Exam 2 Flashcards
(104 cards)
1
Q
Asepsis
A
sterile
2
Q
Incubation
A
period before symptoms
3
Q
Prodromal
A
Period before onset of illness; vague symptoms
4
Q
Clinical illness
A
symptoms present; illness diagnosed
5
Q
convalescence
A
period after illness until feeling normal
6
Q
infectious disease
A
term used to describe illness by a pathogen
7
Q
spread of infection caused by:
A
world travel; natural disasters; nosocomial; iatrogenic; healthcare institutions (create drug-resistant bacteria); immunosuppressant therapies
8
Q
primary defense from infection
A
systems (GI, skin, mucous membranes, etc)
9
Q
Secondary defenses from infection
A
immune (specific to antigen/foreign substance) and inflammatory (local) responses
10
Q
Cell mediated immunity
A
immune response; T & B cells
11
Q
3 types of cells in cell-mediated immunity:
A
Helper T: help B recognize antigen; Suppressor T: prevent rxn to antigen to avoid hypersensitivity; Nat’l Killer T: kill infected cells
12
Q
Humoral immunity
A
immune response: antibodies (proteins) that recognize and destroy invaders; created on initial contact by B cells; 5 antibodies
13
Q
5 antibodies of humoral immunity:
A
IgM (first to form); IgG (slow to respond but will last for years); IgA (blood, saliva, tears); IgD (serum, role not identified); IgE (environmental; releases histamine)
14
Q
Active Immunity
A
immune response; long term acquired immunity; protects from new infxn
15
Q
Passive immunity
A
immune response; acquired; from antibodies of placenta, colostrum, or injection/prophylaxis
16
Q
Natural immunity
A
immune response; achieved when infected by organism/pathogen
17
Q
artificial immunity
A
immune response; vaccines
18
Q
acquired immunity
A
immune response; not innate, obtained during life; active/passive
19
Q
virulence
A
power of organism to cause disease/ability to survive outside cell; invasiveness; toxigenicity
20
Q
virus
A
only replicates in cells of host; packet of genetic material covered in protein coat
21
Q
bacterium
A
single cells; can grow outside organism
22
Q
fungi
A
eukaryotic; can replicate very rapidly; chitin; hard to destory
23
Q
parasites
A
organism lives inside another living creature and takes advantage
24
Q
order of vital signs
A
T-P-R-BP
25
BP normals:
systolic (100-130); diastolic (60-80); pulse pressure (30-50)
26
auscultory gap
when you don't hear the first Korotkoff sound
27
Korotkoff sounds (beats)
1) systolic-loud 2) muffle tap 3) tap 4) diastolic-muffled 5) 2nd diastolic-quiet
28
Reasons for false low BP:
cuff too big; arm not at heart level; manometer below eye level; let out too fast
29
Reasons for false high BP:
cuff too narrow; too loose; arm below heart level; manometer above eye level; failure to wait between readings
30
pulse normals
60-100 bpm (above 100-tachycardia; below 60-bradycardia)
31
pulsus paradoxus
when pulse relates to breathing
32
pulsus alternans
every other beat is strong
33
reason for pulse difference (listen at apical take radial pulse)
perfusion not 100%
34
normal respiration rates:
12-20/min (bradypnea 20)
35
Kussmaul
rate and depth of breath decreased
36
cheyne-stokes
apnea;hypoventilation; hyperventilation assoc'd with head injury
37
hyperventilation can lead to
hyperalkalosis
38
hypoventilation can lead to
hypoalkalosis
39
purpose of oxygen sats
provide info on oxygen saturation of arterial blood
40
hyperpyrexia
fever with extreme elevation: 106.7F; 41.5C
41
C to F conversion formula
Temp C (9/5) + 32
42
F to C conversion formula
Temp F - 32 (5/9)
43
septicemia
infxn in the blood stream
44
medical asepsis
practice to reduce number of pathogenic micro-organisms in client's environment
45
surgical asepsis
protect from infxn pre/post/during surgery; sterile of all organisms
46
standard precautions
hand hygiene; barrier precautions; applied to every client
47
airborne and droplet precautions
negative pressure room; N95 mask; door closed at all times
48
Contact precautions
standard plus gloves and gown; spread by direct/indirect contact
49
Chain of infxn
organism; portal of entry; reservoir; portal of exit; mode of transmission; host
50
normal temperature
98.6F; axillary is -1; rectal is +1; over 37.4C is a fever
51
Definition of nursing
diagnosis and treatment of human responses to actual or potential health problems
52
Definition of caring
be attentive to or watch over the needs of a person implying responsibility in the human relationship
53
Definition of profession
calling requiring special knowledge and academic preparation
54
Examples of civil law:
fraud, assault, battery, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, negligence, malpractice
55
Negligence
harm or injury; acts of commission or omission; judged against reasonable LAY person
56
malpractice
acts of negligence; compared to OTHER PROFESSIONAL; liability
57
values
ideals, beliefs, and patterns of behavior that are prized and chosen by a person, group, or society
58
morals
standards of conduct that represent the ideal in human behavior that would be put forward by all rational persons as a guide to our relationships to others
59
ethics
branch of philosophy that systematically examines behavior to determine what constitutes good, bad, right, and wrong in human behavior and provide guidance for action.
60
automony
refers to a person's right to make individual choices—that is, to self-determination.; ethic of caring
61
beneficense
promotion of good. It requires the performance of actions that are of benefit to others; ethic of caring
62
nonmalficense
do no harm.; ethic of caring
63
confidentiality
client's right to privacy in the health care delivery system.
64
fidelity
honoring agreements and keeping promises
65
justice
moral rightness, fairness, or equity
66
veracity
adhering to the truth. It requires truth telling consistently and continually
67
six-step ethical decision–making process
1)identify ethical dilemma 2)gather data 3)examine data for ethical problem 4)examine solutions 5)choose solution 6)evaluate
68
values clarification
allows you to identify your personal values and develop self-awareness
69
law
body of rules of action or conduct prescribed by a “controlling authority,” in this case the governmenbody of rules of action or conduct prescribed by a “controlling authority,” in this case the government
70
civil law
disputes between individuals and between individuals and groups.
71
tort
civil wrong committed by one person against another person or that person's property. It may be intentional or unintentional.
72
fraud
false representation of some fact with the intention that it will be acted upon by another person; intentional tort
73
defamation
false communication or a careless disregard for the truth that results in damage to someone's reputation; intentional tort
74
libel
written defamation
75
slander
spoken defamation
76
assault
an attempt or a threat to touch another person unjustly; intentional tort
77
battery
actual willful touching of another person that may or may not cause harm; intentional tort
78
false imprisonment
restraining a person, with or without force, against that person's wishes; intentional tort
79
invasion of privacy
an occur when the nurse unreasonably intrudes on the client's private affairs; intentional tort
80
negligence
harm or injury is caused by an act of either omission or commission by a layperson. Negligence can also result from failure to use the kind of care a reasonably prudent layperson would use in a similar situation; unintentional tort
81
malpractice
acts of negligence by a professional person as compared to the actions of another professional person in similar circumstances; unintentional tort
82
liability
egal obligation for which the nurse can be held responsible and accountable. To prove liability for negligence or malpractice, each of four elements must be proven: duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages; unintentional tort
83
4 elements of liability for malpractice:
duty; breach of duty; causation; damages
84
5 areas of potential nurse liability:
failure to monitor and assess; failure to ensure safety; medication errors; documentation; improper implementation of skills/procedures
85
criminal law
defines specific behaviors determined to be inappropriate in the orderly functioning of society.
86
common law
includes standards and rules applicable to our interactions with one another that are recognized, affirmed, and enforced through judicial decisions.
87
procedural law
establishes the manner of the proceeding used to enforce a specific legal right or to obtain redress
88
public law
regulates the relationship of individuals to government agencies and may be administrative, constitutional, or statutory.
89
statutory law
law enacted by the state or federal legislative branch of government.
90
substantive law
part of law that actually stipulates one's rights and duties, in contrast to procedural law, which guides the enforcement of rights.
91
professional misconduct
violation of the act that can result in disciplinary action against a nurse
92
credentialing
refers to the methods by which the nursing profession attempts to ensure and maintain the competency of its practitioners. The nursing profession uses several methods of credentialing, including accreditation, licensure, and certification
93
licensure
grants its owner formal permission from a constituted authority to practice a particular profession
94
accreditation
a process that monitors an educational program's ability to meet predetermined standards for students' outcomes. The accreditation process examines program length, teaching methods, course objectives, clinical sites, and numerous other factors related to the structure, functioning, and stated outcomes of the educational program.
95
registration
a process by which an applicant provides specific information to the state agency administering the nursing registration process
96
certification
voluntary process by which a nurse can be granted recognition for meeting certain criteria established by a nongovernmental association.
97
HIPAA
a set of federal regulations intended to protect client privacy by limiting the ways a client's personal medical information can be used.
98
emplyment law
governs employment practices and encompasses such areas as at-will employment, personal employment contracts, and collective bargaining.
99
informed consent
involves the legal right of clients to receive adequate and accurate information about their medical condition and treatment. Such information is necessary for clients to exercise their right to select and consent to particular treatments. The presumption of the law is that all adult clients possess the decision-making capacity to make informed decisions regarding their treatment choices.
100
advance directives
a written document that provides direction for health care in the future, when clients may be unable to make personal treatment choices
101
living will
document that provides written instructions about when life-sustaining treatment should be terminated. It may indicate when and if a person may be hospitalized and what types of treatment may be implemented.
102
durable power of attorney for healthcare
called a proxy directive, is a document that designates a person to make decisions about the client's medical treatment in the event that the client becomes unable to do so.
103
3 phases of therapeutic relationship:
1) orientation 2) working 3) termination
104
6 elements of communication process:
1)encoder 2)message 3)sensory channel 4)decoder 5)context 6)feedback
