Exam 2 Flashcards
(316 cards)
1
Q
Flexor Retinaculum provides origin point for
A
thenar and hypothenar musculature
2
Q
thenar
A
base of thumb
3
Q
hypothenar
A
base of pinky
4
Q
_____ tendons to middle and ring fingers lie _____ to the flexor retinaculum along with the ______ nerve
A
flexor digitorum superficialis, deep, median
5
Q
extrinsic digital flexor tendons are surrounded by _______ in the ______ tunnel
A
synovial tendon sheaths, carpal
6
Q
Radial bursa
A
sheath surrounds flexor pollicis longus
7
Q
Ulnar Bursa
A
sheath surrounds flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus
8
Q
Digital Bursa
A
sheath surrounds the phalanges
9
Q
_______ of _____ or ____ bursa may lead to median nerve compression in the carpal tunnel
A
Tenosynovitis, radial, ulnar
10
Q
tenosynovitis
A
infection of tendons due to closed space with limited blood supply, results in abcesses with pain and tendon necrosis
11
Q
Pyogenic
A
pus producing (tenosynovitis)
12
Q
carpal tunnel syndrome effects the ______ muscles
A
thenar
13
Q
carpal tunnel symptoms
A
wrist pain exaggerated by prolonged flexion/extension (ex. during sleep), parasthesias in digits 1-3, grip weakness: can’t pinch or hold cyndrical objects, loss of fine motor abilities
14
Q
positive bottle sign associated with carpal tunnel
A
add picture here
15
Q
the pollex only has _____ phalanges and ____ IP joint
A
2, 1
16
Q
The pollex’s CMC joint is unique because _________
A
oriented at right angles to the other CMC joints
17
Q
CMC joints are ____ joints
A
plane synovial
18
Q
2nd and 3rd CMC joints are very _____
A
stable
19
Q
4th and 5th CMC joints are very ____
A
mobile
20
Q
CMC joint of the pollex is a ______ joint and facilitates _____
A
saddle, opposition
21
Q
_____ and ______ arteries supply the hand
A
radial and ulnar
22
Q
_______ palmar arch is continuation of ulnar artery
A
superficial
23
Q
_____ palmar arch is continuation of radial artery
A
deep
24
Q
Modified Allen’s Test is performed by
A
occlude blood flow by compressing arteries until palm turns pale white, then release one of the arteries and check for blood flow; repeat the process for the other artery
25
________ is the reason we don't use the thumb to take pulses
princeps pollicis artery
26
ulnar nerve is vulnerable to lesion due to
trauma/laceration, hamate fracture, pisiform or ulnar head dislocation, arthritis at the wrist, and most commonly repetitive motion
27
Air Hammer/ Handle bar neuropathy
vulnerable position of ulnar n. when there is loading of the extended wrist
28
_____ and _____ make up the roof of Guyon's Canal
palmaris brevis, palmar carpal ligament (distal antebrachial fascia)
29
The _____ makes up the floor of Guyon's Canal
flexor retinaculum
30
_____ makes up the medial wall of the Guyon's Canal
pisiform
31
_____ makes up the lateral wall of the Guyon's Canal
hook of hamate
32
In _____ Canal, the ulnar nerve divides into _______ and _____ branches
Guyon's, superficial, deep
33
the _____ branch of the ulnar nerve has entirely ______ distribution, except for the _____ muscle
superficial, cutaneous, palmaris brevis
34
the ______ branch of the ulnar nerve distributes to ______ hand muscles and ____ and _____ joints
deep, intrinsic, carpal, phalangeal
35
Dupuytern's contracture
pathological thickening of the palmar aponeurosis, usually occurs in older people
36
Dupuytern's Contracture presents with
4th and 5th flexion deformities (more mobile = more susceptible to issues)
37
5 Compartments of the hand include
central, thenar, hypothenar, adductor, and interosseous
38
central hand compartment
long digital flexor tendons, lumbricals, superficial palmar arch, median and ulnar n. digital branches
39
Thenar compartment of the hand
base of thumb, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis (OAF)
40
hypothenar compartment of the hand
base of digit minimi, opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis (OAF)
41
Adductor compartment of the hand
Adductor Pollicis
42
Interosseous compartment of the hand
metacarpals and interossei muscles
43
thenar compartment muscles are innervated by the ______
recurrent branch of the median n. (mostly C8 & lil bit of T1)
44
MILLION $$ NERVE
recurrent motor branch of the median n.
45
Q: What muscles are found in the hypothenar compartment?
A: Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi.
46
Q: Which nerve innervates the hypothenar muscles?
A: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, mostly T1).
47
Q: What is the primary function of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)?
A: Flexion at the PIP joints.
48
Q: Where does the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) insert?
A: Distal phalanges.
49
Q: Which muscles are located in the central compartment of the hand?
A: Extrinsic digital flexor tendons, lumbricals, and digital neurovasculature.
50
Q: Do the lumbricals have direct attachment to bone?
A: No.
51
Q: From where do the lumbricals originate?
A: Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP).
52
Q: What is the innervation of the lumbricals?
A: Half median (1&2) and half ulnar (3&4).
53
Q: What is the function of the lumbricals?
A: Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints.
54
Q: What forms the osseofibrous tunnel in the fingers?
A: The fibrous flexor sheath attached to bone.
55
Q: What is Champer’s Chiasm?
A: The splitting of the FDS tendon to allow the FDP tendon to insert on the distal phalanx.
56
Q: What structure reinforces the fibrous flexor sheath?
A: Annular ligaments or A pulleys and cruciform ligaments or C pulleys.
57
Q: What is the function of the synovial tendon sheath?
A: It produces lubricating fluid to allow smooth tendon movement.
58
Q: What causes “trigger finger”?
A: Adhesions from synovial sheath inflammation or infection.
59
Q: Where do the interosseous muscles arise from?
A: Adjacent metacarpals.
60
Q: What is the function of the dorsal interossei muscles?
A: Abduction of the fingers (DAB).
61
Q: What is the function of the palmar interossei muscles?
A: Adduction of the fingers (PAD).
62
Q: Which nerve innervates the interosseous muscles?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8-T1).
63
Q: What is the last muscle innervated by the ulnar nerve?
A: Adductor pollicis.
64
Q: How is the adductor pollicis tested?
A: Froment’s test.
65
Q: What does the extensor digitorum (ED) do?
A: Extends the MCP joints of digits 2-5.
66
Q: Where does the central slip of the extensor expansion attach?
A: Middle phalanx.
67
Q: What is the role of the lumbricals and interossei in extension?
A: They extend the PIP and DIP joints after the extensor digitorum extends the MCP joints.
68
Q: What is “mallet finger”?
A: A condition resulting from DIP hyperflexion.
69
Q: What limits hyperextension in the digital joints?
A: The volar plate.
70
Q: What causes “claw hand”?
A: Lower trunk lesion or damage to the ulnar nerve.
71
Q: What muscles are affected in “ape hand”?
A: Thenar muscles.
72
Q: What is the innervation of the thenar muscles?
A: Median nerve (C8, T1).
73
Q: Which muscles are included in the thenar compartment?
A: Opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis (superficial head).
74
Q: Which muscles are included in the hypothenar compartment?
A: Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi.
75
Q: What is the innervation of the adductor pollicis?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
76
Q: What is the innervation of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)?
A: Anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve (C8) and the ulnar nerve (T1).
77
Q: Which muscle is the prime mover for MCP extension of digits 2-5?
A: Extensor digitorum (ED).
78
Q: What are the lumbricals’ roles in digit movement?
A: Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints.
79
Q: Where do the palmar interossei muscles insert?
A: Base of the proximal phalanx and extensor expansion of the specific digit.
80
Q: What is the primary innervation of the intrinsic hand muscles?
A: Ulnar nerve (C8-T1).
81
Q: What are the roles of the lumbricals and interossei after the extensor digitorum extends the MCP joints?
A: They extend the PIP and DIP joints.
82
Q: What structure limits hyperextension in the digital joints?
A: The volar plate.
83
Q: What condition is characterized by consistent flexing of the IPs due to loss of interossei and lumbrical muscles?
A: Klumpke’s palsy.
84
Q: What is the innervation of the thenar muscles?
A: Median nerve (C8, T1).
85
Q: What is the innervation of the hypothenar muscles?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, mostly T1).
86
Q: Where do the lumbricals insert?
A: On the extensor expansion distal to the MCP joint.
87
Q: What forms Champer’s Chiasm?
A: The splitting of the FDS tendon.
88
Q: What is the innervation of the adductor pollicis?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
89
Q: What is the primary function of the extensor digitorum (ED)?
A: Extension of the MCP joints of digits 2-5.
90
Q: What is the function of the synovial tendon sheath?
A: To allow smooth movement of the tendons.
91
Q: What causes “trigger finger”?
A: Inflammation or infection of the synovial sheath.
92
Q: Where do the interosseous muscles arise from?
A: Adjacent metacarpals.
93
Q: What is the primary function of the lumbricals?
A: Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints.
94
Q: What muscle is tested using Froment’s test?
A: Adductor pollicis.
95
Q: What is the role of the lumbricals and interossei in extension of the hand?
A: They extend the PIP and DIP joints after the extensor digitorum extends the MCP joints.
96
Q: What is the innervation of the hypothenar muscles?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, mostly T1).
97
Q: What muscles are included in the hypothenar compartment?
A: Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi.
98
Q: What structures are included in the central compartment of the hand?
A: Extrinsic digital flexor tendons, lumbricals, and digital neurovasculature.
99
Q: What is the primary function of the lumbricals?
A: Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints.
100
Q: Which nerve innervates the opponens pollicis?
A: Recurrent branch of the median nerve
101
Q: What is the origin of the opponens pollicis muscle?
A: Trapezium and flexor retinaculum
102
Q: Where does the abductor pollicis brevis insert?
A: Base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb
103
Q: What joint does the flexor pollicis brevis act upon?
A: Metacarpo-phalangeal joint of the thumb
104
Q: True or False: The flexor pollicis brevis aids in opposition and adduction.
A: True
105
Q: The opponens digiti minimi muscle is responsible for what action?
A: Opposition of the little finger to the thumb
106
Q: Which nerve innervates the abductor digiti minimi?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
107
Q: True or False: The flexor digiti minimi brevis originates from the pisiform.
A: False (It originates from the flexor retinaculum and hook of hamate)
108
Q: The central compartment contains long digital flexor tendons from which muscles?
A: Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus
108
Q: What action is performed by the dorsal interosseous muscles?
A: Abduction of the digits away from the middle finger
108
Q: True or False: The palmar interosseous muscles are responsible for abduction.
A: False (They are responsible for adduction toward the middle finger)
109
Q: What is the result of tenosynovitis in the radial or ulnar bursae?
A: Median nerve compression in the carpal tunnel
110
Q: True or False: The radial bursa surrounds the flexor pollicis longus.
A: True
110
Q: Which muscle in the adductor compartment is tested by Froment’s test?
A: Adductor pollicis
111
Q: Which artery forms the deep palmar arch?
A: Ulnar artery
112
Q: What test is used to assess blood flow in the hand by observing the return of blood when pressure is released?
A: Modified Allen’s test
113
Q: The flexor retinaculum creates parts of which two structures?
A: Carpal tunnel and Guyon’s canal
114
Q: True or False: The ulnar nerve and artery pass through the carpal tunnel.
A: False (They pass through Guyon’s canal)
115
Q: What is the anatomical snuff box and why is it clinically significant?
A: Area between the extensor pollicis longus and brevis tendons, clinically significant for scaphoid bone fractures
116
Q: Pathological thickening of which structure results in Dupuytren’s contracture?
A: Palmar aponeurosis
117
Q: Which finger deformity is caused by an injury to the extensor tendon at the DIP joint?
A: Mallet finger
118
Q: True or False: The pulley system in fingers reinforces the tendons in order to keep them on track.
A: True
119
Q: What pathology involves numbness and tingling due to loading of an extended wrist?
A: Air Hammer/Handle Bar Neuropathy
120
Q: Carpal tunnel syndrome affects which digits primarily?
A: Digits 1-3
121
Q: What is the primary cause of Dequervain’s tenosynovitis?
A: Inflammation of the tendon sheath surrounding the wrist
122
Q: Which muscle’s atrophy is characteristic of Klumpke’s palsy?
A: Thenar muscles
123
Q: True or False: Trigger finger is caused by inflammation of the tendon.
A: True
124
Q: FOOSH injuries can result in which bone’s avascular necrosis?
A: Scaphoid bone
125
Q: When measuring finger MCP hyperextension, where is the stationary arm of the goniometer placed?
A: Volar aspect of the midline of the metacarpal being measured
125
Q: The axis for measuring finger MCP flexion with a goniometer is placed where?
A: Dorsal aspect of the MCP joint being measured
126
Q: True or False: Palmar abduction and radial abduction of the thumb use the same landmarks for measurement.
A: True
127
Q: For measuring thumb IP flexion/extension, where is the axis of the goniometer placed?
A: On top of the thumb’s IP joint
128
Q: What are the common settings for dynamometry during grip strength testing?
A: Settings 2 or 3
129
Q: Name the three types of pinch measurements performed with a pinch dynamometer.
A: Tip pinch, three-jaw pinch, lateral pinch
130
Q: True or False: MMT for MP flexion/extension involves stabilizing against the MCP joints.
A: True
131
Q: How many vertebrae are in the human spine?
A: 33 vertebrae
132
Q: Which vertebrae are associated with a secondary (lordosis) curve?
A: Cervical and lumbar vertebrae
133
Q: Dowager’s hump is a condition associated with which part of the spine?
A: Thoracic spine
134
Q: What structure is vulnerable to pathology changes with age and supports the transmission of body weight?
A: Vertebral body
135
Q: True or False: The intervertebral foramina transmit spinal nerves from the vertebral canal to the body wall and extremities.
A: True
136
Q: What are the two components of an intervertebral disc?
A: Anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus
137
Q: Which deep back muscles are known as postural muscles?
A: Intrinsic or paraspinal muscles
138
Q: Name the three muscles that make up the erector spinae group.
A: Spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis
138
Q: What is the primary action of the erector spinae muscles?
A: Extension of the vertebral column
139
Q: True or False: The transversospinalis muscles lie deep to the erector spinae muscles.
A: True
140
Q: Which bone forms the acetabulum, the socket of the hip joint?
A: Os coxa
141
Q: Name the joint between L5 and S1 bodies and articular processes.
A: Lumbosacral joint
142
Q: What is the role of the sacroiliac joint?
A: Limited mobility due to its role in weight transfer during standing/sitting
143
Q: True or False: Anterior pelvic tilt causes shortening of the erector spinae and sartorius muscles.
A: True
144
Q: What happens to the iliofemoral ligament during posterior pelvic tilt?
A: It tightens
145
Q: Which muscles are shortened in hip hike?
glute medius and tensor fascia latae
145
Q: True or False: Hip drop is associated with a shortened gluteus medius.
A: False (It’s associated with a lengthened gluteus medius)
146
Q: The sacral plexus spans which vertebrae?
A: L4-S4
146
Q: Which nerve innervates the TFL, gluteus medius, and gluteus minimus?
A: Superior gluteal nerve
147
Q: Name the nerve that innervates the gluteus maximus.
A: Inferior gluteal nerve
148
Q: True or False: The sciatic nerve consists of L4-S3 fibers.
A: True
149
Q: Which muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve?
A: Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, popliteus, tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus
150
Q: What movements occur at the hip on a transverse axis in the frontal plane?
A: Flexion and extension
151
Q: What is the function of the acetabular labrum?
A: Surrounds the acetabulum, adding stability to the hip joint
152
Q: Which ligament contains blood vessels in the hip joint?
A: Ligament of the head of the femur
153
Q: True or False: The deep palmar arch is formed by the radial artery.
A: False (It is formed by the ulnar artery)
154
Q: Which structure in the hand is responsible for preventing bowstringing of tendons over the MCP joint?
A: Sagittal bands
154
Q: What is the primary action of the flexor pollicis brevis?
A: Flexion of the thumb
155
Q: True or False: The central slip of the extensor digitorum tendon attaches to the middle phalanx.
A: True
156
Q: Name the condition characterized by the anterior dislocation of the lunate into the carpal tunnel.
A: FOOSH (fall on outstretched hand)
157
Q: True or False: Mallet finger is an injury to the flexor tendon at the DIP joint.
A: False (It’s an injury to the extensor tendon)
157
Q: What test is used to measure opposition of the thumb to the pinky?
A: CMC opposition test
158
Q: True or False: Klumpke’s palsy results in consistent flexing of the PIP joints.
A: True
159
Q: Which muscle is involved in adduction and flexion of the thumb?
A: Adductor pollicis
159
Q: Name the structure that is a continuation of the ulnar artery in the hand.
A: Superficial palmar arch
160
Q: True or False: The ulnar nerve splits into superficial and deep branches in Guyon’s canal.
A: True
161
Q: What muscle is tested by having the patient bring the pinky and thumb together?
A: Opponens digiti minimi
162
Q: Which structure forms the roof of the carpal tunnel?
A: Flexor retinaculum
163
Q: The nucleus pulposus is part of which structure in the spine?
A: Intervertebral disc
164
Q: True or False: Anulus fibrosis is the inner, semi-gelatinous region of the intervertebral disc.
A: False (It is the outer ring of fibrocartilage)
164
Q: What is the primary action of the longissimus muscle?
A: Extension and lateral flexion of the spine
165
Q: Which nerve innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand, carpal, and phalangeal joints?
A: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
166
Q: Which condition involves a “dinner fork deformity”?
A: Colles’ fracture
167
Q: The axis for measuring thumb MP flexion is placed where?
A: Right on top of the thumb’s MCP joint
168
Q: What type of pinch involves pinching with the thumb and index finger tips?
A: Tip pinch
169
Q: Which structure in the pelvis is formed by the fusion of three bones?
A: Os coxa
170
Q: True or False: Posterior pelvic tilt causes lengthening of the rectus abdominis.
A: False (It causes shortening)
171
Q: The sciatic nerve innervates which group of muscles?
A: Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendonosus, and ischial portion of the adductor magnus
172
Q: Name the movements that occur at the hip on a longitudinal axis in the sagittal plane.
A: External and internal rotation
173
Q: What is the closed pack position of the hip joint?
A: Full extension, internal rotation, and abduction
174
Q: True or False: Flexor retinaculum bridges the tubercle of the trapezium to the hook of hamate.
A: True
175
Q: The ligament of the head of the femur is also known as what?
A: Ligamentum teres
176
Q: Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the tendon sheath around the thumb?
A: Dequervain’s tenosynovitis
177
Which muscles are lengthened in a hip hike?
quadratus lumborum and adductor magnus
178
Which muscles are shortened in a hip drop?
quadratus lumborum and adductor magnus
179
Which muscles are lengthened in a hip drop?
glute medius and tensor fascia latae
180
hip hike occurs when
non weight bearing hip elevates
181
hip drop occurs when
non weight bearing hip lowers
182
posterior pelvic tilt causes what muscles to shorten?
rectus abdominus, glute max, and hamstrings
183
posterior pelvic tilt causes what muscles to lengthen?
erector spinae and sartorius
184
anterior pelvic tilt causes what muscles to shorten?
sartorius and erector spinae
185
Anterior pelvic tilt causes what muscles to lengthen?
abdominals, iliopsoas, and hamstrings
186
How many intervertebral discs are there?
23
187
What type of curve does the cervical spine have?
Lordosis, secondary
188
What type of curve is the thoracic spine?
kyphosis, primary
189
excess kyphosis of the thoracic spine is called what
Dowager's hump
190
Which vertebrae have a lordosis, secondary curve?
cervical and lumbar vertebrae
191
does the coccyx vertebrae have a lordosis curve?
false
191
What are the primary functions of articular processes in the spine?
facilitate and guide movement between vertebrae
192
What joint is located between superior and inferior articulating processes in the lumbar spine?
facet joint
193
What type of force can make intervertebral discs vulnerable to herniation?
tensile force
194
Actions of erector spinae
bilateral contraction to extend vertebral column and ipsilateral contraction to laterally flex the spine
195
three muscles of erector spinae group
iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis
196
Multifidus originates from
the sacrum and superior, posterior iliac spine
197
multifidus actions include
extending vertebral column bilaterally and rotating it unilaterally
198
Posterior pelvic tilt causes these muscle to lengthen
iliopsoas, glute max, rectus abdominis, and hamstrings
199
what muscles are innervated by the superficial gluteal nerve
TFL, glute medius, and glute minimus
200
The hip joint innervated by obturator, femoral, and nerve to quadratus femoris
coxofemoral joint
201
what arteries provide the main blood supply to the hip
reticular arteries
202
what structures form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa
superiorly: hamstring muscles, inferiorly: gastrocnemius heads
203
what bones form the knee joint
femur, tibia, and patella
204
what is the largest sesamoid bone in the body
the patella
205
what is the q angle and how does it affect knee mechanics?
the angle between the femur's shaft and a vertical line; larger Q angle in females may contribute to higher knee injury incidence
206
What are the primary functions of the menisci in the knee?
shock absorption, deepening the tibial plateau, and guiding femoral condyles
207
What is more mobile, the lateral or medial meniscus?
lateral
208
circumferential tear
type of meniscal tear amenable to surgical repair
209
what do the collateral ligaments of the knee primarily limit?
sideways movement of the knee
210
which cruciate ligament is often injured during hyperextension of the knee?
ACL
211
What does the posterior drawer test diagnose?
PCL tear
212
What is the role of the popliteus muscle?
unlocks the fully extended knee by laterally rotating the femur on the tibia
213
What are the primary movements of the talocrural joint?
plantarflexion and dorsiflexion
214
T or F, the distal tibiofibular joint is involved in ankle movement
true
215
what ligaments prevent inversion and are commonly sprained in the ankle?
lateral ligaments, including anterior talofibular ligament
216
The subtalar joint is critical for which movements of the foot?
inversion and eversion
217
What condition involves inflammation of bursae leading to swelling in the popliteal fossa?
Baker's Cyst
218
T or F, knee injuries are more common in athletes with increased weight
true
219
What structure helps prevent lateral tracking of the patella during knee extension?
vastus medialis
220
What is the axis for measuring finger MCP flexion using a goniometer
dorsal aspect of the MCP joint being measured
221
True or false, the moving arm of a goniometer for finger PIP flexion should be aligned with the middle phalanx
true
222
Dynamometry
method to measure grip strength
223
What muscles are tested during MP flexion MMT of the hand
lumbricals, interossei, and flexor digitorum superficialis
224
what role does the solar plate play in the hand?
stabilizes the MCP, PIP, & DIP joints on the palmar side
225
T or F, the radial bursa surrounds the flexor policis longs tendon
true
226
What is indicated by a hip hike on the non-weight-bearing side during lateral tilt assessment
a shortened quadratus lumborum on the hiked side
227
T or F, hip drop on the weight-bearing side indicates a shortened gluteus medius
False, it indicates a shortened gluteus medius on the NON-weight-bearing side
228
What nerve innervates the iliac muscle
L2 fibers
229
What is the action of the gluteus Maximus
hip extension and external rotation
230
What are the actions of the TFL
flexes, medially rotates, and abducts the thigh
231
What nerve innervates the TFL
superior gluteal nerve
232
What are the primary actions of the hamstrings?
knee flexion
233
What nerve innervates the quadriceps
femoral nerve
234
Which muscle of the quadriceps is responsible for both flexion of the thigh and leg extension?
rectus femoris
235
What is the insertion point for the gastrocnemius?
calcaneus, through the calcaneal tendon
236
T or F: the soleus muscle contributes to plantarflexion of the foot
True
237
What is the primary function of the patella?
enhances knee extension by moving the quadriceps tendon away from the knee's axis of rotation
238
T or F the knee joint allows for rotation in both flexion and extension
True, but limited to the flexed knee
239
What nerve innervates the adductor longus muscle
Obturator nerve
240
What nerve innervates the gastrocnemius?
The tibial nerve
241
What artery supplies blood to the femoral head?
reticular arteries
242
What deformity is caused by an injury to the central slip of the extensor tendon mechanism?
Boutinneire deformity
243
Trigger finger is characterized as
inflammation of a tendon causing the fourth digit to flex at the MCP joint
244
What is the function of the lateral collateral ligament in the knee?
It prevents genu varum
245
genu varum
bow leg
246
genu valgus
knock knee
247
T or F: the medial collateral ligament is more prone to injury due to its attachment to the medial meniscus
True
248
Which ligament prevents eversion of the ankle?
deltoid ligament
(medial collateral ligament)
249
T or F the anterior talofibular ligament is a common site for ankle sprains
True
250
What joint is critical for inversion and aversion movements of the foot?
the subtalar joint
251
Which muscle is primarily responsible for hip abduction and extension and innervated by the superior gluteal nerve?
glute minimus
252
T or F the quadratus femoris muscle is involved in lateral rotation and adduction of the thigh
True
253
CMC opposition test measures
the distance between the thumb and the pinky during opposition
254
What does the anterior drawer test assess in the knee?
ACL integrity
255
T or F: the lateral meniscus has direct attachment to the lateral collateral ligament
FALSE, the medial meniscus attaches to the medial collateral ligament
255
What forms the floor of the carpal tunnel?
carpal bones
256
the popliteal fossa contains the
tibial nerve, popliteal vein, and popliteal artery
257
the popliteal artery is vulnerable to injury due to
its close proximity to the posterior aspect of the femur, making it prone to femoral fractures, potentially compromising blood supply to the leg and foot
258
the iliopsoas combination is innervated by
L2 fibers
259
TFL, glute min, and glute medius are all innervated by the
superior gluteal nerve
260
Quadratus femoris is innervated by
the nerve to quadratus femoris
261
the quadratus femoris originates from ______ and inserts on _______
ischial tuberosity, posterior femur between greater and lesser trochanters
262
all of the hamstrings are innervated by the
sciatic nerve
263
all of the hamstrings originate from the
ischial tuberosity
264
biceps femoris inserts on the
head of the fibula
265
semitendonosus inserts on the
medial surface of proximal end of tibia
266
semimembranosus inserts on the
medial condyle of the tibia
267
all of the quadriceps are innervated by the
femoral nerve
268
all quadriceps insert on to
the patella and through patellar ligament to the tibial tuberosity
269
vastus medialis originates from
the medial lip of the lines aspera
270
vastus lateralis originates from
the lateral lip of the lines aspera
271
rectus femoris originates from
anterior inferior iliac spin
272
vastus intermedius originates from
anterior and lateral surfaces of the femur
273
gastrocnemius, coleus, and popliteus are all innervated by the
tibial nerve
274
the gastrocnemius, coleus, and popliteus all insert on to
the calcaneus
275
gracilis and pectinous are both innervated by the
femoral nerve
276
Adductor brevis, Adductor Magnus, and Adductor longus are all innervated by the
obturator
277
these muscles are responsible for knee flexion
biceps femoris, semitendonosus, semimembranosus, gracilis, sartorius, gastrocnemius, and popliteus
278
these muscles are responsible for knee extension
rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis
279
______ muscle is responsible for lateral rotation of the flexed knee
biceps femoris
280
screw home rotation involves slight lateral rotation of the _____ and slight medial rotation of the ______
tibia, femur
281
screw home rotation is a
extension locking mechanism that suctions in the meniscus
282
tibiofemoral joint is stabilized by
surrounding muscles, meniscus, and ligamentous support from 2 collateral and 2 cruciate ligaments
283
Menisci achieve shock absorption by
create the screw home mechanism, deepen contact surface on the tibia and increase stability, and decreases the load per unit area
284
lateral forces to the knee often damage the _____ meniscus
medial
285
the ACL, MCL, PML, OPL are ____ in extension and _____ in flexion
taught, slack
286
the patella moves _____ with flexion
inferiorly
287
plantar flexion and dorsi flexion occur at the ______ joint
talocrural
288
these muscle are responsible for ankle inversion
tibialis anterior & posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor and extensor hallucis longus
289
These muscles are responsible for ankle eversion
fibularlis longus & brevis, extensor digitorum longus
290
The talocrural joint is supported by the
deltoid ligament (MCL), the anterior talofibular ligament (laterally), and the posterior talofibular ligament
291
3 sections of the foot
hindfoot, midfootm and forefoot
292
hind foot is responsible for
inversion and eversion
293
mid foot is responsible for
inversion and eversion
294
forefoot is responsible for
phalangeal flexion & extension, inversion and eversion, phalangeal abduction & adduction
295
Anterior pelvic tilt lengthens the
iliopsoas, rectus abdominis, and hamstrings
296
anterior pelvic tilt shortens the
erector spinae and sartorius muscles
297
Posterior pelvic tilt causes lengthening of the
erector spinae and sartorius muscles
298
Posterior pelvic tilt shortens
the iliopsoas, glute max, rectus abdominis, and hamstrings; it tightens the iliofemoral ligament
299
pelvic rotation is named for which ever side is more ________ shifted
anteriorly
- right hip (counter clockwise)
- left hip (clockwise)
300
The WB leg in a hip drop shortens the _____________ and lengthens the _____________
quadratus lumborum and adductor Magnus, glute medius and TFL
301
the NON-WB leg shortens the _______ and lengthens the _______
glute medius and TFL, quadratus lumborum and adductor magnus
302
the WB leg in a hip hike has shortened _____ and lengthened _______
glute medius and TFL, adductor magnus and quadratus lumborum
303
the NON WB leg in a hip hike has a shortened _________ and a lengthened _________
quadratus lumborum & adductor magnus, glute medius & TFL
