Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following types of mutations can result in a
frameshift?
nucleotide-pair substitution in a coding region
* nucleotide-pair substitution in a noncoding
region
* 1 nucleotide-pair insertion in a coding region
* 1 nucleotide-pair insertion in a noncoding
region
* 3 nucleotide-pair insertion in a coding region

A

1 nucleotide-pair insertion in a coding region

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2
Q

What is the function of cell division?

A

-Development from a fertilized cell
-Growth
-Repair

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3
Q

What is mother Cell?

A

It’s when the cell divided.

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4
Q

What is Daughter cell?

A

When the cells form after the division.

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5
Q

What are DNA cells made of?

A

Genome

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6
Q

What are Prokaryotic cells?

A

A single DNA cell.

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7
Q

what are Eukaryotic cells?

A

Many number of cells.

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8
Q

Where are DNA molecules packaged in?

A

Chromosomes

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9
Q

What are Somatic cells?

A

non-reproductive cells) Have two sets of chromosomes (your skin)

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10
Q

What are Gametes?

A

Reproductive cells: sperm and eggs) have half as many chromosomes as Somatic cells.

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11
Q

What are Chromatin?

A

a complex of DNA and protein that reduces during cell division.

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12
Q

What is Chromatid?

A

is one half of a duplicated chromosome.

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13
Q

When are Chromatids form?

A

During chromosome duplication

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14
Q

What are Centromere?

A

holds the chromatids together

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15
Q

What are Telomeres?

A

repeating sequences at the ends of chromosomes that replication of the end of the chromosomes. Preservation of the end of each chromosome.

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16
Q

What shapes are Eukaryotic chromosomes?

A

linear chromosomes

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17
Q

What shape are Prokaryotes?

A

have circular DNA

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18
Q

Eukaryotic cell division consists of?

A

Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Mitotic phase, Gametes

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19
Q

What is Mitosis?

A

The division of the nucleus

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20
Q

What is Cytokinesis?

A

the division of the cytoplasm

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21
Q

What is Mitotic phase?

A

together mitosis and cytokinesis

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22
Q

What is meiosis?

A

variation of cell division. Sperm and eggs

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23
Q

What are the steps to the cell cycle?

A

-Interphase (transcription and translation happens)
-G1 (the cell grows physically and increases the volume of both protein and organelles)
-S stage ( Each of the 46 chromosomes is duplicated by the cell)
-G2 ( repairs errors)
-M phase 1 (Mitosis is division of chromosomes, genetic material)
- Cytokinesis Phase 2 (is the division of the rest of the cell )

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24
Q

In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many centromeres will be found in a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle?

A

8

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25
Q

What are the five phases of mitosis?

A

-Prophase
-Prometaphase
-Metaphase
-Anaphase
-Telophase

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26
Q

What is Kinetochore?

A

Where the microtubules attaches to the chromosomes in the centrosome.

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27
Q

What is happens cleavage furrows in miosis?

A

draws the plasma membrane toward the cell center, pinching the cytoplasm into two lobes that are subsequently separated into two cells.

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28
Q

what is phycoplast?

A

ensures that the plane of cell division passes exactly between the two daughter nuclei.

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29
Q

What is phragmoplast?

A

Formation that divides the two daughter cells.

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30
Q

What is binary fission?

A

a process by which a single cell splits into two cells to multiply

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31
Q

What cells use binary fission?

A

Prokaryotic cells

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32
Q

Which of the following events would be most likely to produce cells with several nuclei?

A

repeated mitosis without cytokinesis

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33
Q

Besides the ability of cancer cells to divide intensively, what else could logically result in a tumor?

A

lack of appropriate cell death

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34
Q

Name four things that you should do or avoid to do to decrease the chances for cancer development.

A

keeping a healthy weight, avoiding tobacco, limiting the amount of alcohol you drink, and protecting your skin.

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35
Q

_ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.

A

Phospholipids

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36
Q

What is Maturation promoting factor?

A

is the signal for chromosomes to enter mitosis and for the cell for later on to enter cytokinesis

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37
Q

Which of the following statements best describes what would happen if MPF (maturation-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2?

A

The cells would enter mitosis.

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38
Q

Students in a biology lab isolated cells in various phases of the cell cycle. A population of cells that have twice the DNA of G1 phase cells was most likely isolated from which of the following part of the cell cycle?

A

in the G2 phase

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39
Q

What is Maturation promoting made of?

A

-Cyclins
Kinases

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40
Q

What does Cyclin-dependent kinase do?

A

When the cell goes through G1, S, G2, and M the kinase
After the cell finishes the DNA synthesis is progressing through G2, before it arrives to the check points G2 check points the cyclin is attached to it and forming a dimer

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41
Q

What are the signals that turn the cell cycle on?

A

Density-dependent inhibition

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42
Q

What is Heredity?

A

Is the transmission of recipes of traits. You get the recipe the genes from your parents on how to make the proteins.

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43
Q

Which of the following events occurs during telophase?

A
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44
Q

How does Prophase look like?

A

chromosomes become visible because the chromosomes condense.

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45
Q

How does Prometaphase look like?

A

the nuclear envelope disappears

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46
Q

What does Metaphase look like?

A

chromosomes a line on a metaphase plate/ invisible metaphase plate

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47
Q

What happens in Anaphase?

A

sister chromatids separate

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48
Q

What happened in Telophase?

A

re-formation of the nuclear envelope and cytokinesis quickly follows mitosis.

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49
Q

How come chromosomes can move?

A

they move because of Microtubules. Microtubules attached to them

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50
Q

What is Locus?

A

genes are located in the linear order on a chromosome

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51
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

that’s when the parental organism gives rise to next generation without contribution from the other sexual partner

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52
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

identical Chromosomes from mom and dad

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53
Q

What is Karyotype?

A

is the chromosomes in order from biggest to smallest

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54
Q

What is Human somatic cells?

A

any cell other than a gamete) have 23 pairs of chromosomes

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55
Q

What is a diploid stage?

A

we got our generic material from one parent and from another parent so two copies so we are diploid.

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56
Q

What is haploid?

A

The number of chromosome we get from one parent is 23

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57
Q

What is autosomes?

A

23 chromosomes that have noting to do with your sex chromosomes

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58
Q

What is zygote?

A

The product of fertilization of that fusion

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59
Q

What are the Two steps for Sexual reproduction?

A

Meiosis
Fertilization

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60
Q

How meiosis reduces chromosome number?

A

-start with homologous chromosomes in diploid stage
- Chromosomes replicate
- sister chromatids
- Meiosis I separates
-Meiosis II sister chromatids separate

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61
Q

What does not happen in mitosis, but happens in Meiosis?

A

The two replication DNA found itself and they form a homologous pair.

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61
Q

What are the Stages of Meiosis?

A

-prophase I (When homologous chromosomes pair, they can exchange pieces of genetic material this is known as crossing over
they can exchange a pieces of genetic material between non-sister chromatids
-Metaphase I (Where homologous chromosomes align on the metaphase plate)
-Anaphase I ( We have homologous chromosomes separate. Sister chromatids remain attaches and move toward the pole
Telophase I and Cytokinesis)
- Meiosis II (without DNA replication)
-Prophase II (each still composed of two chromatids moves toward the metaphase plate)
-Metaphase II ( arranged at the metaphase plate)
-Anaphase II (the sister chromatids separate)
-Telophase II and Cytokinesis (the chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles and Nuclei form and chromosomes start decondensing)

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62
Q

A particular organism has 46 chromosomes in its Karyotype. Which of the following statement is correct regarding this organism?

A

It produces gametes with 23 chromosomes

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63
Q

Which of the following statements describes a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis in a diploid animal?

A

Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, while mitosis occurs in diploid cells

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64
Q

___we produce two cells that are genetically identical and are still diploid

A

Mitosis

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65
Q

___we produce four cells that have a haploid chromosomes number, half and they are not genetically the same to the maternal cell.

A

Meiosis

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66
Q

has PMAT

A

Mitosis

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67
Q

has PMAT twice

A

Meiosis

68
Q

What are The origins of Genetic Variation?

A
  • Crossing-over
  • Independent Assortment
    -Random Fertilization
69
Q

Crossing over of chromosomes normally takes place which of the following processes?

A

Meiosis I

70
Q

Quaking aspen trees usually reproduce by extending underground stems that then push above ground and grow into trees. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but when it does happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in cells of the underground stems?

A

38

71
Q

Which of the following
contribute to variation in
offspring for sexually
reproducing organisms?

a) Independent orientation
of tetrads during
meiosis
b) Crossing over of during
tetrad formation
c) Sexual reproduction
d) All of the above

A

d

72
Q

Homologous chromosomes _________.

a. carry the same gene sequence
– b. are a set of chromosomes that a cell
receives from one parent
– c. do not include the sex chromosomes
– d. are formed when the chromosomes
separated during anaphase

A

a

73
Q

How and at what stage do
chromosomes undergo
independent assortment?
a) meiosis I pairing of homologs
b) anaphase I separation of homologs
c) meiosis II separation of homologs
d) meiosis I metaphase alignment
e) meiosis I telophase

A

d

74
Q
  1. The diagram above
    represents the cell cycle
    through time of a eukaryotic
    organism. Which of the four
    phases of the cell cycle is the
    most variable in length of time,
    depending on the type of cell?
    a) G1 phase
    b) S phase
    c) G2 phase
    d) M phase
A

a

75
Q

Which of the following events occurs during Metaphase?
-a. chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell
– b. nucleoli reappear
– c. the mitotic spindle begins to form
– d. cytokinesis

A

a

76
Q

Which of the following events occurs during prophase?
-a. chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell
– b. nucleoli reappear
– c. the mitotic spindle begins to form
– d. cytokinesis

A

c

77
Q

Which of the following events occurs during anaphase?
– a. chromosomes align on the midline of the cell
– b. the cleavage furrow forms
– c. tetrads form
– d. centromeres divide

A

b

78
Q

Which of the following events occurs during telophase?
– a. chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell
– b. nucleoli reappear
– c. the mitotic spindle begins to form
– d. cytokinesis

A

b

79
Q

Which of the following events occurs during Prophase I of meiosis?
– a. chromosomes align on the midline of the cell
– b. the cleavage furrow forms
– c. tetrads form
– d. centromeres divide

A

c

80
Q

Which of the following events occurs during anaphase II ?
– a. chromosomes align on the midline of the cell
– b. the cleavage furrow forms
– c. tetrads form
– d. centromeres divide

A

d

81
Q

A duplicated chromosome consists of two
sister______
– a. centromeres
– b. centrosomes
– c. chromatids
– d. chromatins

A

c.

82
Q

What did Greg Mendel do?

A

he hypothesized that there has to be a unit that determines inheritance and that this is passed from generation to generation

83
Q

What is Hybridization?

A

the process of mating the individuals that go in the cross are parents.

84
Q

What is Alternative versions?

A

account for variations in inherited characters

85
Q

What is locus?

A

Each gene is place in the specific place on the chromosome

86
Q

What is alleles?

A

one of two or more versions of DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a given genomic location

87
Q

What is homozygous?

A

having inherited the same versions (alleles) of a genomic marker from each biological parent.

88
Q

What is genotype?

A

The description of the genetic material

89
Q

What is phenotype?

A

This genes code for proteins that define the physical appearance of an organism

90
Q

Where do Homologous chromosomes come from?

A

come from your parents one from mom and one from dad so we have two alleles for each gene

91
Q

What is Hybrid?

A

offspring of two different varieties

92
Q

What is Heterozygous?

A

When an organism has different alleles for a gene.

93
Q

What is Dominant alleles?

A

gene always expressed even if heterozygous

94
Q

What is allelic interactions?

A

This gene interaction occurs between the alleles of a single gene.

95
Q

What is Phenotype?

A

physical appearance

96
Q

What is Genotype?

A

generic makeup

97
Q

what is One locus?

A

To tell us where on a chromosome a specific gene is.

98
Q

what is Multiple loci?

A

is the set of genes at more than one locus which is inherited by an individual from one of its parents.

99
Q

How would you know an individual is homozygous recessive if you can see it the trayed that makes them homozygous?

A

We always testcross with a homozygous recessive

100
Q

What did Mendel discover two laws for classical genetics

A
  1. Law of segregation
    1. Independent assortment
101
Q

What is complete dominance?

A

strong covers the recessive allele

102
Q

What is Hypercholesterolemia?

A

mode of inheritance (also known in human genetics)

103
Q

What is Multiple Alleles?

A

the situation where we have more than two alleles in a population

104
Q

why is immunoglobulin A and immunoglobulin B shown in capital letters?

A

they are both dominant

105
Q

what is Third extension of Mendel’s rule?

A

codominance

106
Q

What an example of codominance?

A

when both alleles are expressed
With blood type we can have 6 number of genotypes
-I can have homozygous dominant for immunoglobulin A
- I can have homozygote dominant for immunoglobulin B
- AB blood is heterozygous dominant

107
Q

What is the Fourth extension of Mendel’s law?

A

pleiotropy

108
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

when I still have a single gene, but that gene affects many traits

109
Q

What is Polygenic trait?

A

when I have multiple genes affecting one trait

110
Q

What is Epistasis?

A

a gene at one locus alters the phenotypic expression of a gene as a second locus.

111
Q

What is the 6th extension of Mendel’s law?

A

Role in Environmental impact on Phenotype

112
Q

Marfan syndrome in humans is caused by an abnormality of the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually very tall and thin, with long spindly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened arterial walls, and sometimes eye problems, such as lens dislocation. Which of the following would you conclude about Marfan syndrome from this information?

A

It is pleiotropic.

113
Q

What is the genotype of an individual
who is heterozygous for dimples?
– a. DD
– b. dd
– c. Dd
– d. dimples

A

C

114
Q

What is Genetic map?

A

an ordered list of the genetic loci along a particular chromosome

115
Q

A recombination frequency of 50% indicates____________.

A

the two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes

116
Q

A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 had red fruit and yellow flowers. F1 plants were testcrossed (crossing them to homozygous recessive individuals), and the following offspring were obtained: Red fruit and yellow flowers–41 Red fruit and white flowers–7 Golden fruit and yellow flowers–8 Golden fruit and white flowers–44 How many map units separate these genes?

A

15

117
Q

What is Point mutations?

A

are chemical changes in just one base pair of a gene. That one point on a chromosome is one nucleotide

118
Q

Mutations are changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA that ____.

A

can be passed on to daughter cells

119
Q

Common form of skin cancer

A

Is when the double T bond that can be trigger by the boost of energy coming from UV light/ tanning booths

120
Q

what is Monosomic zygote

A

one chromosome less

121
Q

What is Trismic?

A

one chromosome more

122
Q

In humans Aneuploidy is survivable in chromosome __________

A

21

123
Q

What are Klinefelter syndrome sex chromosomes?

A

Aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes involving XXY

124
Q

What are Turner syndrome sex chromosomes?

A

Aneuploidy XO

125
Q

Klinefelter syndrome and trisomy are examples of_____

A

Aneuploidy disorders involving sex chromosomes

126
Q

What is Polyploidy?

A

an organism has more than two complete sets of chromosomes. Entire genome

127
Q

What is Triploidy

A

3n three sets of chromosomes

128
Q

what is Tetraploid

A

4n four set of chromosomes

129
Q

What is Deletion?

A

removes a chromosomal segment

130
Q

What is Duplication?

A

repeats a segment

131
Q

What is Inversion?

A

reverses a segment within a chromosome

132
Q

What is Translocation?

A

moves a segment from one chromosome to another

133
Q

Why would translocation happen?

A

our DNA is made of four nucleotides. The sequences can repeat and then we can have some kind of pending because the sequences would seem to have homology

134
Q

What is the map unit?

A

One map unit 1 centimorgan represents 1% of recombination frequency

135
Q

Who constructed the first genetic map?

A

Alfred

136
Q

A recombination frequency of 50% indicates____________.

A

the two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes

137
Q

Barbara McClintock provided the first proof for the chromosomal theory of inheritance, with_____

A

her corn work

138
Q

Steps of chromosomal theory of inheritance acceptance

A
  • First Thomas Morgan
    • Alfred Sturtevant
      -Barbara McClintock
139
Q

What is Non-disjunction?

A

is the lack of separation of either homologous pair or sister chromatids

140
Q

we have non-disjunction in meiosis I then we end up __________

A

with 2 gametes having extra chromosome and 2 gametes having one chromosome less

141
Q

When we have non-disjunction between sister chromatids occurring in meiosis II we have__________

A

one garment that has an extra chromosome and one gamete that has a missing chromosome

142
Q

What does trisomy number mean?

A

I have three chromosomes instead of two for one pair

143
Q

Example of Trisomy 21

A

Down Syndrome

144
Q

If cell Q enters meiosis, and nondisjunction of one chromosome occurs in one of its daughter cells during meiosis II, how will this affect the gametes at the completion of meiosis?

A

One-quarter of the gametes descended from cell Q will be n + 1, one-quarter will be n - 1, and half will be n.

145
Q

What is frame shift?

A

If I have base-pair either insertion or deletion.

146
Q

When a mutation caused by a nucleotide-pair insertion
occurs in a protein-coding region, which of the following
types of mutations cannot occur?
* silent
* frameshift
* missense
* nonsense
* none of the above

A

silent

147
Q

What is Sickle cell anemia traits?

A

is autosomal recessive single trait

148
Q

What is Albinism traits?

A

Autosomal recessive

149
Q

What is cystic fibrosis traits?

A

autosomal recessive

150
Q

what is Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

autosomal recessive

151
Q

What is Tay-Sachs disease

A

autosomal recessive

152
Q

What is Achondroplasia

A

dwarfism, autosomal dominant

153
Q

what is Alzheimer’s disease (one type)

A

Autosomal dominant

154
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

autosomal dominant

155
Q

Hemophilia

A

x-linked recessive

156
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

x-linked recessive

157
Q

colorblind

A

x-linked recessive

158
Q

down syndrome

A

aneuploid condition that results from three copies of chromosome 21

159
Q

Trisomy X

A

Aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes involving Karyotype XXX

160
Q

Waardenburg syndrome

A

autosomal dominant

161
Q

In the pedigree what does a circle mean?

A

Female

162
Q

n the pedigree what does a square mean?

A

male

163
Q

What does a dark square mean?

A

Affected male

164
Q

What does a dark circle mean?

A

Affected female

165
Q

dot inside circle mean?

A

x-link recessive

166
Q

Almost all cases of cystic fibrosis, a(n) ____ genetic disorder, are the result of mating between two unaffected parents.

A

Sex Linked Genes

167
Q

Rank the following one-base point mutations with respect to
their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding
polypeptide (from most likely to least likely).
1: insertion mutation deep within an intron
2: substitution mutation at the third position of a codon in an exon
3: substitution mutation at the second position of a codon in an
exon
4: deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 1, 4, 3
D. 3, 1, 4, 2
E. 4, 1, 2, 3

A

B