Q

Peripheral proteins can aid in cell _________ or act as __________

A

Signaling; enzymes

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131
Q

Functions of the cell membrane?

A

Acts as barrier
Used as self-identifier
Contains receptors for hormones

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132
Q

The phosphate heads of the cell membrane are hydro_______

A

hydrophilic

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133
Q

The fatty acid tails of the cell membrane are hydro_______

A

hydrophobic

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134
Q

Glycolipids are made of?

A

Lipids + carbohydrates

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135
Q

Cell membrane component that stabilizes

A

Cholesterol

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136
Q

________ transport uses the concentration gradient of a substance, so no energy or ATP is required.

A

Passive

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137
Q

Passive transport uses the ____________ of a substance, so no energy or ATP is required

A

Concentration gradient

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138
Q

In _______ transport, substances flow uphill or are pumped

A

Active

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139
Q

________ transport moves substances against the concentration gradient or must expend energy to perform the transport, so it will need energy or ATP.

A

Active

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140
Q

In passive transport, substances move from an area of _______ concentration to an area of ________ concentration

A

Higher; lower

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141
Q

What are the types of passive transport?

A

Diffusion
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion

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142
Q

Diffusion can happen with or without a __________ membrane

A

Semi-permeable

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143
Q

When particles move from an area of high concentration to low concentration

A

Diffusion (a type of passive transport)

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144
Q

Is energy required for osmosis?

A

No, it is passive transport

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145
Q

Movement of water molecules from a high concentration to low concentration

A

Osmosis

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146
Q

Selective process involving the passive movement of molecules along the concentration gradient.

A

Facilitated diffusion

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147
Q

Do passive transport mechanisms need energy to perform?

A

No

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148
Q

_______ move from high concentration to low concentration

A

Solutes

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149
Q

In _______ diffusion, substances move with the concentration gradient across the cell membrane via the protein channel.

A

facilitated

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150
Q

In _______ transport, substances move from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration

A

Active

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151
Q

Which mode of transport requires energy?

A

Active

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152
Q

What are the types of active transport?

A

Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Protein pumps

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153
Q

What are some types of endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis

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154
Q

The process by which a cell uses its plasma membrane to engulf a large particle, giving rise to an internal compartment called the phagosome.

A

Phagocytosis

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155
Q

The ingestion of liquid into a cell by the budding of small vesicles from the cell membrane.

A

Pinocytosis

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156
Q

What kind of energy does active transport require?

A

ATP

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157
Q

What mode of transport moves substances against the concentration gradient?

A

Active transport

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158
Q

Active transport proteins are often called ________.

A

Pumps

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159
Q

The mechanisms of active transport include?

A

Pumps
Endocytosis
Exocytosis

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160
Q

What is an example of an active transport pump?

A

The sodium/potassium pump

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161
Q

The sodium potassium pump moves sodium ______ the cell and potassium ______ the cell.

A

Out of; into

162
Q

Type of active transport generally used for larger molecules or pathogens

A

Phagocytosis

163
Q

White blood cells removing bacteria would be considered _______ transport

A

Active

164
Q

The movement of glucose into the cell would be considered _________ transport

A

Passive

165
Q

Is phagocytosis active or passive transport?

A

Active

166
Q

Is pinocytosis active or passive transport?

A

Active

167
Q

Is the movement of gases through the cell membrane considered active or passive transport?

A

Passive

168
Q

Is exocytosis considered active or passive transport?

A

Active

169
Q

Is the sodium-potassium pump considered active or passive transport?

A

Active

170
Q

Is diffusion considered active or passive transport?

A

Passive

171
Q

Is endocytosis considered active or passive transport?

A

Active

172
Q

Is facilitated diffusion considered active or passive transport?

A

Passive

173
Q

Is osmosis considered active or passive transport?

A

Passive

174
Q

A _____________ molecule (or region of a molecule) is one that is attracted to water, while a __________ molecule (or region of a molecule) repels and is repelled by water.

A

Hydrophilic; hydrophobic

175
Q

An ___________ molecule is one that contains both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic region.

A

Amphipathic

176
Q

A channel protein is an example of a __________ protein that selectively allows particular materials, such as certain ions, to pass into or out of the cell.

A

Integral

177
Q

A _________ is the specific molecule that binds to and activates a receptor.

A

Ligand

178
Q

__________ helps to contribute to the fluidity of the cell membrane.

A

Cholesterol

179
Q

During __________, ATP is required to move a substance across a membrane, often with the help of protein carriers, and usually against its concentration gradient.

A

Active transport

180
Q

A membrane that has __________ permeability allows only substances meeting certain criteria to pass through it unaided.

A

Selective

181
Q

____________ diffusion is the diffusion process used for those substances that cannot cross the lipid bilayer due to their size, charge, and/or polarity.

A

Facilitated

182
Q

A solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than another solution is said to be _____________, while a solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than another solution is said to be __________

A

Hypertonic; hypotonic.

183
Q

__________ has a lower concentration of fluid, sugars and salt than blood.

A

Hypotonic

184
Q

_________ has a higher concentration of fluid, sugars and salt than blood

A

Hypertonic

185
Q

Any external solution that has a high solute concentration and low water concentration compared to body fluids.

A

Hypertonic solution

186
Q

Any external solution that has a low solute concentration and high water concentration compared to body fluids

A

Hypotonic solution

187
Q

Sequence of DNA that codes for a single protein

A

Gene

188
Q

Loose strand of DNA

A

Chromatin

189
Q

Condensed structure of DNA and proteins formed during cell division; in humans arranged in 23 pairs

A

Chromosome

190
Q

____ is a nucleic acid made of nucleotides containing nitreogenous bases.

A

DNA

191
Q

DNA is a _________ made of nucleotides containing nitreogenous bases.

A

Nucleic acid

192
Q

DNA is a nucleic acid made of _________ containing nitreogenous bases.

A

Nucleotides

193
Q

DNA is a nucleic acid made of nucleotides containing ___________ bases.

A

Nitrogenous

194
Q

The bases of DNA are arranged in ___________ base pairs

A

Complementary

195
Q

Two stands of DNA form a ?

A

Double helix

196
Q

What are the four nitrogenous bases of DNA?

A

Adenine (A)
Thymine (T)
Cytosine (C)
Guanine (G)

197
Q

DNA contains the sugar ______________ and phosphate groups

A

Deoxyribose

198
Q

DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose and __________ groups

A

Phosphate

199
Q

Complentary bases of DNA?

A

A-T and C-G

200
Q

The bases in DNA are held together by _________ bonds

A

Hydrogen

201
Q

Complimentary strand to ATA-GTG

A

TAT-CAC

202
Q

Complimentary strand to TTT-CCG

A

AAA-GGC

203
Q

DNA is usually found in loose strands called ?

A

Chromatin

204
Q

Chromatin is wound around proteins (________) for packaging and called a nucleosome.

A

Histones

205
Q

Chromatin is wound around ________ (histones) for packaging and called a nucleosome.

A

Protein

206
Q

Chromatin is wound around proteins (histones) for packaging and called a ________

A

Nucleosome

207
Q

During cell division, the chromatin will _________ and become visible.

A

Condense

208
Q

During ___________, the chromatin will condense and become visible.

A

Cell division

209
Q

During cell division, the chromatin will condense and become visible. This is known as a ?

A

Chromosome

210
Q

Humans have ___ pairs of chromosomes, to a total of ___ chromosomes.

A

23; 46

211
Q

Both forms of DNA, loose __________ and densely-coiled _________, still hold the genes each cell needs to operate.

A

Chromatin; chromosomes

212
Q

Both forms of DNA, loose chromatin and densely-coiled chromosomes, still hold the _____ each cell needs to operate.

A

Genes

213
Q

A segment of DNA that codes for a product, usually a protein.

A

Gene

214
Q

A gene is a segment of DNA that codes for a product, usually a ?

A

Protein

215
Q

The sequence of _______ found on DNA is the genetic code that is read to make a protein.

A

Bases

216
Q

The sequence of bases found on DNA is the genetic ______ that is read to make a protein.

A

Code

217
Q

The sequence of bases found on DNA is the genetic code that is read to make a ________

A

Protein

218
Q

Before a cell can divide, the DNA in the cell needs to __________ so each new cell gets all the DNA needed to function properly.

A

Replicate

219
Q

Before a cell can _________, the DNA in the cell needs to replicate so each new cell gets all the DNA needed to function properly.

A

Divide

220
Q

An enzyme needed for replication, _______separates the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs

A

Helicase

221
Q

An enzyme needed for replication, ____________ brings in the complimentary base to build a new strand.

A

DNA polymerase

222
Q

During replication, what happens once the two new strands are built?

A

The process stops

223
Q

DNA replication can take place in ________ and results in two identical strands.

A

Interphase

224
Q

After DNA replication, what is the result?

A

Two identical strands; each with one new strand and one old strand.

225
Q

DNA replication results in ?

A

Two identical daughter cells

226
Q

What unwinds the DNA during replication?

A

DNA helicase

227
Q

What creates the two new identical strands in DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase

228
Q

What phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

“S” phase

229
Q

What is necessary to produce identical daughter cells during mitotic cell division?

A

DNA replication

230
Q

How does DNA helicase unwind DNA?

A

By breaking hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases

231
Q

The unwound DNA strands serve as ________ for new, complementary strands

A

Templates

232
Q

What are the three steps to DNA replication?

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

233
Q

During which step in DNA replication are the two complementary strands separated?

A

Initiation

234
Q

During which step in DNA replication do special enzymes, including helicase, untwist and separate the two strands of DNA?

A

Initiation

235
Q

If one strand of DNA has a region with the sequence AGTGCC, then the sequence of the complementary strand would be

A

TCACGG

236
Q

the copying of DNA that occurs before cell division can take place.

A

DNA replication

237
Q

A cell with two copies of a chromosome

A

Diploid

238
Q

A pair of chromosomes, one from each parent

A

Homologous

239
Q

Exact copies of DNA molecules found during mitosis

A

Sister chromatid

240
Q

Attaches two sister chromatids together

A

Centromere

241
Q

Normal body cells (Does not include sex cells: eggs or sperm)

A

Somatic cell

242
Q

Cells containing one half (haploid) of the somatic cells

A

Sex cell

243
Q

All cells have a _____ cycle, and the time that is spent in different phases of the cell cycle varies by cell type.

A

Cell

244
Q

All cells have a cell cycle, and the time that is spent in different phases of the cell cycle ______ by cell type.

A

Varies

245
Q

Neurons ______ divide

A

Do not

246
Q

Neurons do not divide and spend much of their cell cycle in the ___ phase

A

G0

247
Q

Epithelial cells divide ________ and will go through interphase and mitosis every few days.

A

Frequently

248
Q

Epithelial cells divide frequently and will go through _________ and ________ every few days.

A

Interphase; mitosis

249
Q

Epithelial cells divide frequently and will go through interphase and mitosis every few days. The result is two new _________ cells to the original parent cell.

A

Identical

250
Q

Before cells can ________, their DNA must be copied.

A

Divide

251
Q

Before cells can divide, their DNA must be ________

A

Copied

252
Q

Before cells can divide, their DNA must be copied. The resulting DNA is arranged in _____________, and in homologous pairs.

A

Sister chromatids

253
Q

Before cells can divide, their DNA must be copied. The resulting DNA is arranged in sister chromatids, and in _________________

A

Homologous pairs

254
Q

The time when a cell is not dividing.

A

Interphase

255
Q

The time when a cell is not dividing. During ___________, the cell will do normal cell functions and prepare for division.

A

Interphase

256
Q

The time when a cell is not dividing. During interphase, the cell will do ________ cell functions and prepare for division.

A

Normal

257
Q

The time when a cell is not dividing. During interphase, the cell will do normal cell functions and prepare for __________

A

Division

258
Q

The sequence of cell growth and division

A

Cell cycle

259
Q

What are the three phases of interphase?

A

G1, S, G2

260
Q

The G1 phase is part of what cell cycle phase?

A

Interphase

261
Q

The G1 phase of interphase is also called the __________

A

Growth/gap phase 1

262
Q

The S phase is part of what cell cycle phase?

A

Interphase

263
Q

The S phase of interphase is also called the ______ phase

A

Synthesis

264
Q

The G2 phase is part of what cell cycle phase?

A

Interphase

265
Q

The G2 phase of interphase is also called the?

A

Growth/gap phase 2

266
Q

Cell division is also known as the ____ phase in the cell cycle

A

M

267
Q

What are the phases of cell division?

A

Mitosis (nuclear division)
Cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division)

268
Q

Which phase of cell division is nuclear division?

A

Mitosis

269
Q

Which phase of cell division is cytoplasmic division?

A

Cytokinesis

270
Q

How many phases are there of interphase?

A

3 - G1, s, and G2

271
Q

How many phases are there of cell division (M phase)

A

1, which includes mitosis and cytokinesis

272
Q

How many phases total are there in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Interphase (G1, S, and G2), and M phase (mitosis and cytokinesis)
273
Q

During which phase of interphase does cell growth occur?

A

G1

274
Q

During which phase of interphase does DNA replication occur?

A

S

275
Q

During which phase of interphase does additional cell division preparation occur?

A

G2

276
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does Mitosis and cytokinesis occur?

A

M

277
Q

What is G0?

A

The resting phase of the cell cycle - the cell will not divide.

278
Q

The first growth phase for cells that will divide again

A

G1

279
Q

__ phase is the replication (synthesis) of DNA

A

S

280
Q

____ phase is the second growth phase, and the cell prepares for mitosis.

A

G2

281
Q

The phase where the cell is actively dividing

A

M phase

282
Q

The longest phase of interphase?

A

S phase

283
Q

the time when a cell is actively dividing

A

Mitosis

284
Q

What are the four phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

285
Q

What is visible in the cell during prophase (of mitosis)?

A

The nucleolus and chromatin

286
Q

During what phase of mitosis does chromatin condense into chromosomes?

A

Prophase

287
Q

The central part of a chromosome

A

Centromere

288
Q

The two “bunny ears” of a chromosome are ?

A

Sister chromatids

289
Q

During which phase of mitosis do centrioles line up chromosomes a the equator?

A

Metaphase

290
Q

During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids break apart at the centromere and move to opposite poles?

A

Anaphase

291
Q

During which phase of mitosis do Two nuclei form after nuclear envelopes reform around each group of chromosomes?

A

Telophase

292
Q

Where are the centrioles located during anaphase?

A

At the poles

293
Q

During which phase of mitosis are there two nucleoli

A

Telophase

294
Q

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes condense and become visible as homologous pairs and as sister chromatids?

A

Prophase

295
Q

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear?

A

Prophase

296
Q

During which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers form from the centromere (centriole) and attach to the centromere?

A

Prophase

297
Q

During which phase of mitosis do the centrioles move toward opposite poles?

A

Prophase

298
Q

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate or equator?

A

Metaphase

299
Q

During which phase of mitosis do the spindle fibers attach to the centromeres, holding sister chromatids together?

A

Metaphase

300
Q

During which phase of mitosis do the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled towards each pole?

A

Anaphase

301
Q

During which phase of mitosis do the spindle fibers shorten to pull the chromosomes toward the poles? Other fibers also elongate to begin separating the cell.

A

Anaphase

302
Q

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes at their new poles decondense into chromatin?

A

Telophase

303
Q

During which phase of mitosis does a nuclear membrane start surrounding the chromosomes?

A

Telophase

304
Q

During which phase of mitosis does the mitotic spindle break down?

A

Telophase

305
Q

During which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers keep pushing the poles apart?

A

Telophase

306
Q

The phase that overlaps at the end of telophase

A

Cytokinesis

307
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytosplasm separate between the new cells?

A

Cytokinesis

308
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle is a cleavage furrow made by microfilaments (actin filaments) which create a separation between the two new cells?

A

Cytokinesis

309
Q

During the normal cell cycle, how many checkpoints are there where the cell either proceeds or stops?

A

3

310
Q

What are the three checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

G1 checkpoint (restriction
G2 checkpoint
M checkpoint

311
Q

The ___ checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready to replicate the DNA.

A

G1

312
Q

The G1 checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready to replicate the DNA. The cell is large enough has enough reserves for ___________

A

DNA replication

313
Q

What is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle?

A

G1

314
Q

What is the second checkpoint in the cell cycle?

A

G2

315
Q

What is the third and final checkpoint in the cell cycle?

A

M checkpoint

316
Q

The ___ checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready for mitosis. The DNA must be properly replicated.

A

G2

317
Q

The G2 checkpoint is when the cell needs to be ready for mitosis. The DNA must be properly ________

A

Replicated

318
Q

What is necessary for a cell to pass the G2 checkpoint?

A

DNA must be properly replicated

319
Q

What is necessary for a cell to pass the G2 checkpoint?

A

The cell must be large enough and have enough reserves for DNA replication

320
Q

The ___ checkpoint occurs during metaphase of mitosis to make sure all sister chromatids are attached and in the proper places so each cell gets a complete set of chromosomes.

A

M

321
Q

What must happen for a cell to pass the M checkpoint?

A

All sister chromatids must be attached and in the proper place so each cell gets a complete set of chromosomes.

322
Q

Cell signals tell the cell to either ___ (divide) or _____ (don’t divide)

A

Go; stop

323
Q

Cell signals tell the cell to either ______ or _______

A

Go (divide); stop (don’t divide)

324
Q

common cell signal regulating mitosis.

A

Cyclins

325
Q

What are cyclins?

A

common cell signal regulating mitosis.

326
Q

What tells the cell to divide?

A

Proto-oncogenes

327
Q

__________ tell the cell to divide.

A

Proto-oncogenes

328
Q

________ genes tell the cell to stop.

A

Tumor suppressor

329
Q

What king of genes tell the cell to stop dividing?

A

Tumor suppressor genes

330
Q

________ can make a proto-oncogene into an oncogene.

A

Mutations

331
Q

Mutations can make a proto-oncogene into an _________

A

Oncogene

332
Q

A change in the nucleotide sequence in a gene within a cell’s DNA, potentially altering the protein coded for that gene.

A

Mutation

333
Q

A mutation is A change in the __________ sequence in a gene within a cell’s DNA, potentially altering the protein coded for that gene.

A

Nucleotide

334
Q

A mutation is A change in the nucleotide sequence in a gene within a cell’s DNA, potentially altering the _______ coded for that gene.

A

Protein

335
Q

What is an ROS?

A

Reactive oxygen species

336
Q

Reactive oxygen species (ROS) can cause permanent damage to:

A

Cellular lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids

337
Q

What is an example of a reactive oxygen species (ROS)?

A

Hydrogen peroxide

338
Q

Damaged DNA can lead to genetic __________ and even _________

A

Mutations; cancer

339
Q

Lack of cell regulation can allow cells to grow out of control

A

Cancer

340
Q

Lack of cell ___________ can allow cells to grow out of control

A

Regulation

341
Q

__________ cells lack contact inhibition, don’t resemble the cell of origin and often invade nearby tissues.

A

Cancerous

342
Q

Cancerous cells lack contact ___________, don’t resemble the cell of origin and often invade nearby tissues.

A

Inhibition

343
Q

Cancerous cells lack contact inhibition, don’t resemble the cell of _______ and often invade nearby tissues.

A

Origin

344
Q

Cancerous cells lack contact inhibition, don’t resemble the cell of origin and often invade nearby ________

A

Tissues

345
Q

Possible causes of cancer?

A

An abnormal oncogene with a continuous go signal; or a lack of a tumor suppressor gene that doesn’t tell the cells to stop.

346
Q

Cancerous cells that travel to new sites are ____________

A

Metastasizing

347
Q

Chromosomes pear, the nucleoli disappear, and the nuclear envelope disappears.

A

Prophase

348
Q

Spindle fibers break down and chromatin appears.

A

Telophase

349
Q

Chromatid pairs separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell.

A

Anaphase

350
Q

The cytoplasm splits to form daughter cells.

A

Cytokinesis

351
Q

Chromosomes align down the center of the cell.

A

Metaphase

352
Q

During this stage, the sister chromatids, with their attached microtubules, line up along a linear plane in the middle of the cell.

A

Metaphase

353
Q

Characterized by the formation of two new daughter nuclei at either end of the dividing cell is this phase?

A

Telophase

354
Q

_________ are changes in DNA that can be passed to a new generation of cells

A

Mutations

355
Q

A lack of cell signaling during ________ can lead to cancer.

A

Mitosis

356
Q

During which checkpoint is the cell getting ready to replicate DNA

A

G1

357
Q

During which checkpoint is the DNA replicated correctly?

A

G2

358
Q

During which checkpoint are chromosomes all attached and lined up?

A

M

359
Q

The chemical that can signal a cell to divide or stop dividing is

A

Cyclins

360
Q

Two bases bonded together making the rung of the DNA and used to create DNA or RNA. (A-T, C-G in DNA; A-U, C-G in RNA)

A

Base pairing

361
Q

DNA to RNA

A

Transcription

362
Q

RNA to protein

A

Translation

363
Q

Codes for an amino acid

A

Sense codons

364
Q

Stop signs for translation

A

Stop codons

365
Q

Found on tRNA; complementary bases to the mRNA codon

A

Anticodon

366
Q

Small proteins made with amino acids joined by peptide bonds.

A

Polypeptide

367
Q

_____ has the genes needed to code for a particular protein.

A

DNA

368
Q

DNA has the genes needed to code for a particular ________

A

Protein

369
Q

DNA has the ______ needed to code for a particular protein.

A

Genes

370
Q

The process of protein synthesis occurs is a series of steps starting in the _________ and ending at the __________

A

Nucleus; ribosome

371
Q

DNA is in the ________ and is double stranded.

A

Nucleus

372
Q

DNA is in the nucleus and is _________ stranded.

A

Double

373
Q

__________ is the sugar on one strand and phosphate is on the other stand with the base pairs AT & CG connecting them.

A

Deoxyribose

374
Q

Deoxyribose is the sugar on one strand and __________ is on the other strand with the base pairs AT & CG connecting them.

A

Phosphate

375
Q

Proteins are ________ dependent and run many of the cells functions as enzymes.

A

Shape

376
Q

The process of making protein is _____________, not all genes are expressed at all times.

A

Gene expression

377
Q

____ > RNA > Protein

A

DNA

378
Q

DNA > _____ > Protein

A

RNA

379
Q

DNA > RNA > _________

A

Protein

380
Q

________ > Codon > Amino Acid

A

Triplet

381
Q

Triplet > ________ > Amino Acid

A

Codon

382
Q

Triplet > Codon > ____________

A

Amino acid

383
Q

RNA is important for building _______

A

Proteins

384
Q

There are several different types of RNA, each having different ___________ in the cell.

A

Functions

385
Q

The structure of RNA is similar to _____with a few small exceptions.

A

DNA

386
Q

Most types of RNA, including mRNA, are _______-stranded and contain no complementary strand.

A

Single

387
Q

Most types of RNA, including ______, are single-stranded and contain no complementary strand.

A

mRNA

388
Q

Most types of RNA, including mRNA, are single-stranded and contain no ___________ strand.

A

Complementary

389
Q

RNA contains ______, whereas DNA has _________

A

ribose; deoxyribose

390
Q

Instead of the base ________, RNA contains the base _______.

A

Thymine; uracil

391
Q

Instead of the base thymine, RNA contains the base uracil. This means that _________ will always pair up with uracil during the protein synthesis process.

A

Adenine

392
Q

RNA is made of?

A

Ribose sugar
Phosphates
The bases A, U, C, G

393
Q

The DNA strand is used to create?

A

RNA
mRNA (messenger)
tRNA (transfer)
rRNA (ribosomal)

394
Q

What is mRNA?

A

Messenger RNA

395
Q

What is tRNA

A

Transfer RNA

396
Q

What is rRNA?

A

Ribosomal RNA

397
Q

The gene of DNA is made into a ________ molecule that can be used to create a protein.

A

mRNA

398
Q

The gene of DNA is made into a mRNA molecule that can be used to create a ________

A

Protein

399
Q

DNA is written in three base groups called a _______

A

Triplet

400
Q

RNA is written in three bases called _______

A

Codons

A&PI Theory Nursing School Quarter 1 (5 decks)

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