Exam 3 Flashcards
(399 cards)
1
Q
The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain pre-specified rules is called measurement.
A
T
2
Q
The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called sampling.
A
F
3
Q
When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are not measuring the object but some characteristics of it.
A
T
4
Q
A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called an ordinal scale.
A
F
5
Q
Nominal scales are recognized as the most basic or limited.
A
T
6
Q
Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales.
A
F
7
Q
According to the text, interval scales are the simplest to use.
A
F
8
Q
The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the ratio scale.
A
T
9
Q
Nominal scales are used for classification and identification purposes only.
A
T
10
Q
Mutually exclusive means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class.
A
T
11
Q
In marketing research, ordinal scales are used to measure market share.
A
F
12
Q
The numbers assigned in a nominal scale do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic being measured.
A
T
13
Q
A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a nominal scale.
A
F
14
Q
A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called an ordinal scale.
A
T
15
Q
Common examples of ordinal scales include educational levels and social security numbers.
A
F
16
Q
An interval scale is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.
A
T
17
Q
A ratio scale is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences.
A
T
18
Q
Temperature scales such as Celsius and Fahrenheit are examples of interval scales.
A
T
19
Q
Because the zero point is fixed in interval scales, it is not meaningful to take ratios of scale values.
A
F
20
Q
The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into comparative and noncomparative scales.
A
T
21
Q
A non-comparative scale is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another.
A
F
22
Q
A non-comparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others.
A
T
23
Q
The major benefit of comparative scaling is that it is the most widely used scaling technique.
A
F
24
Q
According to the text, noncomparative scales are also referred to as nonmetric scaling.
A
F
25
Interval scales are widely used in marketing research.
T
26
According to the text, semantic differential scaling is a comparative scaling technique.
F
27
A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called paired comparison scaling.
T
28
Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands under consideration is limited to no more than seven.
F
29
A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called rank order scaling.
T
30
The most popular comparative scaling technique is semantic differential scaling.
F
31
Constant sum scaling forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment.
F
32
In paired comparison scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion.
F
33
According to the text, the constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.
T
34
All the primary scales and all the comparative scales that have been discussed in the book can be easily implemented in social media with the exception of ratio scales.
F
35
An analysis of social media content can shed light on the level of measurement that is appropriate in a given project.
T
36
An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on the type of scaling techniques, comparative or noncomparative, to use.
T
37
A noncomparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.
T
38
An itemized rating scale describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.
F
39
A continuous rating scale allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories.
T
40
According to the text, noncomparative scales are broadly classified as either continuous or itemized.
T
41
With the development of information technologies, such as computers and the Internet, continuous scales are being used less frequently.
F
42
A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object, is called a Stapel scale.
F
42
An itemized rating scale is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with the categories and the categories are ordered in terms of scale position.
T
43
Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree"
F
44
Likert scale analysis is generally conducted by appropriately summing the item scores.
T
45
When using a semantic differential, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm.
T
46
In semantic differential scales, the negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right- or left-hand sides without reading the labels.
T
47
A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values is called a Stapel scale.
T
48
Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least.
F
49
Scales are only presented horizontally.
F
50
A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated is called a multi-item scale
T
51
Random error affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made.
F
52
Systematic error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made.
F
53
The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called reliability.
T
54
According to the text, total measurement error is determined by multiplying systematic error with random error.
F
55
Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made.
F
56
Validity is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.
T
57
Perfect reliability implies perfect validity.
F
58
Perfect validity implies perfect reliability.
T
59
All the noncomparative scales that we have discussed in this chapter can be easily implemented in social media except the Stapel scale that has to be presented vertically.
F
60
Continuous scales can be used efficiently in social media.
T
61
An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on whether continuous or itemized rating scales should be used.
T
62
Given space limitations, it is not feasible to employ more than one scaling method to measure a given construct in social media.
F
63
The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules is called ________.
measurement
64
The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called ________.
scaling
65
Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic "attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. ________ is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. ________ is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude
Measurement; Scaling
66
Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary scales of measurement?
random scales
67
A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called a(n) ________.
nominal scale
68
Which of the following primary scales of measurement is recognized as the most basic or limited?
nominal scales
69
According to the text, ________ are the simplest to use.
nominal scales
70
The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the ________.
ratio scale
71
Which of the following primary scales of measurement is used for classification purposes?
nominal scales
72
In a department store project, numbers 1 through 10 were assigned to the 10 stores considered in the study. Suppose store number 9 referred to Sears and store number 6 referred to Neiman Marcus. Using this information, which of the following statements is true?
A) Sears is in some way superior or inferior to Neiman Marcus.
B) It is meaningful to state that the number of the average store is 5.5.
C) Both A and B are true.
D) None of the above are true.
D) NONE OF THE ABOVE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE
73
According to the text, ________ means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class.
mutually exclusive
74
According to the text, ________ means that all the objects fall into one of the classes.
collectively exhaustive
75
The numbers assigned in a(n) ________ do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic being measured.
nominal scale
76
A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a(n) ________.
ordinal scale
77
A(n) ________ is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.
interval scale
78
A(n) ________ is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences.
ratio scale
79
The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into ________ and ________.
comparative; noncomparative scales
80
A ________ is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another.
comparative scale
81
A major disadvantage of comparative scales would be which of the following?
A researcher cannot generalize beyond the objects under study.
82
According to the text, comparative scaling is sometimes referred to as ________.
nonmetric scaling
83
A(n) ________ is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others.
noncomparative scale
84
Which of the following is NOT a classification of itemized rating scales?
perceptual scales
85
Which of the following is NOT recognized as a comparative scaling technique?
semantic differential scaling
86
A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called ________.
paired comparison scaling
87
A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called ________.
rank order scaling
88
________ forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment.
Rank order scaling
89
In ________, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion.
constant sum scaling
90
A major disadvantage of constant sum scaling is that it ________.
cannot prevent respondents from allocating more or fewer units than those specified
91
According to the text, the constant sum should be considered a(n)
ordinal scale
92
In developing countries, which of the following scales would be best for measuring consumer preferences?
dichotomous scales
93
A(n) ________ is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.
noncomparative scale
94
Which of the following describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other?
a continuous rating scale
95
Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as ________ data.
interval
96
A(n) ________ allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories.
continuous rating scale
97
Which of the following types of scales are sometimes referred to as graphic rating scales?
continuous rating scales
98
Which scale is NOT an itemized rating scale?
continuous rating scale
99
According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the commonly used itemized rating scales?
random scale
100
A(n) ________ is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with each category with the categories ordered in terms of scale position.
itemized rating scale
101
A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree" which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object is called a(n) ________.
Likert scale
102
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Likert scale?
respondents read a short phrase rather than an entire statement
103
Which of the following types of scales is described as a seven-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning?
semantic differential
104
When using a(n) ________, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm.
semantic differential
105
A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values is called a ________.
Stapel scale
106
Which noncomparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
A) Likert scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Stapel scale
D) All of the above
ALL OF THE ABOVE
107
What type of scale is this?
Sears is:
Powerful —:—:—:—:-X-:—:—: Weak
Unreliable —:—:—:—:—:-X-:—: Reliable
semantic differential scale
108
Scale categories can be ________.
A) assigned numerical values
B) presented horizontally
C) expressed by boxes
D) expressed by discrete lines
E) All of the above
E) ALL OF THE ABOVE
109
A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated, is called a ________.
multi-item scale
110
_________ affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is mad.
Systematic error
111
Which of the following types of error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made?
random error
112
The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called ________.
reliability
113
According to the text, which of the following formulas determines total measurement error?
systematic error + random error
114
________ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.
Validity
115
A questionnaire is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers.
TRUE
116
A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.
FALSE
117
A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.
TRUE
118
According to the text, a conversational style should be avoided when writing interviewer-administered questionnaires.
FALSE
119
Collecting demographic information that can be used in direct mail campaigns is mentioned in the text as a specific objective of a questionnaire.
FALSE
120
The last step in the questionnaire design process is to reproduce the questionnaire.
FALSE
121
A single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a double-barreled question.
TRUE
122
When respondents are unable to articulate a response to a question, this usually indicates they have no opinion on that topic.
FALSE
123
To increase the likelihood of obtaining sensitive information, such topics should be placed in the middle of the questionnaire.
FALSE
124
Open-ended is a popular form of structured question.
FALSE
125
Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called unstructured questions.
TRUE
126
According to the text, unstructured questions are also referred to as free-response or free- answer questions.
TRUE
127
Dichotomous questions allow the respondent to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives.
FALSE
128
Open-ended questions are most useful in conclusive research and as opening questions.
FALSE
129
Questions that prespecify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called structured questions.
TRUE
130
In multiple-choice questions, the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given.
TRUE
131
An open-ended question is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no.
FALSE
132
According to the text, dichotomous questions should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms.
TRUE
133
To avoid problems in question wording, a researcher should use leading questions when designing a questionnaire.
FALSE
134
A researcher should use questions with positive statements only to avoid problems with question-wording.
FALSE
135
"Usually" "normally" and "frequently" are examples of words that are oftentimes considered confusing to respondents.
TRUE
136
A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a leading question.
TRUE
137
Problem-solving information is one of the three types of information that is obtained in a questionnaire.
FALSE
138
Basic information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study.
TRUE
139
According to the text, classification information is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem.
FALSE
140
Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as basic information.
FALSE
141
Identification information is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number.
TRUE
142
Classification information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the very end of the questionnaire.
FALSE
143
A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with the general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the funnel approach.
TRUE
144
According to the text, branching questions direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their response to the question at hand.
TRUE
145
A leading question is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
FALSE
146
Questions regarding identification information generally come before questions regarding demographics.
FALSE
147
Pretesting is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey.
TRUE
148
Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should NOT be drawn from the same population.
FALSE
149
According to the text, pretests are best done by telephone interviews.
FALSE
150
One consistency in conducting cross-national studies is the universal definition of "household" and "household size" across countries of the world.
FALSE
151
Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires
FALSE
152
Analysis of social media can give an understanding that can be valuable in designing an appropriate questionnaire for use in social media surveys but not in traditional surveys.
FALSE
153
An analysis of social media content can aid in determining the content, structure, and wording of individual questions.
TRUE
154
For questionnaires to be used in surveys to be conducted in social media, the general principles and guidelines for questionnaire design remain the same as those for traditional media.
TRUE
155
A(n) ________ is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers.
questionnaire
156
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a specific objective to consider when designing a questionnaire?
collect demographic information that can be used in later direct mail campaigns
157
Which of the following is NOT an objective of a questionnaire?
Questionnaire data must be easy to analyze.
158
Which of the following is the first step in the questionnaire design process?
specify the information needed
159
Which of the following is the last step in the questionnaire design process?
eliminate bugs by pretesting
160
According to the text, a single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a ________.
double-barreled question
161
Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions involved with ________.
individual question content
162
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question?
A) They may not be informed.
B) They may not remember.
C) They may not be able to articulate certain types of responses.
D) All of the selections represent a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question.
D) All of the selections represent a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question.
163
Initial questions in questionnaires that screen potential respondents to ensure they meet the requirements of the sample are called ________.
screening or qualifying questions
164
Which of the following is NOT a situation in which respondents are likely to refuse to answer a survey question?
The question is a screening question.
165
Which of the following is NOT a popular form of structured question?
open-ended
166
Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called ________.
unstructured questions
167
According to the text, ________ are also referred to as free-response or free-answer questions.
unstructured questions
168
Which of the following types of questions allow respondents to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives?
open-ended questions
169
All of the following are mentioned in the text as disadvantages that are related to unstructured questions EXCEPT ________.
respondent response limitations
170
Open-ended questions are most useful in ________ and as opening questions.
exploratory research
171
Questions that pre-specify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called ________.
structured questions
172
In ________, the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given.
multiple-choice questions
173
A(n) ________ is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no.
dichotomous question
174
According to the text, ________ should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms.
dichotomous questions
175
In wording questions, the researcher should avoid doing all of the following EXCEPT ________.
use positive and negative statements
176
Which of the following of the 6 W's is NOT particularly well-suited for serving as a guideline for defining the issue in a question?
Why
177
Which of the following is NOT a guideline that should be followed to avoid problems in question-wording?
use positive statements only
178
Which of the words below, when used in a question, tend to be confusing to respondents?
sometimes
179
A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a(n) ________.
leading question
180
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of information that is obtained from a questionnaire?
problem-solving information
181
Which of the following types of information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study?
basic information
182
According to the text, ________ is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem.
basic information
183
Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as ________.
classification information
184
________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, e-mail address and phone number.
Identification information
185
Which of the following types of information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the end of the questionnaire?
identification information
186
A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the ________.
funnel approach
187
According to the text, ________ direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their responses to the question at hand.
branching questions
188
A ________ is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
branching question
189
According to the text, identification information is usually positioned in which place in the questionnaire?
at the end
190
_______ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey.
Pretesting
191
According to the text, pretests are best done by ________ interviews.
personal
192
Regarding international marketing research, which of the following statements is true?
Personal interviewing is the dominant survey method.
193
According to the text, at what point are telephone interviews considered to be too long?
over 30 minutes
194
In sampling, an incident is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired.
FALSE
195
Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences are called elements.
TRUE
196
According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the interviewer.
FALSE
197
A population is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics.
TRUE
198
The aggregate of all elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, which comprises the universe for the purpose of the marketing research problem, is called the sample.
FALSE
199
A census involves a complete count of each element in a population.
TRUE
200
A census can greatly decrease non-sampling error.
FALSE
201
A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study object is called a sample.
FALSE
202
It is not always possible to reduce non-sampling error sufficiently to compensate for sampling error.
TRUE
203
An incident is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study.
FALSE
204
If a great deal of the company's product would need to be consumed as part of the study, then a census would be appropriate.
FALSE
205
According to the text, the first step in the sampling design process is to determine the sample size.
FALSE
206
The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the target population.
TRUE
207
The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sample units, extent, and time frame.
TRUE
208
A sampling unit is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled.
TRUE
209
A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.
TRUE
210
If the sampling unit is different from the element, it is necessary to specify precisely how the elements within the sampling unit should be selected. Selecting the person within the sampling unit with the next birthday is an appropriate way to precisely specify which element to sample.
TRUE
211
Every potential non-probability sample needs to have the same probability of selection.
FALSE
212
Probability sampling relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements.
FALSE
213
Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called non-probability sampling techniques.
TRUE
214
An example of nonprobability sampling is interviewing people in malls.
TRUE
215
According to the text, precision refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured.
TRUE
216
In nonprobability sampling, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly.
FALSE
217
A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called probability sampling.
TRUE
218
The number of units to be included in a study is called the sample size.
TRUE
219
The typical range for sample size in problem-solving research, product tests, and test marketing studies is 300-500 respondents.
TRUE
220
Cluster sampling is a commonly used nonprobability sampling technique.
FALSE
221
Quota sampling is an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique.
FALSE
222
Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer.
TRUE
223
Interviewing students, church groups, and members of social organizations are examples of convenience sampling.
TRUE
224
Convenience samples are appropriate to use with exploratory research.
TRUE
225
A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher's discretion is called judgmental sampling.
TRUE
226
Judgmental sampling is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection.
FALSE
227
Quota sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment.
TRUE
228
A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called snowball sampling.
TRUE
229
The major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating respondents in the population with the desired characteristic(s).
TRUE
230
Sampling efficiency refers to the trade-off between sampling cost and precision
TRUE
231
A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every with element in succession from the sampling frame is called systematic sampling.
TRUE
232
Area sampling relies on clustering based on geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks.
TRUE
233
The social media sampling frame is unbiased and appropriate for use in marketing research.
FALSE
234
Social media content available in the public domain is representative and appropriate for use in marketing research.
FALSE
235
The representativeness of information from general social media can be improved by screening resulting in a more targeted and representative sample.
TRUE
236
Projecting findings based on nonprobability sampling to the population is misleading and therefore unethical.
TRUE
237
The results of business-to-business research should be presented in such a way that respondents can be identified and linked to specific comments and findings.
FALSE
238
Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic questions that is addressed in the sample design phase?
"How much should the sample cost?"
239
In sampling, a(n) ________ is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired.
element
240
Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called a(n) ________.
element
241
According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the ________.
respondent
242
A(n) ________ is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics.
population
243
A(n) ________ involves a complete count of each element in a population.
census
244
A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study objects is called a(n) ________.
census
245
A(n) ________ is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study.
sample
246
Which of the following conditions does NOT favor the choice of using a sample over a census?
Cost of sampling error is high.
247
According to the text, which of the following is the first step in the sampling design process?
define the population
248
The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the ________.
target population
249
The target population should be defined in terms of all of the following EXCEPT in terms of ________.
cost
250
A(n) ________ is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled.
sampling unit
251
A(n) ________ is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.
sampling frame
252
________ relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements.
Nonprobability sampling
253
Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called ________.
nonprobability sampling techniques
254
Examples of nonprobability sampling include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
All of the above selections are examples of nonprobability sampling.
255
According to the text, ________ refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured.
precision
256
In ________, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly.
probability sampling
257
A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called ________.
probability sampling
258
The number of units to be included in a study is called the ________.
sample size
259
All of the following are examples of commonly used nonprobability sampling techniques EXCEPT ________.
cluster sampling
260
Which of the following is NOT an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique?
quota sampling
261
________ is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer.
Convenience sampling
262
All of the following are examples of convenience sampling EXCEPT ________.
expert witnesses used in court
263
In which of the following types of research are convenience samples appropriate to use?
exploratory research
264
A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher's discretion is called ________.
judgmental sampling
265
Which of the following is NOT a common example of judgmental sampling?
mall intercept interviews conducted without qualifying the respondents
266
________ is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment.
Quota sampling
267
A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called ________.
snowball sampling
268
________ is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection.
Simple random sampling
269
________ is a technique used to overcome the bias of unpublished and recent telephone numbers by selecting all telephone number digits at random.
Random-digit dialing
270
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of simple random sampling?
not easily understood
271
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of stratified sampling?
A) difficult to select relevant stratification variables
B) not feasible to stratify on many variables
C) expensive
D) ALL are weaknesses of stratified sampling.
D) ALL are weaknesses of stratified sampling.
272
A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame is called _______.
systematic sampling
273
According to the text, all of the following are challenges faced in implementing a sampling design in international research EXCEPT ________.
non-governmental organizations are needed to implement the sampling design in some countries of the world
274
According to the text, fieldwork is the first step in the marketing research process.
FALSE
275
Fieldwork is the step in the research process immediately after developing an approach to the problem.
FALSE
276
Fieldwork is the fifth step in the marketing research process.
FALSE
277
All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data.
TRUE
278
An observer counting customers in a particular section of a store is an example of a field worker.
TRUE
279
The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers.
TRUE
280
Researchers have one choice for collecting their data: hire a data collection agency.
FALSE
281
Field workers who collect data typically have research backgrounds and extensive training.
FALSE
282
A researcher should decide what characteristics the field workers should have when selecting field workers.
TRUE
283
To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected to emphasize a higher income class than respondents, since this increases the probability of a successful interview.
FALSE
284
According to the text, the typical interviewer is a single woman aged 18 to 34, with an above-average education and an above-average household income.
FALSE
285
Field workers are generally paid an hourly rate or on a per-interview basis.
TRUE
286
Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly.
TRUE
287
Interviewers should record responses after the interview.
FALSE
288
Validating the interview is recognized as a phase of the interviewing process.
FALSE
289
A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called probing.
TRUE
290
All interviewers should use the same format and conventions to record the interviews, but should alter their way of editing completed interviews to ensure variety and coverage.
FALSE
291
The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to record the responses verbatim.
TRUE
292
Sampling control helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information.
FALSE
293
Supervision of field workers involves coding of questionnaires.
FALSE
294
To understand the interviewer's problems, the supervisors should do some interviewing.
TRUE
295
An important aspect of supervision is sampling control, which attempts to ensure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility.
TRUE
296
To validate the study, the supervisors called 30 to 40 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.
FALSE
297
According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through pretesting of the questionnaires.
FALSE
298
Central office control involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions.
TRUE
299
Coding of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews.
FALSE
300
To validate the study, the supervisors call 1 percent to 10 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.
FALSE
301
The supervisor should ask a complex and sensitive survey question when validating an interview with a respondent.
FALSE
302
When evaluating field workers, the interviewer's time should be broken down into actual interviewing, travel, and administration.
TRUE
303
To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor must directly observe the interviewing process.
TRUE
304
For structured questions, the frequent occurrence of nonresponse items is an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interview.
TRUE
305
Research staff collecting and analyzing data from social media are normally part-time employees of the research firm.
FALSE
306
A limited number of operational staff or field workers, as few as two or three, may be assigned to a social media project.
TRUE
307
The selection, training, supervision, validation, and evaluation of field-workers is much more streamlined in social media fieldwork than in traditional fieldwork.
TRUE
308
According to the text, the data preparation process begins with checking the questionnaires for completeness.
FALSE
309
The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done.
FALSE
310
The final data analysis plan should never differ from the preliminary plan for data analysis.
FALSE
311
Data preparation should only begin once all batches of questionnaires are received from the field. In this way, processing uniformity is boosted.
FALSE
312
Data cleaning is the last stage of the data preparation process.
FALSE
313
At the editing stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency.
TRUE
314
A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called editing.
TRUE
315
Deleting the question from the survey is an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses.
FALSE
316
Unsatisfactory responses from collected data may be discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is 20 percent to 30 percent.
FALSE
317
Coding consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.
FALSE
318
The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that the symbol will occupy, is called coding.
TRUE
319
According to the text, the symbols used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a number.
TRUE
320
A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a codebook.
TRUE
321
Only software programs developed for the research industry should be used to enter data, not programs such as Microsoft EXCEL.
FALSE
322
Coding unstructured questions is relatively simple, since the response options are predetermined.
FALSE
323
According to the text, category codes should be collectively exhaustive and mutually exclusive.
TRUE
324
Data should be coded in a lean way in order to avoid retaining much detail
FALSE
325
Categories are collectively exhaustive if each response fits into one of the assigned category codes.
TRUE
326
If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data.
TRUE
327
According to the text, categories are mutually exclusive if every response fits into one and only one of the assigned category codes.
TRUE
328
When entering respondent data into a spreadsheet, each column contains the data for one respondent.
FALSE
329
Transcribing data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means.
TRUE
330
Optical scanning involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.
TRUE
331
The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called validating.
FALSE
332
Data cleaning includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. The checks at this stage are less extensive than the checks made during editing.
FALSE
333
A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called consistency checks.
TRUE
334
Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded
TRUE
335
Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is between 5 percent and 10 percent.
FALSE
336
Casewise deletion is an option available for the treatment of missing responses.
TRUE
337
A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called pairwise deletion.
FALSE
338
Casewise deletion is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered.
FALSE
339
Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when the sample size is large
TRUE
340
Considering the known characteristics of the data is a stage in selecting a data analysis strategy.
TRUE
341
Unlike traditional data collection, in social media respondents do not merely respond to questions or stimuli. Rather, they generate the data and edit it by their communal participation.
TRUE
342
The data preparation process for social media is exactly similar to that for data collected by traditional means.
FALSE
343
A good rule of thumb about the discarding of respondents is that such decisions should be made before conducting any analysis.
TRUE
344
According to the text, fieldwork is the ________ in the marketing research process.
fourth step
345
Which of the following individuals is NOT recognized as a field worker?
a project director conducting a check on the data analysis
346
All of the following are mentioned in the text as elements related to the fieldwork process EXCEPT the ________.
All of the mentioned elements are related to the fieldwork process.
347
The first step in the fieldwork process is the ________.
selection of field workers
348
A researcher should implement all of the following steps when selecting field workers EXCEPT ________.
All of the mentioned steps should be followed when selecting field workers.
349
To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected ________ since this increases the probability of a successful interview.
to match respondent's characteristics
350
According to the text, the typical interviewer is a ________, with an above-average education and an above-average household income.
married woman aged 35 to 54
351
Which of the following is NOT recognized as a phase of the interviewing process?
validating the interview
352
A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called ________.
probing
353
________ helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information.
Probing
354
The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to ________.
record the responses verbatim
355
Supervision of field workers involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.
coding of questionnaires
356
To understand the interviewers problems, the supervisors should ________.
do some interviewing
357
An important aspect of supervision is ________, which attempts to insure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility.
sampling control
358
To control the problems of interviewers not strictly following the sampling plan, supervisors should keep daily records of all of the following EXCEPT ________.
Supervisors should keep daily records of all of the selections to control interviewers.
359
According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through all of the following EXCEPT through ________.
pretesting of questionnaires
360
________ involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions.
Central office control
361
________ of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews.
Validation
362
To validate the study, the supervisors call ________ of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.
10 percent to 25 percent
363
Which of the following types of questions should the supervisor NOT ask when validating an interview with a respondent?
a complex and sensitive survey question
364
When evaluating field workers, which category is relevant for assessing how effectively the interviewer's time was spent?
A) actual interviewing
B) travel
C) administrative record-keeping
D) reviewing responses
E) None of the above
E) NONE OF THE ABOVE
365
To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor ________.
must directly observe the interviewing process
366
Which of the following is NOT an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interviewing?
For structured questions, the data seem reasonable.
367
Which of the following indicators should NOT be used to evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing?
Qualitative answers are summarized.
368
When supervising field workers, supervisors should be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT _______
pay levels
369
Conditions of conducting fieldwork in international marketing research include which of the following?
Local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries.
370
When collecting qualitative data from social media, which of the following is a decision that has to be made?
A) determining the type and specification of the social media channels to be monitored
B) developing a standardization of terms, conversation types, and content types
C) establishing a standardized coding scheme
D) setting benchmarks
E) All of these decisions have to be made
E) ALL OF THESE DECISIONS HAVE TO BE MADE
371
Researchers and field workers can make respondents feel comfortable by ________.
addressing questions of respondents
372
In the marketing research process, data preparation and analysis comes immediately after _______ and before ________.
fieldwork; report preparation and presentation
373
According to the text, the data preparation process begins with ________.
preliminary plan of data analysis
374
Which of the following is the last stage of the data preparation process?
selecting a data analysis strategy
375
A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called ________.
editing
376
________ consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.
Editing
377
Which of the following is NOT an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses?
delete the question from the survey
378
Which of the following is NOT a stage of the data preparation process?
questionnaire design
379
Respondents with unsatisfactory responses may be simply discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is ________.
less than 10 percent
380
The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that symbol will occupy, is called ________.
coding
381
According to the text, the symbol used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a(n) ________.
number
382
A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a(n) ________.
codebook
383
Coding ________ questions is relatively simple since the response options are predetermined.
structured
384
According to the text, category codes should be ________ and ________.
collectively exhaustive; mutually exclusive
385
Categories are ________ if each response fits into one and only one category code.
mutually exclusive
386
According to the text, categories are ________ if every response fits into one of the assigned category codes.
collectively exhaustive
387
________ data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means.
Transcribing
388
________ involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.
Optical scanning
389
The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called ________.
data cleaning
390
A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called ________.
consistency checks
391
________ represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded.
Missing responses
392
Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is ________.
more than 10 percent
393
A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called ________.
casewise deletion
394
________ is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered.
Pairwise deletion
395
Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when all of the following conditions are present EXCEPT when ________.
the sample size is small
396
________ involves the transformation of data to create new variables or modify existing ones.
Variable respecification
397
If there are too few respondents in the lowest income category, this category may be combined or merged with the next lowest category. This is known as ________.
recoding
398
According to the text, a survey discloses that 31 percent of the respondents preferred the client's brand, while 30.8 percent preferred the closest competing brand. In such a case, it is announced that the client's brand is the dominant brand. Such a situation would be ________.
unacceptable because it is misleading; the brands have virtual parity
