Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is false regarding pseudopregnancy?
A- It can cause lactation
B- It is a hormonal imbalance
C- It is common in spayed females
D- It will resolve on its own

A

C- It is common in spayed females

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2
Q

Cryptorchidism is considered what in the canine?
A- One or both testes haven’t decended into the scrotum
B- The canine was fixed at an early age
C- One or more of the ovaries aren’t mature
D- Genetic issue with the liver

A

A- One or both testes haven’t decended into the scrotum

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3
Q

Client education is the most important preventative of juvenile hypoglucemia. Some of the things that technicians need to pass onto clients of at risk puppies include the importance of…?
A- Deworming
B- Reducing stress
C- Keeping the puppy warm
D- Feeding multiple times (3-4minimum) a day
E- All of the Above

A

E- All of the Above

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4
Q

The mitral vale is the…?
A- Right AV Valve
B- Left AV Valve
C- Right Semilunar Valve
D- Left Semilunar Valve

A

B- Left AV Valve

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5
Q

Signs of Pyometra include…?
A- Lethargy
B- PU/PD
C- Discharge (open cervix)
D- All of the above

A

D- All of the above

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6
Q

Idiopathic means…?
A- The study of the cause of the diseas
B- identifiable body response
C- development of a disease
D- The cause of the disease is unknown

A

D- The cause of the disease is unknown

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7
Q

Pepper has an echocardiogram after the veterinarian heard a heart murmur. the radiologist sees evidence of that suggest the possibility of heart disease. Pepper has no clinical signs at this time. Because Pepper is asymptomatic the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing or _____. which can be the first sign the heart disease has progressed to heart failure.

A- Tachypnea
B- Inadequate tissue perfusion
C- bradycardia
D- Syncope

A

A- Tachypnea

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8
Q

Which best describes the Queen (Feline)?
A- Spontaneous ovularity
B- Hormone Ovulatory
C- Pseudo-ovulatory
D- induced Ovulatory

A

D- induced Ovulatory

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9
Q

As long as neonates are close to their dams and the mammary glands they can maintain…?
A- Their body weight
B- Comfort
C- thermal Balance
D- a bond

A

C- thermal Balance

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10
Q

What is it called when a dog is unable to completely retract the penis into the prepuce?
A- Dystocia
B- Paraphimosis
C- Metritis
D- Pyometra

A

B- Paraphimosis

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11
Q

Which statement is false regarding false pregnancy?
A- Dramatic personality changes will occur
B- Animals will likely be less agressive
C- It helps prevent roaming
D- risk of testicular and mammary cancer is decreased

A

A- Dramatic personality changes will occur

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12
Q

Gestation of the dog is…?
A- 21days
B- 63 days
C- 150 days
D- 289 days

A

B- 63 days

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13
Q

A patient exhibits ____, which means the patient is coughing up blood - a symptom seen with heartworm disease.
A- Hypoxemia
B- Hypoxia
C- Dyspnea
D- Hemoptysis

A

D- Hemoptysis

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14
Q

Ovulation is the …?
A- hormone that maintains pregnancy
B- Transformation of the ovarian follice into a corpus luteum
C- term regerring to the entire reproductive cycle in the female
D- release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle

A

D- release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle

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15
Q

An owner has been keeping his cat’s newborn kittens warm with extra bedding. At what age do puppies and kittens have a temperature that is similar to an adults temperature?
A- 2 weeks
B- 4 weeks
C- 6 weeks
D- 8 weeks

A

C- 6 weeks

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16
Q

_____ meaning difficult birth, represents the majority of obstetric emergencies.
A- Azotemia
B- Dystocia
C- Fetodystosis
D- Triage

A

B- Dystocia

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17
Q

Mastitis is …?
A- A bacterial infection of the uterus
B- A bacterial infection of the mammary glands
C- inability to retract the penis into the prepuce
D- inflammation of the testis

A

B- A bacterial infection of the mammary glands

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18
Q

You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is sitting upright with her head and neck extended, a sign referred to as …?
A- Dyspnea
B- Hypoxemia
C- Orthopnea
D- hypoxia

A

C- Orthopnea

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19
Q

Which feline disease is caused by a herpes virus?
A- Chlamydia
B- Rhinotracheitis
C- FIV
D- Panleukopenia

A

B- Rhinotracheitis

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20
Q

This type of cardiovascular disease affects 80% of heart cases in cats.
A- Valvular disease
B- Mitral valve insufficiency
C- myocaridal disease
D- pericardial effusion

A

C- myocaridal disease

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21
Q

Whlping is …?
A- parturition in a canine
B- parturition in a feline
C- parturition in a caprine
D- the sound a dog makes when left in the backyard alone

A

A- parturition in a canine

22
Q

A client calls into report that her dog has just given birth to a litter of puppies. She tells you “I’m worried that they’re sleeping too much. About how often should the puppied be nursing?” What will you tell her?
A- Twice a day
B- Three times a day
C- every 2-4 hours
D- every 4-6 hours

A

C- every 2-4 hours

23
Q

Your patient’s fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outsides of the otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as …?
A - tenesmus
B- hematemesis
C- melena
D- hematochezia

A

D- hematochezia

24
Q

Ringworm is zoonotic and clients should not worry about it spreading to them T/F?

25
Parturition is the act of producing milk in mammary glands T/F?
False
26
You are unable to access a vein for intraveinous adminitration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse. You must administer fluids soon. What alternative route might you use with success? A- IM B- IO C- SC D- Surgical implant
B- IO
27
A pruritic skin disease in dogs that develops due to inhalation of particles such as house dust, pollen, and mold is called ...? A- Dermatophytosis B- Pyoderma C- Atopy D- Hot Spots
C- Atopy
28
What is the amount of tiem it should take between puppies (no active labor) before we become concerned? A- 30 minutes B- 1 hour C- 4 hours D- 2 hours E- 20 minutes
D- 2 hours
29
Which of these mites is always pruritic? A- Sarcoptes B- Demodex C- Both sarcoptes and demodex
A- Sarcoptes
30
When is the earliest we can diagnose a pregnancy with ultrasound? A- 40 days B- 8 days C- 32 days D- 17 days
D- 17 days
31
Cryptorchid dogs should be neutered T/F?
true
32
The most common way to diagnose mange in a cat or dog is by performing a ...? A- Punch biopsy B- Skin scraping C- cellophane tape prep D- woods light examination
B- Skin scraping
33
Which of the following would not be part of parvo treatment? A- Use of disposable bedding B- keeping the patient in the isolation ward C- NPO D- frequent walks outside to accommodate large volume of diarrhea
D- frequent walks outside to accommodate large volume of diarrhea
34
________is a bacterial infection of the uterus with purulent fluid accumulation. A- metritis B- pyometra C- paraphimosis D- dystocia
B- pyometra
35
The overall process for disease may be summarized in which of the following ways? A - Eitology - Clinical Signs - Pathogenesis - Lesions B- Pathogenesis - eitology - clinical signs - lesions C- clinical signs - lesions - eitology - pathogenesis D- eitology - pathogenesis - lesions - clinical signs
D- eitology - pathogenesis - lesions - clinical signs
36
Paraphimosis is a medical emergency T/F?
True
37
A tumor that has the ability to spread from tissue of origin is called ...? A- Malignant B- sarcoma C- Benign D- Carcinoma
A- Malignant
38
Which of the following viral diseases of dogs is resilient in the enviroment, is easily spread by dogs and owners shoes, and is not easily killed by common disinfectants? A- Distempter B- Parainfluenza C- Parvovirus D- Lyme disease
C- Parvovirus
39
With chronic glaucoma, a major finding is an enlarged globe of the eye. T/F?
True
40
Animals are considered neonated until they reach .... years of age. A- 2 weeks B- 4 weeks C- 6 weeks D- 8 weeks
B- 4 weeks
41
Which valve is most commonly involved in AV valve disease in dogs? A- Mitral valve B- tricuspid valve C- aortic valve D- pulmonic valve
A- Mitral valve
42
How does the queen or bitch stimulate uriniation or defecation of the newborn? A- By massaging the newborns abdomen B- there is no need for stimulation C- by applying pressure to the urogenital area D- by licking the urogenital area
D- by licking the urogenital area
43
Having a dog spayed is recommended to avoid pyometra. T/F?
True
44
The most common bateria associated with pyoderma is ...? A - Pemphigus spp. B- E. Coli C- Staphylococci spp. D- Pseudomonas
C- Staphylococci spp.
45
Which of the following statements about cardiac disease is false? A- The body has very few compensatory mechanisma to maintain cardiac output when faced with an abnormally functioning heart B- early cardiac disease has subtle clinical signs such as mild exercise intolerance, lethargy, or tachypnea C- in cats, myocardial diaseas accounts for the majority of heart disease cases D- in dogs, valvular disease accounts for the majority of heart disease cases
A- The body has very few compensatory mechanisma to maintain cardiac output when faced with an abnormally functioning heart
46
The most common place for a flea allergy to manifest on a dog is ...? A- The ventral neck B- the ears C- the abdomen D- the tail head
D- the tail head
47
If an apparently healthy, vaccinated dog or cat bites a human, how long should they be quarantined for rabies observation? A- 10 days B- 90 days C- 3-8 weeks D- 6 months
A- 10 days
48
Congestive heart failure (CHF) results when decreased cardiac output causes poor venous return to the heart. The the left side of the heart is afflicted, this condition is classified as left-sided CHF. In this condition fluid builds up in the ...? A- Tissues of the extermeties B- Abdominal cavity C- pulmonary vasculature D- CNS as verebral edema
C- pulmonary vasculature
49
In the infection process, a reservoir refers to ...? A- transmission of infection by direct contact with skin, secretions, excretions, or mucous membranes of an infected animal B- a pathogens mode of transmission C- an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive D- the portal of entry by which the pathogen gains entry into a new host
C- an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive
50
Ringworm (dermatophytosis) is a fungal skin infection cause by microsporum and ...? A- Mohygenese B- Trichophyton C- Pseudomonas D- Ianosporum
B- Trichophyton
51
A common tumor on the oral cavity of dogs is ________ and is usually considered ____ A- Fibrosarcoma, benign B- mast cell tumor, malignant C- melanoma, benign D- Melanoma, malignant
D- Melanoma, malignant