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Biology 367: Anatomy > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

the major function of the _____ _____ is to supply the body with oxygen and dispose of carbon dioxide

A

respiratory system

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2
Q

what are the 4 things that must occur for respiration?

A

pulmonary ventilation
external respiration
transport of respiratory gases
internal inspiration

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3
Q

what is pulmonary ventilation?

A

air must be moved into and out of the lungs so that the gases in the alveoli of the lungs are continuously replaced

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4
Q

what is external respiration?

A

gas exchange must occur between the blood and the air at the lung alveoli
oxygen in the air sacs diffuses into the blood and CO2 in the blood diffuses into the air sacs

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5
Q

what is the transport of respiratory gases?

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide must be transported between the lungs and the cells of the body
- blood is the transporting fluid

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6
Q

what is internal respiration?

A

at the systemic capillaries, gases must be exchanged between the blood and tissue cells

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7
Q

what is cellular respiration?

A

oxygen is used by the cells and CO2 is produced as a waste product by the chemical process that converts glucose to cellular energy (ATP)

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8
Q

what organs are in the conducting zone?
what is the function?

A

respiratory passageways that carry air to the sites of gas exchange
- filter, humidify, and warm the incoming air

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9
Q

what organs are in the respiratory zone?

A

actual site of gas exchange in the lungs
- respiratory bronchioles
- alveolar ducts
- and alveolar sacs

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10
Q

what is the order of the respiratory passageway?

A

nostrils -> nasal cavity -> pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> primary bronchus -> tertiary/secondary bronchi -> respiratory bronchi -> alveolar duct -> alveolar sac -> diffuse across alveolar/capillaru wall -> pulmonary capillaries

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11
Q

the _____ is the only externally visible part of the respiratory system

A

nose

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12
Q

5 functions of the nose:

A
  • provide an airway for respiration
  • moistens and warms incoming air
  • filters inhaled air to cleanse it of foreign particles
  • serves as a resonating for speech
  • houses the olfactory (smell) receptors
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13
Q

the skeletal framework of the _____ _____ consists of the frontal and nasal bones superiorly, the maxillary bones laterally, and flexible plates of hyaline cartilage inferiorly

A

external nose

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14
Q

the _____ _____ lies in and posterior to the external nose

A

nasal cavity

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15
Q

during breathing, air enters the nasal cavity by passing through the external _____, or nostrils

A

nares

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16
Q

posteriorly, the nasal cavity is continuous with the nasal part of the pharynx through the _____ _____ _____, also called the choanae or internal nares

A

posterior nasal apertures

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17
Q

the roof of the nasal cavity is formed by the ethmoid and sphenoid bones; its floor is formed by the _____, which separates the nasal cavity from the mouth inferiorly and keeps food out of airways

A

palate

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18
Q

The _____ is lined with skin containing sebaceous and sweat glands and numerous hair follicles

A

vestibule

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19
Q

what are the 2 types of mucous membrane that cover the nasal cavity?

A

(1) olfactory mucous - houses receptors for smell
(2) respiratory mucosa - lines vast majority of respiratory passageway

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20
Q

what are the paranasal sinuses?

A

a ring of air-filled cavities
- help moisten inhaled air
- mucus drains into the nasal cavities and the suctioning effect caused by nose blowing helps drain them

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21
Q

the _____ is a funnel-shaped passageway that connects the nasal cavity and the mouth superiorly to the larynx and esophagus inferiorly

A

pharynx

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22
Q

3 divisions of the pharynx:

A
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
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23
Q

the _____ lies directly posterior to the nasal cavity, inferior to the sphenoid bone and superior to the level of the soft palate
serves only as an air passageway

A

nasopharynx

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24
Q

during swallowing, the soft palate and its pendulous _____ reflect superiorly, an action that closes off the nasopharynx and prevents food from entering the nasal cavity

A

uvula

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25
Q

high on the posterior nasopharyngeal wall is the midline _____ ____, a lymphoid organ that destroys pathogens entering the nasopharynx

A

pharyngeal tonsil

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26
Q

the _____ lies posterior to the oral cavity; its archduke entranceway, directly behind the mouth, is the faucet
- both swallowed food and air pass

A

oropharynx

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27
Q

describe the change in epithelium as you travel from the nasopharynx to the oropharynx

A

pseudostratified columnar -> stratified squamous

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28
Q

two kinds of tonsils are embedded in the mucosa of the oropharynx:

A

(1) pair palatine tonsil - lies in lateral wall of fauces
(2) single lingual tonsil - covers surface of tongue

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29
Q

like the oropharynx, the _____ serves as a common passageway for food and air and is lined with stratified squamous epithelium

A

laryngopharynx

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30
Q

the _____, or voice box, extends from the level of the fourth to the sixth cervical vertebrae

A

larynx

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31
Q

3 functions of the larynx:

A
  • produce vocalization
  • provide an open airway
  • acting as a switching mechanism to route air and food into proper channels
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32
Q

what cartilage in the larynx forms the Adam’s apple?

A

thyroid cartilage
- laryngeal prominence

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33
Q

inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the _____ _____, the only laryngeal cartilage that forms a complete ring

A

cricoid cartilage

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34
Q

three pairs of small cartilages lie superior to the cricoid cartilage in the posterior part of the larynx:

A
  • arytenoid - most important - anchor vocal cords
  • corniculate
  • cuneiform
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35
Q

the leaf-shaped _____ is composed of elastic cartilage and is almost entirely covered by a mucosa

A

epiglottis

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36
Q

function of the epiglottis?

A

during swallowing, the entire larynx is pulled superiorly and the epiglottis tips inferiorly to cover and seal the laryngeal inlet
- keeps food out of lower respiratory tubes

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37
Q

vocal ligaments, composed largely of elastic fibers, form the core of a pair of mucosal folds called the _____ _____

A

vocal cords

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38
Q

the medial opening between the vocal folds through which air passes is called the _____ _____, and the vocal folds together with the rims compose the _____

A

rima glottidis
glottis

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39
Q

the _____ _____ (false vocal cords) define a slitlike cavity between themselves and the true vocal cords that enhances high-frequency sounds, functioning like the tweeter on stereo speakers

A

vestibular folds

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40
Q

what is Valsalva’s maneuver?

A

during abdominal straining, such as occurs when one strain to defecate, the abdominal muscles contract and the glottis closes to prevent exhalation, raising intrathoracic and intra-abdominal pressure

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41
Q

the flexible _____, or windpipe, descends from the larynx through the neck and into the mediastinum; it ends by dividing into two main bronchi in the mid thorax

A

trachea

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42
Q

what cartilage is in the trachea?

A

hyaline

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43
Q

the open posterior parts of the cartilage ring, which abut the esophagus, contain smooth muscle fibers of the _____ and soft connective tissue

A

trachealis

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44
Q

a ridge on the internal aspect of the last tracheal cartilage, called the _____, marks the point where the trachea branches into the two main (primary) bronchi

A

carina

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45
Q

three layers of the trachea wall:

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • adventitia
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46
Q

the _____, a mucous membrane, consists of an inner epithelium and a lamina proprietor. the epithelium is the same air filtering pseduostratified epithelium that occurs throughout most of the respiratory tract; its cilia continuously propels dust-laden sheets of mucus superiorly towards the pharynx

A

mucosa

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47
Q

the _____, another layer of connective tissue, contains glands of both serous and mucous cells, called seromucous glands, which help produce the sheets of mucus in the trachea

A

submucosa

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48
Q

the external layer of connective tissue in the trachea is the _____

A

adventitia

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49
Q

the right and left _____ _____, also called primary bronchi, are the largest conduits in the bronchial tree, a system of respiratory passes that branches extensively within the lungs

A

main bronchi

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50
Q

as they approach and enter the lungs, the main bronchi divide into secondary or _____ _____ - three on the right and two on the left - each supplies one lung lobe

A

lobar bronchi

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51
Q

the lobar bronchi branch into tertiary or _____ _____, which in turn divide repeatedly into smaller bronchi

A

segmental bronchi

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52
Q

the smallest tubes in the lungs

A

bronchioles

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53
Q

changes that occur as the conducting tubes become smaller:

A
  • supportive connective tissue change - cartilage rings are replaced by irregular plates of cartilage as the main bronchi enter the lungs
  • epithelium changes - pseudo stratified columnar -> simple columnar -> simple cuboidal
  • smooth muscle becomes important - forms helical bands that wrap around the smaller bronchi and bronchioles and regulate the amount of air entering the alveoli
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54
Q

the respiratory zone consists of structures that contain air-exchange chambers called _____

A

alveoli

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55
Q

the first respiratory zone structures, which branch from the terminal bronchioles of the conducting zone, are the _____ _____

A

respiratory bronchioles

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56
Q

the respiratory bronchioles lead into ____ _____, straight ducts whose walls consists of almost entirely alveoli

A

alveolar ducts

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57
Q

the alveolar ducts then lead into terminal clusters of alveoli called ____ ____

A

alveolar sacs

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58
Q

the wall of each alveolus contains a single layer of squamous epithelium cells called _____ ______ _____ _____ surrounded by a delicate basal lamina

A

type I alveolar cells

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59
Q

together, the alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basal lamina form the _____ _____, where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the alveolus and the blood

A

respiratory membrane

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60
Q

______ diffuses from the alveolus into the blood, and _____ diffuses form the blood to enter the air-filled alveolus

A

oxygen
CO2

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61
Q

scattered among the type I squamous cells in the alveolar walls are cuboidal epithelial cells called _____ _____ ______ _____, which secrete a fluid that coats the internal alveolar surfaces

A

type II alveolar cells

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62
Q

the fluid secreted by type II alveolar cells contains a detergent-like substance called _____ that reduces the surface tension within the alveoli

A

surfactant

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63
Q

3 features of lung alveoli

A
  • alveoli are surrounded by fine elastic fibers of the same type that surrounds structures along the entire respiratory tract
  • adjacent alveoli interconnect via alveolar pores which allow air pressure to be equalized throughout the lung and provide alternative routes for air to reach alveoli whose broncho have collapsed because of disease
  • internal alveolar surfaces provide a site for free movement of alveolar macrophages, which actually live in air space and remove the tiniest inhaled particles that were not trapped by mucous
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64
Q

the paired ____ and their pleural sacs occupy all the thoracic cavity lateral to the mediastinum

A

lungs

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65
Q

just deep to the clavicle is the _____, the rounded, superior tip of the lung

A

apex

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66
Q

the concave inferior surface of the lungs that rests on the diaphragm is the _____

A

base

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67
Q

on the medial surface of each lung is an indentation, the _____, through which blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and exit the lung

A

hilium

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68
Q

the apex, base, and hilium of the lungs attach the lung to the mediastinum and are called the ____ of the lung

A

root

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69
Q

the left lung is somewhat smaller than the right and has a _____ _____, a deviation in its anterior border that accommodates the heart

A

cardiac notch

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70
Q

several deep fissures divide the two lungs into different patterns of ____

A

lobes

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71
Q

two lobes of the left lung divided by the oblique fissure

A

superior and inferior lobes

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72
Q

3 divisions of the right lung divided by the oblique and horizontal fissures

A

superior middle and inferior

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73
Q

each lobe of the lung consists of a number of _____ _____ separated from one another by thin partitions of deep connective tissue
- each receive air form an individual segmental bronchus

A

bronchopulmonary segments

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74
Q

the _____ _____ deliver oxygen-poor blood to the lungs for oxygenation

A

pulmonary arteries

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75
Q

the smallest arteries feed into the ____ _____ ____ around the alveoli

A

pulmonary capillary networks

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76
Q

oxygenated blood is carried from the alveoli of the lungs to the heart by the _____ ______

A

pulmonary veins

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77
Q

around each lung is a flattened sac whose walls consist of a serous membrane called _____

A

pleura

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78
Q

the _____ _____ covers the internal surface of the thoracic wall, the superior surface of the diaphragm, and the lateral surfaces of the mediastinum

A

parietal pleura

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79
Q

the _____ _____ covers the external lung surface

A

visceral pleura

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80
Q

the space between the parietal and the visceral pleura is the _____ _____ which is filled with pleural fluid

A

pleaural cavity

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81
Q

function of pleural fluid?

A

allows lungs to glide without friction over the thoracic wall during breathing movements
holds parietal and visceral pleura together

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82
Q

the pleura divides the thoracic cavity into 3 separate compartments:

A

central mediastinum and two lateral pleural compartments each containing lung

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83
Q

sequence of events for inspiration (5)

A

(1) inspiratory muscles contract (diaphragm descends, rib cage rises)
(2) thoracic cavity and pleural cavity increase in volume
(3) lungs are stretched; lung volume increases
(4) air pressure in lungs decreases
(5) air (gases) flow into lungs

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84
Q

sequence of events for expiration (5)

A

(1) inspiratory muscles relax (diaphragm rises; rib cage descends because of recoil of costal cartilage)
(2) thoracic cavity and pleural cavity decrease in volume
(3) elastic lungs recoil passively; lung volume decreases
(4) air pressure in lungs rises
(5) air (gases) flows out of the lungs

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85
Q

two main groupings of the digestive system:

A

alimentary canal
accessory digestive organs

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86
Q

the _____ _____, also called the gastrointestinal tract, is the muscular digestive tube that winds through the body, extending from the mouth to the anus

A

alimentary canal

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87
Q

organs of the alimentary canal (7)

A

mouth
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
anus

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88
Q

what are the 6 accessory organs?

A

teeth
tongue
gallbladder
salivary glands
liver
pancreas

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89
Q

all divisions of the ventral body cavity contain slippery serous membranes, the most extensive if which is the _____ located in the abdominopelvic cavity

A

peritoneum

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90
Q

the ____ peritoneum covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs

A

visceral

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91
Q

the _____ paritoneum lines the body wall and is continuous with the visceral peritoneum

A

parietal

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92
Q

a ______ is a double layer of peritoneum - a sheet of 2 serous membranes fused together - that extends from the body wall to the digestive organs

A

mesentery

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93
Q

functions of the mesenteries

A
  • hold organs in place
  • store fat
  • provide a route for circulatory vessels and nerves to reach organs in the peritoneal cavity
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94
Q

how does the greater omentum aid in limiting the spread of infections within the abdomen?

A

it is tremendously elongated and extends inferiorly to cover the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine
- can wrap around and enclose an inflamed organ

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95
Q

the _____ ligament binds the anterior aspect of the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm

A

falciform

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96
Q

the _____ _____ runs from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and beginning of the duodenum

A

lesser omentum

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97
Q

the transverse colon is held to the posterior abdominal wall by the _____ _____, a nearly horizontal sheet that is fused to the underside of the greater omentum

A

transverse mesocolon

98
Q

digestive organs that keep their mesentery and remain surrounded by the peritoneal cavity

A

intraperitoneal
peritoneal organs

99
Q

6 steps of the digestive process

A

(1) ingestion - taking in of food into the mouth
(2) propulsion - movement of food through the alimentary canal
(2b) peristalsis - alternate waves of contraction and relaxation of the musculature in the organ walls to aid in propulsion
(3) mechanical breakdown - physically prepares food for digestion by enzymes by breaking it into smaller pieces
(3b) segmentation - rhythmic local constrictions of the intestine
(4) digestion - series of steps in which complex food molecules are broken down to their chemical building blocks
(5) absorption - transport of digested end products from the lumen of the alimentary canal into the blood and lymphatic capillaries located in the wall of the canal
(6) defacation - elimination of indigestible substances from the body as feces

100
Q

describe the mucosa of the digestive track in the alimentary canal

A
  • inner most layer containing a lining epithelium, a lamina propria, and muscular mucosae
  • helps absorb nutrients and secrete mucus
  • lamina propria a loose areolar or reticular connective tissue whose capillaries nourish the lining and absorb digested nutrients
  • the musculararis mucosa is a thin layer of smooth muscle that [rpduces local movements of the mucosa
101
Q

describe the submucosa of the alimentary canal

A
  • external to the mucosa, layer of connective tissue containing major blood and lymphatic vessels and nerve fibers
  • elastic fibers allow the canal to return to its shape after food and material pass through it
102
Q

describe the muscularis externa of the alimentary canal

A
  • external to the submucosa, consisting of 2 layers of smooth muscle
  • responsible for peristalsis and segmentation
103
Q

describe the serosa of the alimentary canal

A
  • the visceral peritoneum and outermost layer of the intraperitoneal organs
104
Q

the smooth muscle and glands of the alimentary canal are controlled largely by the independent _____ _____ _____

A

enteric nervous system

105
Q

function of the hard palate?

A

forms the rigid surface against which the tongue forces food during chewing

106
Q

function of the soft palate?

A

mobile flap that rises to close off the nasopharynx during swallowing

107
Q

1

A

enamel

108
Q

2

A

dentin

109
Q

3

A

pulp cavity

110
Q

4

A

gingiva

111
Q

5

A

periodontal ligament

112
Q

6

A

bone

113
Q

7

A

cementum

114
Q

8

A

root canal

115
Q

9

A

root

116
Q

10

A

crown

117
Q

each tooth has 2 main regions, the exposed _____ and the _____ in the socket

A

crown
roots

118
Q

the surface of the crown, which bears the force of chewing, is covered by a layer of ____, the hardest substance in the body

A

enamel

119
Q

_____ underlies the enamel cap and forms the bulk of the tooth

A

dentin

120
Q

the _____ _____, in the center of the tooth, is filled with dental pulp, a loose connective tissue containing the tooth’s hard tissue and provides for tooth sensation

A

pulp cavity

121
Q

the part of the pulp cavity in the root is the _____ _____

A

root canal

122
Q

the external surface of the tooth is covered by a calcified connective tissue called _____

A

cement

123
Q

compare enamel and dentin

A

enamel
- on the surface of the crown
- lacks cells and vessels
- mass from calcium crystals

dentin
- under enamel and forms bulk of tooth
- bonelike tissue with mineral and collagen components
- harder than bone and lacks internal blood vessels

124
Q

what is the function of saliva?

A

-moistens the mouth
-dissolves food chemicals so they can be tastes
-wet food
-bind food together into a bolus
-its enzymes begin digestion of carbohydrates and fats
-neutalizes acids produced by oral bacteria that initiate tooth decay
-contains bactericidal enzymes, antiviral substances, antibodies, and a cyanide compound

125
Q

3 main salivary glands:

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

126
Q

describe the parotid gland

A

a salivary gland
has a parotid duct that penetrates the muscle of the cheek and opens the mouth
facial expression

127
Q

describe the submandibular gland

A

a compound tubocinar slalivary gland
its duct opens in the floor of the mouth to the tongue

128
Q

describe the sublingual gland

A

a salivary gland that lies on the floor of the oral cavity inferior to the tongue

129
Q

what type of epithelium comprosises the oral cavity, pharynx and esophagus?

A

stratified squamous

130
Q

food in the stomach is churned into a paste called _____

A

chyme

131
Q

the stomach starts the breakdown of food proteins by secreting ____, a protein-digesting enzyme that can function only under acidic conditions

A

pepsin

132
Q

what are the 4 regions of the stomach?

A

cardia
fundus
body
pylorus

133
Q

the ____ region of the stomach is a ring-shaped zone encircling the cardiac office at the junction with the esophagus

A

cardia

134
Q

the ____ region of the stomach is the stomach’s dome, tucked under the diaphragm

A

fundus

135
Q

the mid portion of the stomach, the _____, ends at the funnel-shaped pyloric part

A

body

136
Q

the ____ region of the stomach contains the pyloric sphincter which controls the entry of chyme into the intestine

A

pylorus

137
Q

gastric glands contain 3 types of secretory cells:

A

mucous neck
pariteal
chief

138
Q

what do mucous neck cells produce?

A

a different type of mucus from that secreted by the surface mucus cells

139
Q

what do parietal (oxyntic) cells produce?

A

the stomachs hydrochloric acid by pumping hydrogen and chloride ions into the lumen of the gland

140
Q

what do chief (zymogenic) cells produce?

A

the enzymatic protein pepsinogen, which is activated to pepsin when it encounters acid in the apical region of the gland

141
Q

what regions of the stomach do gastric glands contain parietal and chief cells?

A

parietal: fundus and body
chief: fundus

142
Q

what are the three regions of the small intestine?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

143
Q

function of the duodenum?

A

region of small intestine
- receives digestive enzymes from the pancreas and ill from the gallbladder

144
Q

function of mouth and what type of organ?

A

alimentary
chews food and mixes it with saliva

145
Q

function of salivary glands and what type of organ?

A

accessory
produces saliva, which contains a starch-digesting enzyme called salivary amylase

146
Q

function of pharynx and type of organ?

A

alimentary
swallows the chewed food mixed with saliva called bolus

147
Q

function of esophagus and type of organ?

A

alimentary
moves the bolus to the stomach

148
Q

function of the stomach and type of organ?

A

alimentary
mixes and churns food with gastric juice that contain acid and a protein-digesting enzyme called pepsin creating chyme

149
Q

function of liver and type of organ?

A

accessory
makes bile which aids in the digestion and absorption of fat

150
Q

function of pancreas and type of organ?

A

accessory
releases bicarbonate to neutralize intestinal contents; produces enzymes that digest carbohydrates, protein, and fat

151
Q

function of gallbladder and type of organ?

A

accessory
stores bile and releases it into the small intestine when needed

152
Q

function of small intestine and type of organ?

A

alimentary
digests food and absorbs nutrients into blood or lymph

153
Q

function of large intestine and type of organ?

A

alimentary
absorbs water and some vitamins and minerals: home to intestinal bacteria; passes waste material

154
Q

function of anus and type of organ?

A

alimentary
opens to allow waste to leave the body

155
Q

the medial surface of the kidneys is concave and has a vertical cleft called the renal ____, where vessels, ureters, and nerves enter and leave the kidney

A

hilum

156
Q

function of the kidneys:

A

-dispose of waste and excess ions
-regulate volume and chemical makeup of the blood by maintaining the proper balance of water and salts of acids and bases

157
Q

a thin, tough layer of dense connective tissue called the _____ _____ adheres directly to the kidneys surface, maintaining its shape and forming a barrier that can inhibit the spread of infection from the surrounding regions

A

fibrous capsule

158
Q

two distinct regions of kidney tissue:

A

cortex and medulla

159
Q

deep to the renal cortex is the renal ____, which consists of cone-shaped masses called renal pyramids

A

medulla

160
Q

the renal sinus is actually a “filled space” in that it contains the renal vessels and nerves, come fat, and the urine-carrying tubes called the _____ _____ and _____

A

renal pelvis
calices

161
Q

the _____ ____ is a flat, funnel-shaped tube, and is simply the expanded superior part of the ureter

A

renal pelvis

162
Q

branching extensions of the renal pelvis form two or three _____ _____ each of which divide to form several minor calicos, cup shaped tubes that enclose the paella of the pyramids

A

major calices

163
Q

function of the renal pelvis and calices?

A

the calices collect urine draining from the papillae and empty it into the renal pelvis
the urine then flows through the renal pelvis and into the ureter, which transports it to the bladder for storage

164
Q

1 whole structure

A

renal corpuscle

165
Q

2

A

glomerular capsule

166
Q

3

A

glomerulus

167
Q

4

A

proximal convoluted tubule

168
Q

5

A

distal convoluted tubule

169
Q

6

A

cortex

170
Q

7

A

medulla

171
Q

8

A

thick limb

172
Q

9

A

ascending limb

173
Q

10 whole structure

A

nephron loop

174
Q

11

A

descending limb

175
Q

12

A

ascending limb

176
Q

13

A

collecting duct

177
Q

each nephron is composed of a _____ _____ and a _____ ____

A

renal corpuscle
renal tubule

178
Q

the first part of the nephron where filtration occurs is the _____ _____

A

renal corpuscle

179
Q

the renal corpuscle consists of a tuft of capillaries called a _____ surrounded by a cup-shaped hollow _____ _____

A

glomerulus
glomerular capsule

180
Q

the external _____ _____ of the glomerular capsule is a simple squamous epithelium

A

parietal layer

181
Q

the glomerular capsule’s visceral layer clings to the glomerulus and consists of unusual, branching epithelial cells called _____

A

podocytes

182
Q

three layers of the filtration membrane:

A

(1) the fenestrated endothelium of the capillary
(2) the filtration slits between the foot process of the podocytes, each which covered by a thin slit diaphragm
(3) an intervening basement membrane consisting of the fused basal laminae of the endothelium and the podocyte epithelium

183
Q

after forming in the renal corpuscle, the filtrate proceeds into the long tubular section of the nephron, which begins as the elaborately coiled _____ _____ _____, makes a hairpin loop called the _____ _____ (loop of Henle), winds and turns again as the _____ _____ _____, and ends by joining a _____ _____

A

proximal convoluted tubule
nephron loop
distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct

184
Q

function of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

most active in resorption and secretion
- microvilli increase SA of the cuboidal epithelial cells, maximizing the capacity for resorbing water, ions, and solutes
- many mitochondria for energy for resorption

185
Q

epithelium of the nephron loop?

A

walls containing simple squamous

186
Q

function of the distal convoluted tubule?

A

simple cuboidal specialized for secretion and aborpion of ions
- less active than proximal because less microvilli

187
Q

function of collecting duct?

A

receives urine from several nephrons and runs straight through the cortex deep into the medulla
forms with the papillary ducts that empty into the minor calices
- simple cuboidal
- conserve body fluids

188
Q

explain the steps of how nephrons work

A

(1) blood from the heart travels to the renal artery, then to an arteriole leading into the kidney, where water and some solutes will be filtered from it. most of the filtrate will return to the general circulation
(2) filtration - at the start of the nephron, blood enters glomerular capillaries. water and small solutes are filtered into Bowman’s capsule
(3) tubular reaborption - water and many solutes cross the proximal tubule wall and enter interstitial fluid of the kidney cortex. membrane transport proteins move most of the solutes across the wall. these materials then enter the peritubular capillaries
(4) after its hairpin turn, the wall of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water. but its cells activity pump out sodium and chloride ions out of the loop. pumping makes the interstitial fluid saltier. as a result, even more water is drawn out of the collecting ducts that also run through the medulla
(5) tubular secretion - cells of the nephron tubular wall regions secrete excess H+ and a few other solutes into the fluid inside the nephron’s lumen
(6) hormonal action adjusts the urine concentration. ADH promotes water reabsorption, so the urine is concentrated. when controls inhibit ADH secretion, urine is dilute. aldosterone promotes sodium reaboption by stimulating sodium pumps. because more sodium is reabsorbed, the urine has little sodium. when controls inhibit secretion, more sodium is secreted in the urine.
(7) excretion - water and solutes that are not reabsorbed or that were secreted into the tubule flow through the collecting duct to the renal pelvis, then are eliminated from the body by way of the urinary tract

189
Q

two classes of nephrons:

A

cortical - 85% of nephrons, located almost entirely in cortex with loops dipping only a small amount into the medulla
juxtamedullary - renal corpuscles lie near the cortex-medulla junction - contribute to kidneys ability to concentrate urine

190
Q

the _____ are slender tubes that carry urine from the kidney’s to the bladder

A

ureters

191
Q

3 layers of ureters:

A

mucosa - transitional epithelium that stretches when the ureters fill with urine and a lamina propria composed of stretchy, fibroelastic connective tissue containing rare patches of lymphoid tissue

muscularis - inner longitudinal layer and an outer circular layer of smooth muscle

adventitia - typical connective tissue

192
Q

the _____ _____, a collapsible, muscular sac that stores and expels urine, lies inferior to the peritoneal cavity on the pelvic floor

A

urinary bladder

193
Q

at the bladders anterior angle is a fibrous band called the _____, the closed remnant of an embryonic tube called the allantois

A

urachus

194
Q

in the interior of the bladder, openings for both ureters and the urethra define a triangular region on the posterior wall called the _____

A

trigone

195
Q

3 layers of the bladder wall:

A
  • mucosa with distensible transitional epithelium and a lamina propria forms the inner lining of the bladder
  • a thick muscular layer called the detrusor forms the middle layer
  • adventitia
196
Q

the _____ is a thin-walled tube that drains urine from the bladder and conveys it out of the body

A

ureter

197
Q

at the bladder-urethra junction, a thickening of the detrusor forms the _____ _____ _____

A

internal urethral sphincter

198
Q

a second sphincter, the _____ _____ _____ surrounds the urethra within the sheet of muscle called the urogenital diagraphm

A

external urethral sphincter

199
Q

difference in male and female urethra

A

males: passes through prostate and into the penis
females: much shorter, runs from bladder to open in front of vagina

200
Q

what are the primary sex organs in the male and female?

A

male: testes
female: ovaries

201
Q

what are the gametes in males and females?

A

males: sperm
females: ovum (egg)

202
Q

why are testes located in the scrotum, outside of the body wall?

A

the testes make sperm and in order to do this the temperature of the testes needs to be cooler than the inside of the body

203
Q

the _____ _____, a layer of smooth muscle in the superficial fascia is responsible for wrinkling the scrotal skin

A

dartos muscle

204
Q

the _____ _____, bands of skeletal muscle that extend inferiorly from the internal oblique muscles of the trunk, are responsible for elevating the testes

A

cremaster muscles

205
Q

trace the pathway of sperm moving from testes to ejaculation

A

testes -> semifinerous tubules -> rete testis -> epididymis -> ductus deferens joins the seminal glands to form the -> ejaculatory duct -> prostate gland circles the first part of the -> urethra

206
Q

function of the bulb-urethral glands?

A

produce mucus, some of which enters the spongy urethra when a man becomes sexually excited prior to ejaculation
- neutralizes the traces of acidic urine in the urethra and lubricates the urethra to smooth the passages of semen during ejaculation

207
Q

the penis consists of an attached ____ and a free ____ that ends in an enlarged tip called the _____ ____

A

root
body
glans penis

208
Q

the skin covering the penis is loose and extends distally around the glans to form a cuff called the _____ or _____

A

prepuce
foreskin

209
Q

internally, the penis contains the spongy urethra and 3 long cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue called ____ _____

A

erectile bodies

210
Q

describe the structure of the erectile bodies

A

a thick tube covered by a sheath of dense connective tissue and filled with a network of partitions that consist of smooth muscle and connective tissue

211
Q

the mid ventral erectile body surrounding the spongy urethra, the _____ _____, is enlarged distally where it forms the glans penis and proximally where it forms a part of the root called the bulb of the penis

A

corpus spongiosum

212
Q

the paired, dorsal erectile bodies, the _____ _____, make up most of the mass of the penis

A

corpora cavernosa

213
Q

explain the mechanism of erection

A

results from engorgment of the erectile bodies with blood
- during sexual stimulation, parasympathetic innervation dilates the arteries supplying the erectile bodies, increasing the flow of blood to the vascular spaces within
- the smooth muscle in the partitions in these bodies relax, allowing the bodies to expand as the blood enters
- as the erectile bodies begin to swell, they press on the small veins that normally drain them, slowing venous drainage and maintaining engorgement
- the arrangement of collagen fibers in the dense connective tissue outside the erectile bodies strengthen the penis during erection

214
Q

ejaculation is under the control of:

A

sympathetic nervous system

215
Q

the _____ _____ houses the developing gametes, which are called oocytes while in the ovary

A

ovarian cortex

216
Q

all oocytes occur within sac-like multicellular structures called _____, which enlarge substantially as they mature

A

follicles

217
Q

the deep _____ _____ is a loose connective tissue containing the largest blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels of the ovary; these vessels enter the ovary through the hilum

A

ovarian medulla

218
Q

what is the role of the infundibulum in the oviduct?

A

the lateral region of the uterine tube, an open funnel opens into the peritoneal cavity

219
Q

what are oviducts?

A

fallopian tubes
receive the ovulated oocyte and are site for fertilization

220
Q

what is the role of the fimbriae in the oviduct?

A

the margin of the infundibulum is surrounded by ciliated, fingerlike projections that drape over the ovary

221
Q

what is the role of the ampulla in the oviduct?

A

medial to the infundibulum is the expanded ampulla, which forms half of the length of the uterine tube and is the site where fertilization usually occurs

222
Q

what is the role of the isthmus in the oviduct?

A

the medial third of the uterine tube

223
Q

how does the infundibulum capture a released oocyte?

A

bends to cover the ovary while the fimbriae stiffen and sweep the ovarian surface; then the beating cilia on the frimbriae generate currents in the peritoneal fluid that carry the oocyte into the uterine tube

224
Q

what is an ectopic pregnancy?
where do most occur?

A

the implantation of the embryo outside the uterus
uterine tube

225
Q

where is the uterus located in the body?

A

lies in the pelvic cavity, anterior to the rectum and posterosuperior to the bladder

226
Q

despite the presence of ligaments, what provides the primary support for the uterus to prevent prolapse?

A

the cervix contains a large amount of collagen fibers that form a tough, fibrous ring that keeps the uterus closed and the fetus within it during a pregnancy

227
Q

the rounded region superior to the entrance of the uterine tubes is the _____, and the slightly narrowed region inferior to the body is the _____

A

fundus
isthmus

228
Q

the narrow neck of the uterus is the _____, the inferior tip which projects into the vagina

A

cervix

229
Q

the major portion of the uterus is called the _____

A

body

230
Q

what are the 3 layers of the uterine wall?

A

(1) perimetrium
(2) myometrium - bulky middle layer consisting of interlacing bundles of smooth muscle that contract during childbirth to expel the baby from the mother’s body
(3) endometrium - the mucosal lining of the uterine cavity

231
Q

explain the structure of the vagina in terms of function

A

mucosa consists of a lamina propria which contains elastic fibers that help the vagina return to its original shape after expanding and stratified squamous that can withstand friction of intercourse and resist bacterial infection

232
Q

the female reproductive structure that lie external to the vagina are the _____ _____

A

external genitalia

233
Q

the _____ _____ is a fatty, rounded pad overlying the pubic symphysis

A

mons pubis

234
Q

extending posteriorly from the mons are two long, hair-covered, fatty skin folds, the _____ ____, which are the female counterpart of the scrotum

A

labia majora

235
Q

relate labia major of the female and the scrotum of a male in terms of development

A

they derive from the same embryonic structure

236
Q

the labia majora encloses two thin, hairless folds of skin called the _____ _____, which enclose a recess called the vestibule housing the external openings of the urethra and vagina

A

labia minora

237
Q

just anterior to the vestibule is the _____, a protruding structure composed largely of erectile tissue that is sensitive to touch and sweets with blood during sexual stimulation

A

clitoris

238
Q

the clitoris is hooded by a fold of skin, the _____ ______ ______ _____, formed by the anterior junction of the two labia minora.

A

prepuce of the clitoris

239
Q

as in the penis, the body of the clitoris contains paired _____ _____, which continue posteriorly into crura that extend along the bony pubic arch

A

corpora cavernosa

240
Q

the female _____ is a diamond-shaped region between the public arch anteriorly, the coccyx posteriorly, and the ischial tuberosityies laterally

A

perineum

Biology 367: Anatomy (10 decks)

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