Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is addiction?

A

a compulsive/abnormal behavior that relates to substances or behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is intoxication?

A

a state of disturbed cognition, perception, behavior, LOC, and judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is withdrawal?

A

physiological and mental readjustment from stopping the use of an addictive substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why is alcohol use accepted?

A

because it is legal, used in ceremonies, and religions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the blood alcohol level that can cause intoxication in a human?

A

80-100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the blood alcohol level that can cause death in humans?

A

400-700 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what drugs are CNS depressants?

A

alcohol, sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics, cannabis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are sedatives used for?

A

anxiety, panic, seizures, and sleep disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are hypnotics used for?

A

xxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are anxiolytics used for?

A

xxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some signs of alcohol/sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic intoxication?

A

disinhibition of sexual or aggressive behaviors

mood lability

impaired judgment and memory

impaired social/occupational function

decreased LOC

Slurred speech

Incoordination

Unseady

Nystagmus

Flushed face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is nystagmus?

A

uncontrolled eye movements…can be up, down, left, right, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some chronic effects of alcohol abuse?

A

peripheral neuropathy, alcoholic myopathy, Wernicke encephalopathy, korsakoffs psychosis, alcoholic cardiomyopathy, esophagitis, gastritis, pancreatitis, hepatitis, cirrhosis of liver, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is peripheral neuropathy in relation to alcohol abuse?

A

nerve damage in the extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does peripheral neuropathy feel like?

A

pain, burning, and tingling, in the extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what causes peripheral neuropathy?

A

having low amounts of the B vitamin Thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why do alcoholics experience peripheral neuropathy?

A

because they have poor nutrition and malabsorption of food from alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

can peripheral neuropathy be reversed?

A

yes but can be permanent for some

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is peripheral neuropathy reversed?

A

by abstinence from alcohol and improvement in diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is alcoholic myopathy?

A

a condition that causes loss of function and strength in your skeletal muscles in response to long-term or heavy drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the symptoms in acute alcoholic myopathy?

A

sudden onset muscle pain, swelling and myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is myoglobinuria?

A

occurs when myoglobin are present in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why would myoglobin be present in urine?

A

it occurs in patients who have alcoholic myopathy due to their muscles breaking down….the body excretes the product of the breakdown in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the symptoms of chronic alcoholic myopathy

A

gradual wasting and weakness of muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

is acute alcoholic myopathy reversible?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

is chronic alcoholic myopathy reversible?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes alcoholic myopathy?

A

having low amounts of the B vitamin thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what color is myoglobinuria?

A

red tinged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what changes must be made to improve patients with alcoholic myopathy?

A

abstinence from alcohol and diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what labs are elevated in patients with alcoholic myopathy?

A

aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Alanine transaminase
(ALT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is Wernickes encephalopathy

A

the most serious form of thiamine deficiency that can cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the symptoms of Wernickes encephalopathy

A

death, paralysis of ocular muscles, diploplia, ataxia, somnolence, and stupor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the ocular muscles?

A

muscles that control your eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is diplopia?

A

double vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is ataxia?

A

poor muscle control that causes clumsy movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is somnolence?

A

sleepy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a stupor?

A

state of unconsciousness that can be awakened with extreme stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

can wernickes be reversed?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is Korsakoff’s psychosis?

A

occurs when alcohol is abused the symptoms are confusion, recent memory loss, and confabulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what other diseases is Korsakoff psychosis paired with?

A

Wernicke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

is korsakoffs psychosis psychosis reversable?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

A

accumulation of lipids on the myocardial tissue causing the heart to be bigger and have weaker contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

can alcoholic cardiomyopathy be fixed?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does alcoholic cardiomyopathy mimic?

A

HF and arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the symptoms of alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

A

decreased ability to exert, tachy, dyspnea, edema, palpitations, and nonproductive cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what labs will be elevated in alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

A

AST and ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are treatments for alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

A

abstinence from alcohol, rest, oxygen, digitization, sodium restrictions, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is esophagitis?

A

inflammation of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is pancreatitis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the alcohol hepatitis?

A

inflammation of the liver that causes it to be enlarged and tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is cirrhosis of the liver?

A

when fibrous scar tissue forms on the liver decreasing filtration and absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the symptoms of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

N/v, anorexia, weight loss, abd pain, jaundice, edema, anemia, blood coagulation problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

why does alcoholic hepatitis cause anemia and blood coag problems?

A

xx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what can be done to treat alcoholic hepatitis?

A

abstinence from alcohol, diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is leukopenia

A

the production, function, and wbc impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does leukopenia put you at risk for?

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is thrombocytopenia?

A

decrease in platelet production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is sexual dysfunction in relation to alcoholism

A

women have decreased menstural cycles and libido

men have decreased test, gyno, and impaired fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how do we assess alcoholism?

A

CAGE questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does the C in CAGE mean

A

have you tried to CUT down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does the A in CAGE mean?

A

have people ANNOYED by criticizing you?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does the G mean in CAGE?

A

have you felt bad or GUILTY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does the E in CAGE mean?

A

have you had an eye opener drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

in the CAGE question what constitutes someone might have be an alcoholic?

A

2 or more positive responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

when does alcohol withdrawal occur?

A

from 4-12 hours from last drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A

tremmors in hand, toungue, eye
N/v
Sweating
Malaise/weak
Elevated BP/HR
Anxiety
Irritability
Hallucinations
Delirium
Headache
Insomnia
Depression
seizures
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what precautions should you keep in mind with alcoholics going through withdrawal?

A

seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what should you have ready for a patient under seizure precautions?

A

suction, nonrebreather, benzo, padded rails, vital machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what should you do if a seizure occurs?

A

check the time, roll the patient over, apply nonrebreather, use suction, administer lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what lab is being monitored for alcoholic in withdrawal?

A

BMP for fluid, electrolytes, and blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

why should blood sugar be monitored in alcoholics?

A

alcohol damages the pancreas which releases insulin and also damages the liver which releases glucose into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

why are alcoholics at risk for seizures?

A

because alcohol is a CNS depressant and when the patient stops drinking their CNS activity goes much higher than what it is used to causing increased risk of seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what med groups are used as substitution therapy for alcoholism?

A

benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

why are benzo and anticon used to treat alcoholism?

A

because it lowers the CNS activity to match where it was when they were drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what does the dosage timeline for substitution therapies look like?

A

start of with a higher dose and slowly taper away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what benzodiazepines are long acting?

A

chlodixepoxide and diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what benzo is short acting?

A

lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what benzo should be given to those with chronic liver diseases?

A

the quick-acting one lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are the anticonvulsants?

A

carbamazepine, valporic acid, lamotrigine, topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the two types of deterrent therapies for alcoholism?

A

Disulfiram and naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

how does Disulfiram work?

A

it causes the person taking the medication to become ill when ingesting alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

how long must a patient be abstinent from alcohol before taking Disulfiram?

A

minimum 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is required from the patient before taking Disulfiram?

A

consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the worst side effect of Disulfiram?

A

death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how long does it take for symptoms of Disulfiram to start if someone drinks?

A

5-10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what must the patient avoid when taking Disulfiram

A

alcohol, vanilla, mouth wash, nyquil, sanitizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are side effects the patient can anticipate if they drink while taking dilfucking fuck?

A

n/v, flushed skin, dizzy, sweating, tachycardia, resp depression, MI, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how does naltrexone work for alcoholics?

A

blocks pleasure receptors in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what can naltrexone be used to treat?

A

alcohol and opioid abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what therapies can alcoholics use?

A

AA, counseling, group therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what effects do sedatives/hypnotics/ anxiolytics have on the body?

A

changes in sleep/dreaming, hypotension, compromised contraction, reduced urine output, lower metabolism, reduced body temp, sexual function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

when does withdrawal begin in short acting drugs?

A

begins in 12 to 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

when does withdrawal peak in short acting drugs?

A

24 TO 72 HOURS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

when does withdrawal subside in short acting drugs?

A

5-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

when does withdrawal begin in long acting drugs?

A

2 to 7 days

96
Q

when does withdrawal peak in long acting drugs?

A

5-8 days

97
Q

when does withdrawal subside in long acting drugs?

A

10-16 days

98
Q

what are the two drugs that contain cannabinoids?

A

cannabis and synthetic k2

99
Q

what are the signs of intoxication in someone under the influence of cannabis?

A

euphoria, anxiety, paranoid, slowed time, impaired judgment, social withdrawal, tachy, red eyes, increased appetite, dry mouth, hallucinations, delusions

100
Q

what are the effects on cannabis on the body/

A

tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, laryngitis, bronchitis, cough, hoarse, decreased sperm count, amotivational syndrome`

101
Q

what are signs of cannabis withdrawal?

A

irritability, anger, insomnia, disturbing dreams, depressed mood, abd pain, tremors, sweating, fever, chills, headache

102
Q

what are the drugs containing opioids?

A

opium, heroin, mepridine, fentanyl

103
Q

what are the symptoms of opioid intoxication?

A

euphoria, lethargy, somnolence, dysphoria, impaired judgment, pupillary constriction, drowsiness, slurred speech, constipation, N/V, decreased RR and BP

104
Q

when do withdrawal symptoms start for opioids?

A

6-8 hours

105
Q

when do withdrawal symptoms peak for opioids?

A

2-3 days

106
Q

when do withdrawal symptoms subside for opioids?

A

5-10 days

107
Q

what are the symptoms that someone is going through opioid withdrawal?

A

N/V, craving, muscle cramps, pupillary dialation, Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, sweating, yawning, fever, insomnia,

108
Q

what is Lacrimation

A

leaking eyes

109
Q

what is used for opioid overdose?

A

naloxone

110
Q

what should you assess for before giving naloxone?

A

respiratory effort, bradycardia, unresponsiveness

111
Q

if the patient does not wake up after giving naloxone when can you give them another dose?

A

after 2-3 minutes change the nostril and give another dose

112
Q

what meds are used for opioid substitution therapy?

A

buprenorphine and methadone…..clonidine is used after

113
Q

what is used to determine if patients are going through alcohol withdrawal

A

CIWA

114
Q

what are the cns stimulants?

A

cocaine, amphetamines, hallucinogens, and inhalants

115
Q

what are the symptoms of intoxication for inhalants/cocaine/amphetamine?

A

fighting, grandiosity, hypervigilance, psychomotor agitation, impaired judgment, tachycardia, pupilary dialtion, elevated BP, perspiration, chills, n/v, hallucinations, delirium

116
Q

what are symptoms of cocaine/amphetamine withdrawal?

A

anxiety, depression, irritability, crave, fatigue, insomnia, hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation, paranoid, social withdrawal, SI

117
Q

what happens to the body with chronic cocaine use?

A

pulmonary hemorrhage, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, nasal rhinitis, placenta abruption, CVA

118
Q

what are the symptoms of hallucinogen intox?

A

agitation, hyperacitivty, violence, hallucinations, psychosis, convulsion, possible death`

119
Q

what are the two kinds of reaction to hallucinogens?

A

panic and flashback

120
Q

what happens during a panic reaction?

A

bad trip where you have anxiety, fear, paranoid, and psychosis

121
Q

what happens during flashback reaction?

A

spontaneous time where you have an intoxication effect

122
Q

what does the patient feel during a flashback reaction?

A

anxiety, depression, fear of losing mind, paranoid, impaired judgment

123
Q

what do you do when the patient is on hallucinogens or has a flashback?

A

reorient back to reality, and safety, and stay with them

124
Q

what does the use of inhalants do to your body?

A

cns and pns damage, dyspnea, pneumonia, n/v, cyanosis

125
Q

what are the goals for all addict patients?

A

safe detox, assume responsibility, connection of behaviors and consequences, self-esteem improvement, and abstinence

126
Q

what is mood?

A

how a person feels

127
Q

what is affect?

A

how the person is displaying on the outside

128
Q

what is bipolar disorder?

A

mood disorder manifested by cycles of mania and depression and times of normalcy

129
Q

what is mania?

A

alteration in mood that maybe expressed by feelings of elation, grandiosity, inflated self esteem, hyperactivity, agitation, racing thoughts,

130
Q

what is the average age of onset for mania?

A

25

131
Q

what happens to the neurotransmitters during a manic episode?

A

norepinephrine and dopamine are high and serotonin is low

132
Q

what drugs can cause mania?

A

amphetamines, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and narcotics, steroids

133
Q

what is bipolar 1?

A

when a patient has mania with periods of depresion

134
Q

how many dig fast symptoms must a patient have to be bipolar 1?

A

3 or more

135
Q

what does DIG FAST stand for?

A

Distractability, Indescretion, Grandiosity, Flight of ideas, Activity increase, sleep deficit, and talkativeness

136
Q

what is bipolar 2?

A

bouts of major depression with episodes of hypomania

137
Q

can bipolar 2 patients experience a manic episode?

A

no only hypomanic

138
Q

what is the difference between hypomanic and manic symptoms?

A

hypomanic symptoms are not severe enough to mark impairment with social or occupational setting

139
Q

what is cyclothymia?

A

numerous episodes of elevation of mood and depression

140
Q

what is the longest someone with cyclothymia can go without symptoms?

A

2 months

141
Q

how long must someone with cyclothymia have symptoms before being diagnosed?

A

2 or more years

142
Q

what should be included in manic patient care?

A

monitoring risk for injury, monitoring risk for violence, ensuring good nutrition, monitoring for disturbed thought process, monitoring for disturbed sensory perception, impaired social interaction, and insomnia

143
Q

what are nursing interventions for manic patients?

A

reduce stimuli, remove harmful objects, stay with client, provide a structured schedule, provide physical activities, provide high protein finger foods, set limits, show force

144
Q

what foods are good for manic patients?

A

high-calorie and protein-rich finger foods`

145
Q

when is ECT used for bipolar patients?

A

for type 1 acute mania and type 2 for depression

146
Q

what is the mood stabilizer you need to know for mania?

A

lithium

147
Q

what antipsychotics are used for mania??

A

zxx

148
Q

what neurotransmitters are affected by lithium?

A

norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, glutamine, GABA

149
Q

what are the therapeutic levels of lithium for acute mania?

A

1-1.5

150
Q

what are the therapeutic levels of lithium for maintenance?

A

0.6-1.2

151
Q

what symptoms do patients with lithium toxicity have?

A

N/V, diarrhea, ataxia, blurred vision, tinnitus, tremors, mental confusion

152
Q

what education do you give a patient taking lithium?

A

Take regularly, dont drive, eat normal amounts of sodium, eat healthy foods, 6-8 glasses of water per day, avoid excess caffeine, carry med card, watch for weight gain, use contraception, keep appointments for serum levels

153
Q

what happens to sodium if lithium levels are too high in your body?

A

blocks the absorption of sodium which cause hyponatremia

154
Q

what meds are the anticonvulsants?

A

valporic acid, carbamaepine, lamotrigine

155
Q

what education do you give for anticonvulsants?

A

rash, bleeding, sore throat, dark urine, dark eyes, no alcohol, carry card

156
Q

what antipsychotics treat mania?

A

olanzapine, risperidone, chlorpormazine, aripiprazole, ziprasidone

157
Q

what is anorexia nervosa?

A

suppressing appetite that you have

158
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?

A

restriction of calories that cause loss in body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, disturbed body image, BMI less than 20

159
Q

what is a normal BMI?

A

20-24.9

160
Q

what are the symptoms of anorexia?

A

hypothermia, lanugo, bradycardia, hypotension, decreased bone density, amenorrhea, hypoglycemia, weak, poor memory

161
Q

what labs will be seen in anorexic patients?

A

hypoglycemia, anemia, leukopenia, abnormal hormone

162
Q

what medication helps with anorexia?

A

fluoxetine

163
Q

what are the nursing interventions for anorexia?

A

eating plan, daily weight, I/O, NG tube, coping skill, monitoring for refeeding syndrome

164
Q

what is a refeeding syndrome?

A

occurs when patient who is malnourished rapidly ingests food can cause death

165
Q

what should be put on patients when they might experience refeeding syndrome?

A

telemetry

166
Q

what are some goals for anorexic patients?`

A

2-3lbs per week, meeting cal goal, verbalize that behaviors are maladaptive, acknowledge that body fat was a misperception

167
Q

what are the two types of anorexia?

A

restrictive and eating/purging

168
Q

what is bulimia nervosa?

A

eating large amounts of food followed by purging or extreme exercise

169
Q

how many times must a person participate in overeating and purging before its considered bulimia nervosa?

A

1x a week for 3 months

170
Q

are bulimia nervose patients typically emaciated, normal weight or overweight?

A

normal

171
Q

what are the symptoms of bulimia nervosa?

A

Russell sign, enlarged parotoid gland, dental carries, enamel erosion, tears in gi tract, electrolyte imbalance, anxiety, mood disorder, substance abuse

172
Q

what labs are affected by bulimia nervosa?

A

low mag, k, na,

173
Q

what do you do if patients k comes back low?

A

tele

174
Q

what are the medication treatments for bulimia nervosa?

A

fluoxetine and topiramate

175
Q

what are nursing interventions for bulimia nervosa?

A

1 to 1 from 1-2 hours post meal, daily weight, I/O, eating plan, coping skill

176
Q

what are the goals when treating a patient with bulimia nervosa?

A

No signs of dehydration or electrolyte imbalance
No stash of food
Meet calorie goals
Verbalize previous behavior is maladaptive and life-threatening
Verbalises positive self-attributes
Acknowledges fat was a wrong perception

177
Q

what is a binge eating disorder?

A

uncontrolled rapid ingestion of food in a short period

178
Q

how many times must a person binge for the disorder?

A

1x a week for 3 months

179
Q

what are symptoms of binge eating disorder?

A

weight gain, cramps, constipation, reflux, high choleserol

180
Q

what are binge-eating patients at risk for?

A

diabetes type 2, hypertension, cancer, depression

181
Q

what meds for binge eating?

A

topiramate and lisdexamfetamine

182
Q

what nursing intervention for binge eating?

A

food diary, eating plan, progressive exercise, support group

183
Q

what are the goals for binge eating patients?

A

food diary, losing 1-2lbs per week, healthy eating, exercise, plan for future weight control, know positive attributes of self, and support groups

184
Q

what is the Maudsley approach?

A

family-oriented therapy for anorexia…weight gain is monitored by someone other than patient…once progress is made then the patient takes over….done outpatietn

185
Q

what biochemicals are effected in depression patients?

A

decrease in norepinepherine, serotonin, dopamine

185
Q

what gland can cause depression?

A

problems in the pituitary

186
Q

what is the learning theory say about depression?

A

that it is learned helplessness….the person after numerous failures give up on trying to be successful

187
Q

what does the object loss theory say about depression?

A

being abandoned during the first 6 months of life causes problems that persist into adulthood

188
Q

what does the cognitive theory say about depression?

A

cognitive distortion that perceives things through a negative/defeated lense

189
Q

according to the cognitive theory what negative expectations do depressed patients have?

A

environment, self, and the future

189
Q

what does the transactional model of stress say about depression?

A

many factors cause depression not just one thing

190
Q

what sex is more common to have depression?

A

female

191
Q

what is senescence?

A

depression with dementia

192
Q

what effect does socioeconomic status have on depression?

A

poverty and unemployment increase odds

193
Q

what is major depression disorder?

A

depression that impairs social and occupational functioning

194
Q

what is the acronym Sig E Caps stand for in relation to MDD?

A

Sleep disturbance
Interest decreased
Gulit
Energy decrease
Concentration problems
Appetite/Weight changes
psychomotor agitation
Suicidal ideations

195
Q

how many symptoms must be present to diagnose MDD?

A

5 or more findings for 2 weeks

196
Q

what if patient has MDD along with other factors like schizo, med, illness, or mania?

A

then patient does not have MDD

197
Q

what is dysthymia/persisten depressive disorder?

A

milder form of depression that has an early onset

198
Q

when does dysthymia typically set in?

A

adolescent

199
Q

how long does dysthymia last?

A

2 years for adults and 1 year for children

200
Q

what are the symptoms of dysthymia?

A

low mood, low appetite, sleep problems, poor concentration, irritablity, hopeless, inability to make descision

201
Q

what can dysthymia turn into?

A

MDD

202
Q

from the symptoms listed how many determine if they have dysthymia?

A

2 or more

203
Q

what are the symptoms of premenstrual dysphoric depression?

A

depressed mood, anxiety, mood swings, decreased interest, during the week menses, gets better post cycle

204
Q

what should you look for in relation to med pass with suicidal patietns?

A

watch for cheeking of meds

205
Q

what is the purpose of congitive behavioral therapy?

A

to control thought distortion, get ride of negative thoughts,

206
Q

what do SSRIs do?

A

prevent the reuptake of serotonin back into the neuron

207
Q

what is the first line treatment for depression?

A

ssri

208
Q

what cant you take with SSRI?

A

st john wort

209
Q

what drugs are SSRI?

A

sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, and paroxetine

210
Q

what are the complications for ssri?

A

serotonin syndrome, weight changes, anxiety, agitation, insomnia, cns stim, sexual dysfunction, withdrawal, HYPOnatremia, rash, gi bleed

211
Q

what do SNRIs do?

A

prevent the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

212
Q

what does SNRIs treat?

A

depression and anxiety

213
Q

what drug is a SNRI?

A

venlafaxine

214
Q

what are complications of SNRIs

A

serotonin syndrome, Nausea, sweating,, insomnia, tremors, sexual dysfunction

215
Q

what do tricyclic antidepressants do?

A

block reuptake of norepi and serotonin and blocks histamine receptors

216
Q

what drug is a tricyclic antidepressant

A

amitriptyline

217
Q

what are the complications of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

orthostatic hypo, decreased seizure threshold, sweating, increased appetite, sexual dysfunction, toxicity

218
Q

what does tricyclic toxicity look like?

A

cholinergic block, cardiac toxic, dysrhythmias, seizure, coma, death

219
Q

what do heterocyclic meds do?

A

block serotonin reuptake

220
Q

what drugs are heterocyclic?

A

buproprion, mirtazapine, trazadone

221
Q

what are the complications for heterocyclic medications?

A

lower seizure threshold, weight loss, insomnia, restless, increased HR, Gi distress, dry mouth, headache

222
Q

what are manoamine oxidase inhibitors?

A

increases nor epi and serotonin

223
Q

when are maois tried?

A

as a last resort

224
Q

what drug is a MAOI?

A

phenelzine

225
Q

what are the complications from taking MAOIs

A

Hypertensive crisis, mania, hypomania, orthostatic hypo, agitation, anxiety, cns stim

226
Q

what must patients avoid when taking MAOIs/phenelzine?

A

tyramine

227
Q

what happens if patietn taking phenelzine ingests tyramine?

A

hypertensive crisis

228
Q

what are symptoms of hypertensive crisis?

A

Headaches, N/V, Tachy, diaphoresis, change in loc

229
Q

what foods contain tyramine?

A

aged cheese, red wines, smoked/processed meats

230
Q

what kind of seizure is induced during ECT?

A

grand mal

231
Q

can a patient take meds before ECT?

A

no

232
Q

when is ECT used?

A

to treat suicide and depression

233
Q

what kind of memory loss is common in ECT

A

might forget pin to phone

234
Q
A