Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
is the sternum a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
flat
axial
2
Q
is the radius a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
long
appendicular
3
Q
is the calcaneus (tarsal bone) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
short
appendicular
4
Q
is the parietal bone (cranial bone) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
flat
axial
5
Q
is the phalanx (single bone of a digit) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
long
appendicular
6
Q
is the vertebra a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?
A
irregular
axial
7
Q
a sharp, slender process
A
spine
8
Q
a small rounded projection
A
tubercle
9
Q
a narrow ridge of a bone
A
crest
10
Q
a large rounded projection
A
tuberosity
11
Q
a structure supported on the neck
A
head
12
Q
an armlike projection
A
ramus
13
Q
rounded, convex projection
A
condyle
14
Q
a narrow slitlike opening
A
fissure
15
Q
a canal like structure
A
meatus
16
Q
a round or oval opening through a bone
A
foramen
17
Q
a shallow depression
A
fossa
18
Q
an air filled cavity
A
sinus
19
Q
large, irregularly shaped projection
A
trochanter
20
Q
raised area on or above a condyle
A
epicondyle
21
Q
a bony projection
A
process
22
Q
a smooth, nearly flat articular surface
A
facet
23
Q
1
A
epiphysis
24
Q
2
A
diaphysis
25
3
articular cartilage
26
4
spongy bone
27
5
epiphyseal line
28
6
compact bone
29
7
medullary cavity
30
8
spongy bone
31
9
articular cartilage
32
10
compact bone
33
11
yellow bone marrow
34
12
compact bone
35
13
periosteum
36
14
nutrient artery
37
end portion of a long bone
epiphysis
38
helps reduce friction at joints
articular cartilage
39
site of blood cell formation
red bone marrow
40
two major sub membranous sites of osteoprogenitor cells
endosteum
periosteum
41
scientific term for bone shaft
diaphysis
42
contains yellow bone marrow in adult bones
medullary cavity
43
growth plate remnant
epiphyseal line
44
what is the function of the organic matrix in bone?
flexibility and strength
45
name the important organic bone components
collagen fibers
osteocytes
46
calcium salts form the bulk of the inorganic material in bone. what is the function of the calcium salts?
makes the bone hard and give it strength
47
baking a bone removes the _____
soaking bone in acid removes _____
organic part
minerals
48
2
49
3
50
4
51
1
52
which cartilage supports the external ear?
elastic cartilage
53
which cartilage is between the vertebrae?
fibrocartilage
54
which cartilage forms the walls of the voice box (larynx)?
hyaline
55
which cartilage is the epiglottis?
elastic
56
which cartilage is articular cartilages?
hyaline
57
which cartilage is the meniscus in a knee joint?
fibrocartilage
58
which cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum?
hyaline
59
which cartilage is most effective at resisting compression?
fibrocartilage
60
which cartilage is most springy and flexible?
elastic
61
which cartilage is most abundant?
hyaline
62
forms the anterior cranium
frontal bone
63
cheekbone
zygomatic bone
64
lower jaw
mandible
65
bridge of the nose
nasal bone
66
posterior bones of the hard palate
palatine
67
much of the lateral and superior cranium
parietal
68
single, irregular, bat-shaped bone forming part of the cranial base
sphenoid
69
most posterior part of the cranium
occipital
70
tiny bones bearing tear ducts
lacrimal
71
anterior part of the hard palate
maxilla
72
superior and middle nasal concha form from its projections
ethmoid
73
site of mastoid process
temporal
74
site of sella turcica
occipital
75
site of cribriform plate
ethmoid
76
site of mental foramen
mandible
77
site of styloid process
temporal
78
4 bones containing paranasal sinuses
ethmoid
frontal
maxilla
sphenoid
79
has condyles that articulate with the atlas
occipital
80
foramen magnum contained here
occipital
81
small U-shaped bone in neck, where many tongue muscles attach
hyoid
82
organ of hearing found here
temporal
83
2 bones that form the nasal septum
vomer, ethmoid
84
contains sockets that bear teeth
maxilla
mandible
85
forms the most inferior turbinate
mandible
86
1
frontal bone
87
2
parietal bone
88
3
supraorbital foramen
89
4
superior orbital fissure
90
5
ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate)
91
6
inferior orbital fissure
92
7
infraorbital foramen
93
8
vomer
94
9
alveolar process
95
10
mandible
96
11
mandibular symphysis
97
12
incisive fossa
98
13
maxilla
99
14
styloid process
100
15
foramen ovale
101
16
sphenoid bone
102
17
carotid canal
103
18
temporal bone
104
19
stylomastoid process
105
20
occipital condyle
106
21
foramen magnum
107
22
external occipital protuberance
108
23
occipital bone
109
24
mastoid process
110
25
jugular foramen
111
26
foramen lacerum
112
27
mandibular fossa
113
28
zygomatic process
114
29
vomer
115
30
palatine bone
116
31
117
32
mental foramen
118
33
maxilla
119
34
inferior nasal concha
120
35
zygomatic bone
121
36
lacrimal bone
122
37
sphenoid bone
123
38
nasal bone
124
39
glabella
125
name the 8 bones of the cranium (include left and right)
frontal
left parietal
right parietal
left temporal
right temporal
occipital
sphenoid
ethmoid
126
what bones have sinuses?
maxilla
sphenoid
ethmoid
frontal
127
2 functions of the sinuses
lighten the facial bones
act as resonance chambers for speech
128
what is the bony orbit? what 7 bones contribute to the formation of the orbit?
7 bones that surround the eye
frontal
sphenoid
ethmoid
lacrimal
maxilla
palatine
zygomatic
129
why can the sphenoid bone be called the keystone bone of the cranium?
it is in contact with all other cranial bones
130
vertebra type containing forming in the transverse process, through which the vertebral arteries ascend to reach the brain
cervical vertebra - typical
131
dens here provides a pivot for rotation of the first cervical vertebra
axis
132
transverse processes faceted for articulation with ribs; spinous process pointing sharply downward
thoracic vertebra
133
composite bone; articulates with the hip bone laterally
sacrum
134
massive vertebra; weight-sustaining
lumbar vertebra
135
"tailbone"; vestigial fused vertebra
coccyx
136
supports the head; allows for a rocking motion in conjunction with the occipital condyles
atlas
137
cavity enclosing the spinal cord
vertebral foramen
138
weight-bearing portion of the vertebra
body
139
provide levers against which muscles pull
spinous process
transverse process
140
provide an articulation point for the ribs
body
transverse process
141
openings providing for exit of spinal nerves
intervertebral foramina
142
structures that form an enclosure for the spinal cord
vertebral arch
143
1
spinous process
144
2
transverse process
145
3
superior articular facet
146
4
body
147
5
vertebral foramen
148
6
pedicle
149
7
lamina
150
8
vertebral arch
151
describe how a spinal nerve exits from the vertebral column
via the ventral root where they synapse on motor neuron ganglia
then go through the ventral horn
152
name 2 factors that permit flexibility of the vertebral column
intervertebral disc
curvatures
153
what kind of tissue makes up the intervertebral discs?
fibrocartilage
154
what is a herniated disc? what problems might it cause?
a ruptured disc that protrudes outward
could compress a nerve leading to pain or paralysis
155
which 2 spinal curvatures are obvious at birth?
thoracic and sacral
156
under what conditions do the secondary curvatures develop?
cervical forms when the baby begins to raise its head independently
lumbar forms when baby begins to walk
157
1
intervertebral discs
158
2
thoracic vertebrae
159
3
intervertebral foramina
160
4
transverse process
161
5
spinous process
162
the major components of the thorax are
the sternum and the ribs
163
differentiate a true rib from a false rib
true ribs attack to the sternum by their own cottage cartilage
false ribs have costal cartilage that attaches to other rib cartilage before attaching to the sternum
164
what is the general shape of the thoracic cage?
cone/barrel shaped
165
1
jugular notch
166
2
clavicle notch
167
3
manubrium
168
4
sternal angle
169
5
body
170
6
xiphisternal joint
171
7
xiphoid process
172
8
costal cartilage
173
9
floating ribs
174
10
false ribs
175
11
true ribs
176
12
sternum
177
are the same skull bones seen in the adult also found in the fetal skull?
yes
178
how does the size of the fetal face compare to the fetal cranium?
large cranium and shorted face, smaller maxilla and mandible
179
what are the outward conical projections on some of the fetal cranial bones?
ossification centers
180
what is a fontanelle?
a fibrous membrane connecting fetal skull bones
181
what is a fate?
progressively ossified and replaced by suture
182
what is the function of the fontanelles in the fetal skull
allows the skull to be compressed during birth and leave room for brain growth
183
1
sphenoidal fontanelle
184
2
anterior fontanelle
185
3
posterior fontanelle
186
4
mastoid fontanelle
187
what type of cartilage is in the ear?
elastic
188
what type of cartilage is in the nose
hyaline
189
what type of cartilage is in the joints?
hyaline
190
what time of cartilage is in the costal ribs?
hyaline
191
what type of cartilage is in the intervertebral discs?
fibro
192
what type of cartilage is in the pubic symphysis?
fibro
193
what type of cartilage is the articular cartilage of a joint?
fibro
194
what type of cartilage is the meniscus (knee)
fibro
195
describe the function of hyaline cartilage
- gelatinous ground substance holds a lot of water so resists compression well
- provides support through flexibility and resilience
196
what cartilage makes up the articular cartilage that covers the ends of adjoining bones in movable joints?
hyaline
197
what cartilage forms the cartilaginous attachments of the ribs to the sternum and accounts for most of the cartilage found in the respiratory structures
hyaline
198
compare hyaline and elastic cartilage matrix
elastic has more elastic fibers along with collagen
hyaline only has collagen
199
what cartilage is able to tolerate repeated bending
elastic
200
which cartilage can resist both strong compression and strong tension
fibro
201
what fibers does fibrocartilage contain?
collagen
202
how does cartilage grow?
2 ways
1) appositional - growth from outside, cartilage forming cells (chondroblasts) in the surrounding perichondrium produce new cartilage tissue by actively secreting matrix
2) interstitial - growth from within, the chondrocytes within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
203
when does cartilage start and stop growing?
grows rapidly in embryonic development, childhood, and adolescent
stops growing in teens when the skeleton stops growing
204
what is a sign of aging in adults by looking at cartilage?
crystals of calcium phosphate precipitate in the matrix
205
6 functions of bones
1) support - hard framework that supports the weight of the body
2) movement - skeletal muscles attach to the bones by tendons and use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts
3) protection - the bones of the skull form a protective case for the brain
4) mineral storage - bones serve as a reservoir for minerals, the most important of which are calcium and phosphate
5) blood cell formation and energy storage - contain red and yellow bone marrow
6) energy metabolism - bone-producing cells, osteoblasts, secrete a hormone that influences blood sugar regulation and energy metabolism
206
function of bone tissue? (organic and inorganic)
organic - cells, fibers, ground substance
- contribute to bone flexibility and tensile strength that allow bone to resist stretching and twisting
inorganic - mineral salts
- provide the bone with hardness which allows it to resist compression
207
describe a long bone
what are the 5 general structures?
has a shaft plus 2 distinct ends
most bones of the limbs
named for elongated shape, not size
1) diaphysis
2) epiphysis
3) blood vessels
4) the medullary cavity
5) membranes
208
describe a flat bone
thin, flattened, and usually somewhat curved
most cranial bones of the skull
ribs, sternum, scapula
209
describe how bones resist compression or tension
- the strong, compact bone tissue occurs in the external portion of the bone
- internal to this region, tension and compression forces tend to cancel each other out, resulting in less overall stress
- compact bone is not found in the bones interiors, spongy bone is sufficient
- because no stress occurs at the bones center, the lack of bone tissue in the central medullary cavity does not impair the strength of the long bones
- bone markings
210
describe histology of compact bone
- riddled with passageways for blood vessels and nerves
- osteon: long, cylindrical structures oriented parallel to the long axis of the bone and to the main compression stresses - weight bearing pillars - groups of tubes
- lamella - each tube of osteons - a layer of bone matrix in which collagen fibers and mineral crystals of adjacent lamellae always run in roughly opposite directions - inhibit crack propagation
- central canal: through the core of each osteon - contains blood vessels which supply nutrients to the bone cells and its own nerve fibers
- perforating canals: lie at right angles to the central canals and connect the blood and nerve supply of the periosteum to that of the central canals and the marrow cavity
- canaliculi: bodies of osteocytes occupy small cavities in the solid matrix called lacunae and their "spider legs" occupy these thin tubes - run through the matrix, connecting neighboring lacunae to one another and to the nearest capillaries
211
describe the histology of spongy bone
- each trabecula contains several layers of lamellae and osteocytes but is too small to contain osteons or vessels of its own
- osteocytes receive nutrients from capillaries in the endosteum surrounding the trabecular via connections through the canaliculi
212
what is inframembrous ossification?
compare to endochrondral ossification
inframembrous
1) ossification centers develop in the fibrous connective tissue membrane
2) osteoid is secrete and calcifies
3) woven bone and periosteum
4) compact bone replaces woven bone, just deep to the periosteum. red bone marrow develops
- the clavicle is the only bone not in the skull formed by this
endochrondal
1) bone collar forms around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model
2) cartilage in the center of the diaphysis calcifies and then develops cavities
3) the periostea bud invades the internal cavities and spongy bones form
4) the diaphysis elongates and a medullary cavity forms. secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphysis
5) the epiphysis ossify. when completed, hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages
213
describe how endochondral bones grow at their epiphyseal plates
- the cartilage cells nearest the epiphysis are relatively small and inactive - resting zone
- below the resting zone, cartilage cells form large columns with condroblasts at the top in the "proliferation zone" divide quickly, pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis and causing the long bone to lengthen
- the older chondrocytes in the stack at the hypertrophic zone enlarge and signal the surrounding matrix to calcify
214
discuss how bone tissue is remodeled within the skeleton
- the spongy bone in the skeleton is entirely replaced every 3-4 years
- remodeling in compact bone occurs at the endosteum lining the central canals of the osteons
- remodeling is coordinated by cohorts of adjacent osteoblasts and osteoclasts
BONE RESORPTION: accomplished by osteoclasts that crawl alone the bone surfaces digging pits as they break down the bone tissue. the expanded membrane forms a tight seal against the bone and secretes concentrated hydrochloric acid which dissolves the mineral part
BONE DEPOSITION: accomplished by osteoblasts which lay down organic osteoid on bone surfaces and calcium salts crystalize within this osteoid
215
explain the 4 steps in the healing of bone fractures
1) hematoma formation - blood vessels break in the periosteum and inside the bone, releasing blood that clots to form a hematoma
2) fibrocartilaginous callus formation - new blood vessels grow into the clot
3) bony callus formation - trabeculae of new woven bone begin to form in the callus, mostly by endochondral ossification
4) bone remodeling - the excess bone material is removed from both the exterior of the bone shaft and the inferior of the medullary cavity
216
what are the 3 evolutionary domains of the vertebral skull?
splanchnocranium
neurocranium
dermatocranium
217
what is the primary function of the splanchnocranium?
endochrondral bone supporting the pharyngeal arches (branchiomeric muscles)
- works with chondrocranium, hyoid, elements of jaw, middle ear
218
what is the primary function of the neurocranium?
endochrondral bone encasing the brain (floor and walls)
(chondrocranium and endocranium)
219
what is the primary function of the dermatocranium?
dermal armor surrounding entire head
220
4 major elements of the chondrocranium?
ethmoid region
basal plate - sphenoid
occipital arch
sensory capsules - contained by and formed within bones of skull
221
6 series in the dermatocranium?
1) facial
2) orbital
3) temporal
4) vault
5) palatal
6) mandibular
222
provide an example of a bone within the skull that undergoes endochondral development. intramembranous development.
??????
223
using the temporal bone as an example, discuss the concept of compound skull bones
??????
224
compare the functions of the cranial and facial bones
cranial
- form the brain's protective shell
- allows the bones to be thin, egg-shell like, and strong for its weight
facial
- anchors the teeth and lower/raises the jaw
- idk?
225
function of frontal bone?
- form forehead
- form orbits
- contain sinuses
226
function of parietal bones?
- forms most superior and lateral aspects of skull
227
function of occipital bone?
forms posterior aspect and most of the base of the skull
228
function of temporal bones?
- forms inferolateral aspects of the skull
- contributes to middle cranial fossa
229
function of sphenoid bone?
- contributes to middle cranial fossa and orbits
230
function of ethmoid bone?
- forms part of nasal septum and lateral walls and roof of nasal cavity
- contributes to medial wall of orbit
231
function of nasal bone?
- forms the bridge of the nose
232
function of the lacrimal bones?
- form part of the medial orbit wall
233
function of the zygomatic bones?
form the cheek and part of the orbit
234
function of the inferior nasal concha bones?
form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity
235
function of the mandible?
raise and lower the jaw
236
function of the maxilla bones?
- keystone bones of the face
- form the upper jaw and parts of the hard palate, orbits, and nasal cavity walls
237
function of the palatine bones?
form posterior part of the hard palate and a small part of nasal cavity and orbit walls
238
function of the vomer?
inferior part of the nasal septum
239
function of the auditory ossicles?
involved in sound transmission
240
what are the bony boundaries of the nasal cavity?
roof: ethmoid cribriform plates
floor: palatine processes of the maxillae and horizontal plates of palatine bones
lateral walls: nasal bones, superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid, inferior nasal concha, frontal process of maxilla, perpendicular plates of palatine bones
241
what are the bony boundaries of the paranasal sinuses?
hollow spaces inside of the frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and both maxillary bones
242
what are the bony boundaries of the orbit?
walls formed by parts of the
- frontal
- sphenoid
- zygomatic
- maxillary
- palatine
- lacrimal
- and ethmoid bones
243
name a function performed by both the spinal curvatures and the intervertebral discs
increase the resilience of the spine, allowing it to act as a spring rather than a rigid rod
- absorb compressive stress and act as shock absorbers
244
describe the general structure of the vertebral column, and list its components
1) cervical curvature (7 vertebrae, concave)
2) thoracic curvature (12 vertebrae, convex)
3) lumbar curvature (5 vertebrae, concave)
4) sacral curvature (5 fused vertebrae, concave)
5) coccyx (4 fused vertebrae)
245
what are true ribs?
attach directly to the sternum by their costal cartilages
246
what are false ribs?
attach to the sternum indirectly through costal cartilage or not at all
247
what are floating ribs?
have no anterior attachments
248
describe how a typical rib attaches to the vertebral column
- the wedge-shaped head has 2 facets: one facet joins the body of the thoracic vertebrae of the same number and the other joins the body of the vertebrae immediately superior
249
name the bones that form the pectoral girdle
clavicle
scapula
250
explain how bones of the pectoral girdle articulate with each other
anteriorly the medial end of each clavicle joints to the sternum and first rib
- lateral ends of clavicles join to the scapula and shoulder
251
explain the functions of the pectoral girdle
- attaches upper limbs to the trunk
- provides attachment for many muscles that move the limb
- only the clavicle attaches to the axial skeleton so the scapula can move freely across the thorax allowing the arm to move
- the socket of the shoulder (scapula glenoid cavity) is shallow so it does not restrict movement of the humerus
252
what is the largest bone in the arm?
humerus
253
the humerus articulates with _____ at the ______ and with the _____ and ______ at the ______
scapula at the shoulder
radius and ulna at the elbow
254
at the proximal head of the humerus is the hemispherical _____
head
255
just inferior to the humerus head is a slight constriction, the __________
anatomical neck
256
inferior to the humerus anatomical neck, the lateral _____ and the more medial _____ are separated by the intertubercular sulcus
greater tubercle
lesser tubercle
257
the _____ of the humerus is inferior to the tubercles
surgical neck
258
about midway down the shaft of the humerus, on the lateral side, is the _____
deltoid tuberosity
259
near the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus along the posterior surface of the shaft, the _____ descends obliquely
radial groove
260
at the distal end of the humerus are 2 condyles, a medial _____ that articulates with the ulna, and a lateral _____ that articulates with the radius
trochlea
capitulum
261
the trochlea and capitulum of the humerus are flanked by the _______, which are attachment sites for muscles of the forearm
medial and lateral epicondyles
262
directly above the lateral and medial epicondyles on the humerus are the _____
medial and lateral supracondylar ridges
263
the _____ and _____ form the forearm
radius and ulna
264
the radius and ulna articulate with the _____ proximally and ______ distally
humerus
bones of the wrist
265
the radius and ulna articulate with each other proximally and distally at the ligament called ________
interosseous membrane
266
at the proximal end of the ulna are 2 prominent projections, the ______ and _____ processes, separated by a deep concavity, the trochlear notch
olecranon
coronoid
267
on the lateral side of the ulna coronoid process is a smooth depression, the ______, where the head of the radius articulates with the ulna
radial notch
268
distally, the shaft of the ulna narrows and ends in a _____ that articulates with the radius.
medial to this is the ______, from which a ligament runs to the wrist
head
ulnar styloid process
269
the superior end of the radius articulates with ______ of the humerus
capitulum
270
medially, the head of the radius articulates with the ______ of the ulna, forming the proximal radioulnar joint
radial notch
271
just distal to the head of the radius, on the anterior surface in anatomical position, is a rough bump, the _______, a site of attachment of the biceps muscles
radial tuberosity
272
on the distal end of the radius, the medial ______ articulates wit the head of the ulna, the ______ articulates with the head of the ulna, forming the distal radioulnar joint
ulnar notch
radial styloid process
273
the true wrist, or _____, is the proximal region of the hand, just distal to the wrist joint
carpus
274
the carpus of the hand contains eight marble-sized short bones, or ______, closely united by ligaments
carpals
275
in the proximal row in the hand, from lateral to medial, are the _____, ______, ______, and ______ bones
scaphoid
lunate
triquetrum
pisiform
276
the carpals of the distal row, from lateral to medial, are the _____, _____, _____, and _____ bones
trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate
277
five ______ in the hand radiate distally from the wrist to form the metacarpus, or palm of the hand
metacarpals
278
the digits, or fingers, are numbered I-V beginning with the thumb, the fingers contain minature long bones called ______
phalanges
279
radius articulates with ______
carpals
280
carpals articulates with _______
metacarpals
281
metacarpals articulate with _______
phalanges
282
name the bones that form the pelvic girdle
hip bones
sacrum
283
where the glenoid cavity of the scapula is shallow, the corresponding socket in the pelvic girdle is a deep cut that firmly secures the ____________
head of the femur
284
each hip bone unites with its partner anteriorly and with the ______ posteriorly
sacrum
285
compare and contrast child-birthing and non-child-birthing pelves
female: wider, shallower, lighter, provide more room in the true pelvis
male: narrower pubic arch
286
the _____ is the single bone of the thigh
femur
287
the ball-like head of the femur has a small central pit called the _____
fovea capitis
288
at the junction of the shaft and neck of the femur are the lateral _____ and the posteromedial _____, sites of muscle attachment
greater trochanter
lesser trochanter
289
the 2 trochanters of the femur are interconnected by the _____ anteriorly and by the prominent _____ posteriorly
intertrochanteric line
intertrochanteric cet
290
inferior to the interterochanteric crest on the femur on the posterior surface of the shaft is the _____
gluteal tuberosity
291
the inferior part of the gluteal tuberosity (femur) blends into a long vertical ridge, the _____
linea aspera
292
distally, the femur broadens to end in _______ and _______ _______ shaped like wide wheels
medial and lateral condyles
293
the _____ is a bump on the upper part of the medial epicondyle of the femur
adductor tubercle
294
anteriorly, the 2 condyles (femur) are separated by a smooth ______, which articulates with the kneecap, or patella
patellar surface
295
posteriorly, the condyles (femur) are separated by a deep _____
intercondylar fossa
296
ending superior from the respective condyles (femur) to the linea aspera are the ______ and ______ _______ ______
lateral and medial supercondylar lines
297
the _____ is a triangular sesamoid bone enclosed in the tendon that secures the quadriceps muscles of the anterior thigh to the tibia
patella
298
what bones form the leg?
tibia and fibula
299
an _____ _____ connects the tibia and fibula along their entire length
interosseous membrane
300
the _____ receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot
tibia
301
at the proximal end of the tibia are the brand _____ and _____ _____, which resemble two thick checkers lying side by side on top of the shaft, articular with the corresponding condyles of the femur
medial and lateral condyles
302
the tibial condyles are separated by an irregular projection, the _____ ______
intercondylar eminence
303
just inferior to the tibial condyles, on the anterior surface, is the _____ _____, attachment its of the patellar ligament
tibial tuberosity
304
on the shaft of the tibia, the sharp _____ _____ lies just below the skin and is easily palpated
anterior border
305
medial to the joint surface, the tibia has an inferior projection called the _____ _____, which forms the medial bulge of the ankle
medial malleolus
306
the _____ _____ on the lateral side of the distal tibia articulates with the fibula, forming the inferior tibiofibular joint
fibular notch
307
the _____, located lateral to the tibia, is a thin long bone with 2 expanded ends
fibula
308
on the fibula, its superior end is its _____, and its inferior end is the _____ _____
head
lateral malleolus
309
the _____ makes up the posterior half of the foot and contains several bones called tarsals
tarsus
310
the weight of the body is carried primarily by the 2 largest most posterior tarsal bones: the talus which articulates with the _____ and the strong calcaneus which forms _____
tibia
heel
311
the tibia articulates with the talus at the _____ _____ _____ _____
trochlea of the talus
312
the part of the calcaneus that touches the ground is the _____ _____, and the medial, shelf-like projection is the _____ _____
calcaneal tuberosity
sustentaculum tali
313
the metatarsus of the foot, which corresponds to the metacarpus of the hand, have 5 long bones called _____
metatarsals
314
how has limb posture changed in vertebrates from amphibians through Humans
-----
315
discuss changes in the pelvic girdle that enable humans to walk upright
-----
316
3 joint classes
fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial
317
describe the structure of a fibrous joint
adjoining bones united by collagenic fibers
318
describe the structure of cartilaginous joints
adjoining bones united by cartilage
319
describe the structure of synovial joints
adjoining bones separated by a joint cavity, covered with articular cartilage, and enclosed within an articular capsule lined with synovial membrane
320
describe the structural characteristics shared by all synovial joints
ligaments
joint cavity containing synovial fluid
articular cartilage (hyaline)
articular capsule (with a fibrous layer and synovial membrane)
periosteum
321
discuss the role of weeping lubrication in the function of synovial joints
- the pressure placed on joints during normal movement squeezes synovial fluid into and out of the articular cartilages
- this nourishes the cells in the articular cartilages and lubricates the free surface of these cartilages, allowing the adjoining bones to move across each other with a minimum of friction
322
describe the structure and function of articular discs
a disc of fibrocartilage
- extends internally from the capsule and completely or partially divides the joint cavity in 2
- fills the gaps and improves the fit, thereby distributing the load more evenly and minimizing wear and damage
- allow 2 different movements at the same joint
323
describe the structure and function of bursae
contain synovial fluid and often are associated with synovial joints
- act as "ball bearings" to reduce friction between body elements that move over one another
- tendon sheaths are enlongated bursa
324
describe the structure and function of tendon sheaths
an elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon
- only in tendons that are subjected to friction
325
what shape is a plane joint and what movement does it allow?
square
gliding
326
what shape is a hinge joint and what movement does it allow?
cylinder
flexion and extension
327
what shape is a pivot joint and what movement does it allow?
sleeve and axle
rotation
328
what shape is a condylar joint and what movement does it allow?
oval articular surface (funnel for cooking)
flexion and extension, adduction and abduction
329
what shape is a saddle joint and what movement does it allow?
articular surfaces are both concave and convex (saddle on a horse)
adduction and abduction, flexion and extension
330
what shape is ball and socket joint and what movement does it allow?
cup and spherical head
flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, rotation
331
what type of joint is the shoulder joint?
ball and socket
332
what type of joint is the knee joint?
all?
acts as a hinge
permits some medial and lateral rotation
