Exam 2 Flashcards
(386 cards)
1
Q
The research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project that specifies the procedures necessary to obtain the information needed to structure and/or solve the marketing research problem.
A
True
2
Q
A type of research design that has as its primary objective the provision of insights into and comprehension of the problem situation confronting the researcher is called conclusive research.
A
False
3
Q
Exploratory research is research conducted to gain ideas and insight into the problem confronting the management or the researcher.
A
True
4
Q
Conclusive research should be used when management realizes a problem exists but does not yet understand why
A
False
5
Q
Conclusive research is conducted on a small and nonrepresentative sample, so the findings should be regarded as tentative and should be used as building blocks for further research.
A
False
6
Q
Research designed to assist the decision-maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action in a given situation is called subjective research.
A
False
7
Q
Conclusive research is based on the assumption that the researcher has an accurate understanding of the problem at hand.
A
True
8
Q
According to the text, the objective of exploratory research is to test specific hypotheses and examine specific relationships
A
False
9
Q
Exploratory research is typically more formal and structured than conclusive research.
A
False
10
Q
The objective of causal research is discovery of ideas and insights.
A
False
11
Q
A characteristic of descriptive research is that it is often the front end of total research.
A
False
12
Q
Descriptive research is a type of exploratory research that has as its major objective the description of something — usually market characteristics or functions.
A
False
13
Q
A cause-and-effect study is a major type of descriptive study.
A
False
14
Q
A type of research design involving the one-time collection of information from any given sample of population elements is called longitudinal design.
A
False
15
Q
Cross-sectional design is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly.
A
False
16
Q
According to the text, a longitudinal design provides a series of pictures, which track the changes that take place over time.
A
True
17
Q
A panel consists of a sample of respondents, generally households that have agreed to provide information over an extended period.
A
True
18
Q
Causal research is a type of conclusive research whose major objective is to obtain evidence regarding cause-and-effect relationships.
A
True
19
Q
According to the text, the main method of causal research is a panel.
A
False
20
Q
When little is known about the problem situation, it is desirable to begin with descriptive research.
A
False
21
Q
Social media can be appropriate for conducting exploratory and descriptive research but not causal research.
A
False
22
Q
Secondary data is data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem
A
False
23
Q
Primary data represents any data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand.
A
False
24
Q
According to the text, the collection process of secondary data is rapid and easy compared to the collection process of primary data.
A
True
25
Compared to the collection cost of primary data, secondary data is more expensive.
False
26
As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a relatively low cost, and in a short time.
True
27
According to the text, a basic rule of research is to examine secondary data first.
True
28
The value of secondary data is typically limited by their degree of fit with the current research problem and by concerns regarding data accuracy.
True
29
The research design specifications or the methodology used to collect secondary data should be examined to identify sources of bias
True
30
Availability is mentioned in the text as a primary criterion for evaluating secondary data.
False
31
An overall indication of the dependability of the data may be obtained by examining the cost of the source.
False
32
External data is data that originates outside of the client organization.
True
33
Accounting records, sales reports, and internal experts are typical sources of internal secondary data.
True
34
Data mining is marketing that involves using powerful computers with advanced statistical and other software to analyze large databases to discover hidden patterns in the data.
True
35
CRM databases can be analyzed in terms of a customer's activity over the life of the business relationship.
True
36
External sources may be broadly classified as general business/non-government data, government data, or syndicated data
True
37
A focus group is an example of a general business source of external secondary data
False
38
A company's blog, Facebook page, or Twitter account can generate rich internal secondary data.
True
39
The posts from social media such as blogs or Facebook "fan pages" give an informative account of consumer perception and preference with regard to the problem at hand
True
40
Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients are called syndicated services or syndicated sources.
True
41
Customized services make their money by collecting data and designing research products that fit the information needs of more than one organization.
False
42
Interviews with a large number of respondents using a predesigned questionnaire are called observations.
False
43
Panel surveys collect data on the same set of variables at regular intervals, each time sampling from a new group of respondents.
False
44
Periodic surveys measure the same group of respondents over time but not necessarily on the same variables.
False
45
An advantage of scanner volume-tracking data is being the most flexible way of obtaining data.
False
46
Verifications of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis are characteristics of audits.
True
47
Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions.
True
48
Psychometrics refers to the psychological profiles of individuals and to psychologically based measures of lifestyle, such as brand loyalty and risk taking.
False
49
"Lifestyles" refer to the distinctive models of living of a society or some of its segments
True
50
According to the text, surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumer's motives, attitudes, and preferences.
True
51
Scanner data are data obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages.
True
52
Scanner data that provides information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation is called volume-tracking data.
True
53
The three types of scanner data that are available are scanner panels, volume-tracking data, and scanner panels with cable TV.
True
54
Scanner panels collect scanner data wherein panel members are issued an ID card allowing panel members'; purchases to be linked to their identities.
True
55
The collection of product movement data for wholesalers and retailers is called a focus group.
False
56
A physical audit is a formal examination and verification of product movement carried out by examining physical records or analyzing inventory.
True
57
Syndicated services or sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement.
True
58
Which statement is NOT true about research design?
Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
59
The ________ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project that specifies the procedures necessary to obtain the information needed to structure and/or solve the marketing research problem.
B) research design
60
A type of research design that has as its primary objective the provision of insights into and comprehension of the problem situation confronting the researcher is called ________.
Exploratory research
61
________ is research conducted to gain ideas and insight into the problem confronting the management or the researcher.
Exploratory research
62
Which of the following types of research design should be used when management realizes a problem exists but does not yet understand why?
Exploratory research
63
________ is conducted on a small and nonrepresentative sample, so the findings should be regarded as tentative and should be used as building blocks for further research.
Exploratory research
64
________ research is typically more formal and structured than ________ research.
Conclusive; exploratory
65
Large, representative samples are used to collect data that are analyzed with statistical techniques for which of the following types of research designs?
Conclusive research
66
Descriptive research is a type of ________ that has as its major objective the description of something — usually market characteristics or functions.
Conclusive research
67
________ is particularly useful whenever research questions relate to describing a market phenomenon, such as frequency of purchase, identifying relationships, or making predictions.
Descriptive research
68
Which of the following is NOT an example of a descriptive research goal?
To determine the cause of a sales decrease
69
________ assumes that the researcher has prior knowledge about the problem situation.
Descriptive research
70
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of descriptive research?
Based on data that is collected using small, nonrepresentative samples
71
Which of the following is NOT one of the major types of descriptive studies?
Cause-and-effect qualitative studies
72
A type of research design involving the one-time collection of information from any given sample of population elements is called ________.
cross-sectional design
73
________ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly.
Longitudinal design
74
According to the text, a ________ provides a series of pictures, which track the changes that take place over time.
Longitudinal design
75
A(n) ________ consists of a sample of respondents, generally households that have agreed to provide information over an extended period.
Panel
76
Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal design in a descriptive research project?
A panel that consists of households that provide purchasing information at specified intervals over an extended period
77
________ is a type of conclusive research whose major objective is to obtain evidence regarding cause-and-effect relationships.
Causal research
78
According to the text, the main method of causal research is a(n) ________.
experiment
79
Which of the following is the best example in which to apply causal research?
to determine the relationship between sales promotion and advertising expenditures and sales of Mercedes
80
When little is known about the problem situation, it is desirable to begin with ________.
Exploratory research
81
________ is very versatile and can be used at any point in a study.
Exploratory research
82
Which of the following is NOT a task a researcher must perform in formulating a research design?
Determine how to make the research design error free
83
When conducting exploratory research overseas in a country such as Saudi Arabia on the topic of attitudes toward household appliances, it would be most effective to conduct ________.
one-on-one depth interviews matching respondents and interviewers by gender
84
Which of the following types of data represent any data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand?
secondary data
85
According to the text, the collection process of secondary data is ________ compared to the collection process of primary data.
rapid and easy
86
Compared to the collection cost of primary data, secondary data is ________.
less expensive
87
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?
May be expensive and time consuming
88
According to the text, a basic rule of research is to ________.
examine secondary data first
89
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a primary criterion for evaluating secondary data?
availability
90
If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent with the researcher's definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This statement refers to the
________ criteria for evaluating secondary data.
nature
91
An overall indication of the dependability of the data may be obtained by examining all of the following EXCEPT the ________.
cost of the source
92
________ is data that originates outside of the client organization.
External data
93
________ is marketing that involves using powerful computers with advanced statistical and other software to analyze large databases to discover hidden patterns in the data.
Data mining
94
A ________ is a centralized database that consolidates company-wide data from a variety of operational systems
data warehouse
95
Psychographics refers to ________.
quantified psychological profiles of individuals
96
According to the text, ________ is the largest source of secondary data in the United States.
the U.S. government
97
Which of the following is true about census data?
The data can be geographically categorized at various levels of detail.
98
Which of the following describes information services offered by marketing research organizations that provide information from a common database to firms that subscribe to the service?
syndicated services
99
Comparisons between numerical data from different countries can be difficult because of all of the following EXCEPT ________.
language differs across countries
100
According to the text, what is an ethical responsibility of a research agency?
After a detailed analysis of secondary data has been conducted, the researcher should reexamine the collection of primary data stipulated in the proposal.
101
Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients are called ________.
syndicated services /sources
102
________ make their money by collecting data and designing research products that fit the information needs of more than one organization.
Syndicated services
103
Which of the following are the two types of general surveys?
periodic and panel
104
Syndicated sources can be classified based on units of measurement, such as ________ and ________.
households/consumer; institutions
105
________ collect data on the same set of variables at regular intervals, each time sampling from a new group of respondents.
Periodic surveys
106
Which of the following types of general surveys measure the same group of respondents over time but not necessarily on the same variables?
panel surveys
107
For which of the following types of syndicated services do electronic devices automatically record behavior that supplements a diary?
media panels
108
Verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis are characteristics of which of the following types of syndicated services?
audits
109
Relatively precise information at the retail and wholesale levels is an advantage of which of the following syndicated services?
audit services
110
________ refer to the psychological profiles of individuals and to psychologically based measures of lifestyle, such as brand loyalty and risk taking.
Psychographics
111
The distinctive models of living of a society or some of its segments refers to ________.
lifestyles
112
According to the text, ________ are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences.
surveys
113
Purchase panel respondents like those on NPD's Online Panel provide detailed information on all of the following EXCEPT ________.
ALL OF THE ABOVE
114
A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices is referred to as ________.
media panels
115
________ are data obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages.
Scanner data
116
Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each panel member's purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are referred to as ________.
scanner panels
117
Scanner data that provides information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation are called ________.
volume-tracking data
118
Which of the following is a type of scanner data that is currently available?
Scanner panels, volume-tracking data, and scanner panels with cable TV
119
The collection of product movement data for wholesalers and retailers is called a(n) ________.
Audit
120
If a company is interested in determining the in-store shelf exposure of their brand versus competitive brands, the most effective way to obtain this information is via ________.
an audit
121
________ provide secondary data derived from industrial and organizational sources that are intended for industrial or institutional use.
Industrial Firms/Organizations
122
An effort to combine data from different sources by gathering integrated information on household and marketing variables applicable to the same set of respondents is called ________.
single-source data
123
Information gathered from social media is used to ________.
ALL OF THE ABOVE
124
Which of the following practices might be unethical?
The use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data collection, and the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research problem can be
addressed based on secondary sources alone
A and C are correct ^
125
Regarding supermarket loyalty cards, a shopper provides demographic and shopping-related information when applying for the cards. At check-out, the UPC-coded loyalty cards are swiped prior to scanning the items for purchase. Typically, databases gather the list of items that are scanned at check-out and match them to the shopper's records.
Most consumers are unaware that the supermarkets have all this information on them.
126
Informed consent is an ethical principle which ________.
Requires researchers to avoid both uninformed and misinformed participation in marketing research projects
127
Quantitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples, which provides insight and understanding of the problem setting.
FALSE
128
Qualitative research explores a problem with few preconceived notions about the outcome of that exploration.
TRUE
129
In addition to defining the problem and developing an approach, qualitative research is also appropriate when facing a situation of uncertainty.
TRUE
130
Qualitative research is a research methodology that seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis.
FALSE
131
Quantitative research seeks conclusive evidence, which is based on large, representative samples and typically applies some form of statistical analysis.
TRUE
132
In contrast to quantitative research, the findings of qualitative research can be treated as conclusive and used to recommend a final course of action.
FALSE
133
Whenever a new marketing research problem is addressed, qualitative research must be preceded by appropriate quantitative research.
FALSE
134
Qualitative research procedures are classified as either direct or indirect.
TRUE
135
A direct approach is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious given the nature of the interview.
TRUE
136
The type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disguised from the respondents is called an indirect approach.
TRUE
137
A depth interview is conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner.
FALSE
138
The main purpose of a focus group is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market.
TRUE
139
A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic characteristics.
TRUE
140
According to the text, the typical focus group costs the client about $4,500.
FALSE
141
A depth interview is recognized as the most important qualitative research procedure.
FALSE
142
According to the text, the typical duration of a focus group is less than an hour.
FALSE
143
A focus group typically consists of eight to twelve participants.
TRUE
144
Focus groups are unstructured, direct, personal interviews in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic
FALSE
145
There are fewer people in an online group than in a face-to-face group.
TRUE
146
Online focus groups take less time to set up and complete (turnaround time) than traditional focus groups.
TRUE
147
Traditional focus groups are much less expensive to conduct than online focus groups.
FALSE
148
Depth interviews are described as loosely structured, one-on-one conversations with individuals drawn from the target audience.
TRUE
149
An unstructured and indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern is called a projective technique.
TRUE
150
Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research.
TRUE
151
The evaluation technique is a classification of a projective technique used in marketing research.
FALSE
152
The evaluation technique is a popular form of qualitative research.
FALSE
153
The association technique is the projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind.
TRUE
154
A projective technique, in which respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time, is called word association.
TRUE
155
Completion techniques are a natural extension of association techniques, generating more detail about the individual's underlying feelings and beliefs
TRUE
156
A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them is called sentence completion.
TRUE
157
The word association technique requires the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description.
FALSE
158
The picture response technique is a projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it.
TRUE
159
Cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem in the cartoon test projective technique.
TRUE
160
A projective technique in which respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else is called sentence completion.
FALSE
161
In the third-person technique, the respondent is presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation.
TRUE
162
In cultural settings, such as the Far East where persons are hesitant to discuss their feelings in group situations, depth interviews should be used.
TRUE
163
Just being a part of different types of social media and analyzing what people are talking about cannot yield a basic understanding of customers.
FALSE
164
Private online communities can play the role of extended focus groups.
TRUE
165
Participant blogs are one way to conduct focus-group-type research using social media.
TRUE
166
It is not possible to conduct depth interviews using social media.
FALSE
167
The structured and direct form of questioning on social media has consumers willing to project their underlying thoughts, motivations, and feelings regarding the issues of concern.
FALSE
168
GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare used the picture response technique in social media to closely define the customer base for its new line of Alli weight-loss products.
FALSE
169
Often the amount of information generated while conducting qualitative research in social media can be rather limited.
FALSE
170
Including a client as a co-researcher in focus-group settings without introducing the client as the sponsor of the research raises ethical problems.
TRUE
171
________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples, which provides insights and understanding of the problem setting.
Qualitative research
172
Which of the following types of research explores a problem with few preconceived notions about the outcome of that exploration?
qualitative research
173
In addition to defining the problem and developing an approach, ________ is also appropriate when facing a situation of uncertainty.
qualitative research
174
________ is a research methodology that seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis.
Quantitative research
175
Which of the following types of research seeks conclusive evidence, which is based on large, representative samples and typically applies some form of statistical analysis?
Quantitative research
176
Which of the following types of research seeks statistical evidence, based on large, representative samples?
Quantitative research
177
In contrast to ________ research, the findings of ________ research can be treated as conclusive and used to recommend a final course of action.
qualitative; quantitative
178
In contrast to ________ research, the findings of ________ research should be treated as tentative and are not used to recommend a final course of action.
quantitative; qualitative
179
Whenever a new marketing research problem is addressed, ________ research must be preceded by appropriate ________ research.
quantitative; qualitative
180
Qualitative research procedures are classified as either ________.
direct or indirect
181
________ is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious given the nature of the interview.
A direct approach
182
The type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disguised from the respondents is called a(n) ________.
indirect approach
183
A(n) ________ is an interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner.
focus group
184
________ are the most important qualitative research procedure.
Focus groups
185
The main purpose of a(n) ________ is to gain insights on issues of interest to the researcher by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market.
focus group
186
According to the text, the typical focus group costs the client about ________.
$6,000 - 8,000
187
Which of the following is recognized as the most important qualitative research procedure?
focus group
188
According to the text, the typical duration of a focus group is ________.
one to three hours
189
A focus group typically consists of how many participants?
eight to twelve
190
All of the following are steps the moderator must take in order to increase the success rate of the focus group EXCEPT to ________.
choose which participant will be the group leader
191
Due to financial constraints, the lack of standardization in qualifications for focus group moderators can be minimized by ________.
preparing a detailed moderator discussion guide
192
Which of the following is NOT one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators?
joviality
193
In focus group reports, which of following is included?
analysis of facial expressions and body language
194
Disadvantages of focus groups include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
respondents are generally spontaneous
195
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using focus groups in marketing research?
Focus groups are easy to moderate.
196
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of online focus groups?
Costs are equivalent to traditional focus groups.
197
Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of online focus groups?
Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
198
Which of the following statements is an advantage of online focus groups?
A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey.
B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.
E) A and B
Answer: E
199
________ are unstructured, direct, personal interviews in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic.
Depth interviews
200
Which of the following is described as loosely structured conversations with individuals drawn from the target audience?
Depth interviews
201
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using depth interviews compared to using focus groups in marketing research?
Skilled depth interviewers are inexpensive and easy to find compared to focus group moderators.
202
An unstructured and indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern is called the ________.
projective technique
203
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of depth interviews over traditional focus groups?
cost per respondent
204
Which of the following is NOT a classification of the projective techniques used in marketing research?
evaluation technique
205
Which of the following describes the projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind?
word association technique
206
A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time, is called ________.
word association
207
Sentence completion can be extended to ________.
paragraph completion
208
Which of the following describes the projective technique in which respondents are shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it?
picture response technique
209
________ is a natural extension of word association techniques, generating more detail about the individual's underlying feelings and beliefs.
Sentence completion techniques
210
A projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them is called ________.
sentence completion
211
A projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a list of words and asked to write the first word or phrase that comes to mind is called the ________
word association
211
A projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and required to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description of a picture is called the ________.
picture response technique
212
The ________ is a projective technique in which the respondent is shown a picture and asked to tell a story describing it.
picture response technique
213
Cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem in which of the following projective techniques?
Cartoon tests
214
In which of the following projective techniques is the respondent presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the feelings and attitudes of other people to the situation?
third person technique
215
A projective technique in which respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else is called ________.
role playing
216
A structured questionnaire is given to a sample of a population and is designed to elicit specific information from respondents when using the survey method.
TRUE
217
The most popular primary data-collection method is the structured direct survey.
TRUE
218
The use of a formal questionnaire that presents questions in a prearranged order is called structured data collection.
TRUE
219
Observational interviews are recognized as a classification for the various methods of collecting survey data.
FALSE
220
Survey questionnaires may be administered in four major modes: (1) telephone interviews, (2) personal interviews, (3) mall interviews, and (4) electronic interviews
FALSE
221
The method of interview that is one of the most popular for collecting survey data is mail interviews.
FALSE
222
According to the text, using telephone interviews to collect survey data is the least popular method of collecting survey data.
FALSE
223
Sample control is the ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently.
TRUE
224
The percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed is referred to as response rate.
TRUE
225
In-home interviewing permits easy interviewer supervision and control as the interviewers are traveling door-to-door.
FALSE
226
The ability to collect a large quantity of data is an advantage of using telephone interviewing to collect research data.
FALSE
227
Disadvantages of using telephone interviewing to collect research data include no use of physical stimuli and poor response rates.
FALSE
228
The advantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data include very good sample control and the ability to collect a large quantity of data.
TRUE
229
Disadvantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data include the potential for interviewer bias and poor sample control.
FALSE
230
The advantages of using mail intercept interviews to collect research data include good control of the environment and good response rates.
TRUE
231
Poor response rates and the potential for interviewer bias are disadvantages of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data
false
232
Advantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data include good response rates and low potential for interviewer bias.
TRUE
233
High social desirability and high cost are disadvantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data.
TRUE
234
An advantage of using mall interviews to collect research data is the ability to control the interviewing environment.
FALSE
235
High interviewer bias is a primary disadvantage of using mail interviews to collect research data.
FALSE
236
The advantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data include high speed and low cost.
TRUE
237
Low sample control and low response rates are disadvantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data.
TRUE
238
According to the text, despite their value, personal in-home interviews are being replaced by telephone interviews.
FALSE
239
The tendency of the respondents to give answers that may not be accurate but that may be desirable from a social standpoint is called social desirability.
TRUE
240
Interviewer bias is defined as the error due to the interviewer not following the correct interviewing procedures.
TRUE
241
CAPI interviewing is inappropriate for conducting B2B research at trade shows or conventions.
FALSE
242
In CAPI, interviewer bias is reduced because the computer administers the interview.
TRUE
243
People are more likely to respond and respond sooner to fax surveys than mail surveys.
TRUE
244
A large and nationally representative sample of households who have agreed to periodically participate in mail questionnaires, product tests, and telephone surveys are called mail panels.
TRUE
245
Response bias is the bias that arises when actual respondents differ from those who refuse to participate in ways that affect the survey results.
FALSE
246
Compared to mail surveys, e-mail surveys offer time and cost advantages, especially in large surveys.
TRUE
247
Promised incentives are incentives that are included with the survey or questionnaire.
FALSE
248
A prepaid incentive is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey.
FALSE
249
The recording of behavioral patterns of people, objects, and events in a systematic manner to obtain information about the phenomenon of interest is called observation.
TRUE
250
Personal observation is an observational research strategy in which human observers record the phenomenon being observed as it occurs
TRUE
251
An observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed is called mechanical observation.
TRUE
252
Many social media sites today present an excellent platform for allowing researchers the widespread ability to disseminate questionnaires.
TRUE
253
The collection of survey data through social media sites can be automated, but does not allow the researcher to customize reach to various segments of consumers.
FALSE
254
A limitation is that online surveys conducted through social media platforms do not encourage committed and credible feedback.
FALSE
255
Analysis of the comments, photos, videos, audio, and other stimuli posted voluntarily by consumers on their social media sites are traces of their behaviors. An analysis of these constitutes a form of observation known as trace analysis.
TRUE
256
Participant blogs and online research communities may be considered to be examples of e-ethnography or netnography.
TRUE
257
Sugging is fund-raising under the guise of research.
FALSE
258
Interviews conducted by Procter & Gamble on Olay Beauty Bar, where the respondents actually washed their hands and face with the bar in a test area before responding to a survey falls under which of the following categories?
mall-intercept personal interviews
259
A structured questionnaire is given to a sample of a population and is designed to elicit specific information from respondents when using the ________.
survey method
260
According to the text, which of the following types of questions does NOT apply to survey research?
questions regarding observational research
261
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using the survey method?
ease of use
262
Use of a formal questionnaire that presents questions in a prearranged order is called ________.
structured data collection
263
Which of the following is NOT recognized as a classification for the various methods of collecting survey data?
observational interview
264
The method of interviewing that is one of the most popular in the United States for collecting survey data is the ________.
Internet interview
265
Which of the following methods of collecting survey data is the least popular in the United States?
Which of the following methods of collecting survey data is the least popular in the United States?
266
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)?
The CATI software cannot perform skip patterns.
267
A list of the disadvantages of telephone interviewing would include which of the following?
(Questioning is restricted to the spoken word, Interviewers cannot use physical stimuli such as visual illustrations or product
demonstrations, Personal rapport and commitment are difficult to establish, Respondents are less tolerant of lengthy interviews)
ALL OF THE ABOVE
268
________ is the ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently.
Sample control
269
The percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed is referred to as ________.
response rate
270
Which of the following is NOT a category of personal interviewing methods?
mail panel
271
All of the following are examples of advantages of using in-home interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT that ________.
it permits easy interviewer supervision and control as the interviewers are traveling door-to-door
272
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using telephone interviewing to collect research data?
large quantity of data can be collected
273
Which of the following disadvantages does NOT apply to using telephone interviewing to collect research data?
poor response rate
274
Which of the following advantages does NOT apply to using in-home interviewing to collect research data?
relatively inexpensive
275
Which of the following disadvantages does NOT apply to using in-home interviewing to collect research data?
poor sample control
276
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data?
low cost
277
The disadvantages of using mall intercept interviews to collect research data include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
poor response rate
278
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data?
low cost
279
All of the following are recognized as disadvantages of using computer-assisted personal interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT ________.
poor response rate
280
Which of the following is NOT recognized as an advantage of using mail interviews to collect research data?
good control of environment
281
The disadvantages of using mail interviews to collect research data include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
high interviewer bias
282
Which of the following is NOT recognized as an advantage of using electronic interviewing to collect research data?
high sample control
283
All of the following are recognized as disadvantages of using electronic interviewing to collect research data EXCEPT ________.
high interviewer bias
284
The tendency of the respondents to give answers that may not be accurate but that may be desirable from a social standpoint is called ________.
social desirability
285
________ is defined as the error due to the interviewer's failure to follow the correct interviewing procedures.
Interviewer bias
286
A large and nationally representative sample of households who have agreed to periodically participate in mail questionnaires, product tests, and telephone surveys are called ________.
mail panels
287
________ is the bias that arises when actual respondents differ from those who refuse to participate in ways that affect the survey results.
Nonresponse bias
288
Limitations of e-mail surveys include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
there is inherent self-selection bias
289
A(n) ________ is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey.
promised incentive
289
Which of the following types of incentives is included with the survey or questionnaire?
prepaid incentive
289
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of electronic methods of data collection?
low social desirability
289
Advantages of Internet surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following?
(Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or around the survey, It is possible to validate responses as they are entered, Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically)
ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
289
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a method used to improve response rates?
(prior notification, incentives, follow-up personalization)
ALL OF THESE methods are used to improve response rates.
290
Which of the survey methods listed below is preferable when using physical stimuli?
A) in-home
B) mall intercept
C) CAPI
E) A, B and C
Answer: E
291
The recording of behavioral patterns of people, objects, and events in a systematic manner to obtain information about the phenomenon of interest is called ________.
observation
292
________ is an observational research strategy in which human observers record the phenomenon being observed as it occurs.
Personal observation
293
An observational research strategy in which mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed is called ________.
mechanical observation
294
Which of the following is NOT a relative disadvantage of using personal observation methods?
unsuitable in natural settings
295
Which of the following is a disadvantage of observational data?
(Attitudes, motivations and values cant be assessed, perceptual differences among observers, Infrequent behaviors are too expensive to record, difficulty in observing behaviors)
ALL OF THE ABOVE
296
Telephone interviewing is not a popular mode of administering questionnaires in countries that ________.
have a low rate of households with telephones
297
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an advantage of social media for conducting surveys?
survey administration is easy to control
298
Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of social media for conducting surveys?
inability to field more complex questions
299
Validity takes place when the occurrence of X increases the probability of the occurrence of Y.
FALSE
300
Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.
FALSE
301
Concomitant variation occurs when the presumed cause and presumed effect are both present and both vary in a manner predicted by the researcher's hypothesis
TRUE
302
The relevant cause/effect relationship is identified when both time, order, and concurrent variation conditions are satisfied.
FALSE
303
In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal factors.
FALSE
304
The process of manipulating one or more independent variables and measuring their effect on one or more dependent variables while controlling for the extraneous variables is called an experiment.
TRUE
305
According to the text, experiments can be described in terms of interdependent variables.
FALSE
306
Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent variables or treatments is being studied are called test units.
TRUE
307
Dependent variables are variables that are manipulated by the researcher and whose effects are measured and compared.
FALSE
308
Variables that measure the effect of the independent variables on the test units are called dependent variables.
TRUE
309
Consumers are good examples of dependent variables.
FALSE
310
Variables, other than the independent variables, that influence the response of the test units are called extraneous variables.
TRUE
311
According to the text, an experimental group is the group exposed to the manipulated independent variable.
TRUE
312
The control group is not exposed to the independent variable manipulation, but provides a point of comparison when examining the effects of these manipulations on the dependent variable.
TRUE
313
With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the extraneous variables.
TRUE
314
External validity refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables
FALSE
315
Internal validity refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment remain the same when replicated in a larger population.
FALSE
316
Extraneous variables represent alternative explanations of experimental results
TRUE
317
Randomization is the preferred method for controlling extraneous variables.
TRUE
318
Designs that do not control for extraneous factors by randomization are called true experimental design.
FALSE
319
Pre-experimental designs are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups
FALSE
320
Statistical designs allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
TRUE
321
A pre-experimental design in which a single group of test units is exposed to a treatment X, and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken, is called the one-shot case study.
TRUE
322
The random group is a pre-experimental design in which a group of test units is measured before and after exposure to the treatment.
FALSE
323
The static group is a two-group experimental design in which one of the groups acts as a control group, the subjects are not assigned randomly, and measurements are made on both groups following the treatment.
TRUE
324
True experimental designs include the pretest-posttest control group design and the posttest- only control group design.
TRUE
325
A static group involves a prior measurement of the test units.
FALSE
326
An experimental design in which there is randomization and the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not and no pretest measure is taken is called the posttest-only control group design.
TRUE
327
The one-group pretest-posttest design is a design that involves randomization of the test units.
FALSE
328
A factorial design is a statistical experimental design used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
TRUE
329
According to the text, factorial designs are the most common statistical designs.
TRUE
330
A field environment is an artificial setting for experimentation in which the researcher constructs the desired conditions.
FALSE
331
Responses given because the respondents attempt to guess the purpose of the experiment and respond accordingly are called demand artifacts.
TRUE
332
A laboratory environment involves measurement of behavior, attitudes, or perceptions in the environment in which they occur.
FALSE
333
The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally higher than in the United States
FALSE
334
All of the experimental designs discussed in the book can be implemented within the context of the virtual world but not the real social world.
FALSE
335
It is possible to give monetary incentive in the form of Linden dollars in Second Life but nonmonetary incentives cannot be given.
FALSE
336
In the virtual world, it is more complex but much less costly to manipulate the independent variable and control for mediating variables than it is in the real world.
FALSE
337
Opinions, tastes, and preferences in virtual worlds are the same as in a real setting.
FALSE
338
As compared to the field, experimentation in social media offers the advantages of ease of implementation and lower cost.
TRUE
339
________ implies that the occurrence of X increases the probability of the occurrence of Y.
Causality
340
Concomitant ________ occurs when the presumed cause and presumed effect are both present and both vary in a manner predicted by the researcher's hypothesis.
variation
341
________ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
Concomitant variation
342
Which of the conditions must be satisfied in order to justify the inference of a possible causal relationship between two variables?
A) (i)
B) (i), (iii), and (iv)
C) (ii) and (iii)
E) (i), (ii), and (iii)
Answer: E
343
The process of manipulating one or more independent variables and measuring their effect on one or more dependent variables while controlling for the extraneous variables is called a(n)
________.
experiment
344
According to the text, experiments can be described in terms of all of the following EXCEPT ________.
interdependent variables
345
Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling procedures and all of the following EXCEPT specifying ________.
plan for data analysis
346
________ variables are variables that are manipulated by the researcher and whose effects are measured and compared.
Independent
347
All of the following are good examples of independent variables EXCEPT ________.
sales
348
Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose responses to independent variables or treatments being studied are called ________.
test units
349
All of the following are good examples of test units EXCEPT ________.
Price Levels
350
Variables that measure the effect of the independent variables on the test units are called ________.
dependent variables
351
All of the following are good examples of dependent variables EXCEPT ________.
Consumers
352
Variables other than the independent variables that influence the response of the test units are called ________
extraneous variables
353
According to the text, a(n) ________ is the group exposed to the manipulated independent variable.
experimental group
354
The ________ is not exposed to the independent variable manipulation but provides a point of comparison when examining the effects of these manipulations on the dependent variable.
Control Group
355
Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment, or event?
X
356
Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to two different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the two groups simultaneously?
R X1 O1
R X2 O2
357
________ refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables.
Internal validity
358
________ refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment remain the same when replicated in a larger population.
External validity
359
Which of the following is a way of controlling extraneous variables?
Randomization
360
Which of the following is NOT one of the broad categories of experimental designs?
concurrent design
361
Designs that do not control for extraneous factors by randomization are called ________.
Pre-experimental designs
362
________ are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.
True experimental designs
363
A random sample of respondents would be distributed randomly, half to the experimental group and half to the control group. A pretest questionnaire would be administered to the respondents in both groups to obtain a measurement on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and celebrity; only the respondents in the experimental group would be exposed to the TV program containing the Pepsi commercial. Then, a questionnaire would be administered to respondents in both groups to obtain posttest measures on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and celebrity. Which of the following experimental designs best represents the above scenario?
pretest-posttest control group design
364
Which of the following can be symbolized as:
EG: R X O1
CG: R O2
Where,
X = the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment, event, the effects of which are
to be determined
O = the process of observation or measurement of the dependent variable on the test units or
group of units
R = the random assignment of test units or groups to separate treatments
CG = control group EG = experimental group
posttest-only control group design
365
In a Pepsi project the researcher is interested in examining the effect of humor and the effect of various levels of brand information on advertising effectiveness. Three levels of humor (no humor, some humor, and high humor) are to be examined. Likewise, brand information is to be manipulated at three levels (low, medium, and high). The resulting table would be three rows (levels of information) by three columns (levels of humor), producing nine possible combinations or cells. The respondents would be randomly assigned to one of the nine cells. Respondents in each cell would receive a specific treatment combination. After exposure to a treatment combination, measures would be obtained on attitudes toward Pepsi advertising, brand, and the celebrity from respondents in each cell. To which category of design does this fall into?
Factorial design
366
________ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
Statistical designs
367
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of pre-experimental designs?
random group
368
A pre-experimental design in which a single group of test units is exposed to a treatment X and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken is called the ________.
one-shot case study
369
The ________ is a pre-experimental design in which a group of test units is measured before and after exposure to the treatment.
one-group pretest-posttest design
370
The ________ is a two-group experimental design in which one of the groups acts as a control group, the subjects are not assigned randomly, and measurements are made on both groups following the treatment.
static group
371
True experimental designs include the ________ and ________.
pretest-posttest control group design; the posttest-only control group design
372
An experimental design in which the test units are assigned randomly and the experimental group is exposed to the treatment but the control group is not, and no pretest measure is taken is called the ________.
posttest-only control group design
373
A design in which a single group of subjects is exposed to a treatment (X), and then a single measurement on the dependent variable is taken (O1) is called a(n) ________.
one-shot case study
374
________ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
Statistical designs
375
A(n) ________ is a statistical experimental design used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
factorial design
376
A ________ is an artificial setting for experimentation in which the researcher constructs the desired conditions.
laboratory environment
377
Responses given because the respondents attempt to guess the purpose of the experiment and respond accordingly are called ________.
demand artifacts
378
A ________ involves measurement of behavior, attitudes, or perceptions in the environment in which they occur.
field environment
379
Field experiments feature which of the following?
A) realistic environment
B) low control
C) high external validity
E) A, B, and C
Answer: E
380
Limitations of experiments include which of the following?
(time, cost, administration of an experiment, need for control)
ALL OF THE ABOVE
381
________ is an application of a controlled experiment done in limited, but carefully selected, test markets.
Test marketing
