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Embryology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ ______: Occurs when the blastocyst implants just above the internal OS (right above cervical canal)

A

Placenta Previa

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2
Q

Placenta Previa leads to…

A

Late pregnancy bleed

Cesarean Section

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3
Q

Thin tough membrane which forms the amniotic sac

A

Amnion

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4
Q

The amnion obliterates the ________ _______ as it enlarges

A

Chorionic Cavity

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5
Q

The fetus excretes ______ into the amniotic fluid.

____________: study of substances excreted by the fetus

A

excretes URINE in amniotic fluid

AMNIOCENTESIS: study of substances excreted by fetus

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6
Q

Waste products in the amniotic fluid enter the maternal bloodstream via the _________

A

Placenta

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7
Q

5 functions of amniotic fluid

A 
Symmetrical Growth
Infection Barrier
Shock Absorber
Temperature Regulator
Allows free movement facilitating muscle development
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8
Q

Abnormally low level of amniotic fluid

A

Oligohydramnios

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9
Q

Possible effects of Oligohydramnios (3)

A

Placental Insufficiency
Premature Rupture of Amniochorionic Membrane
Renal Agenesis (Kidneys do NOT form)

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10
Q

Oligohydramnios may lead to birth defects of _____ or _____ due to fetal compression against uterine wall.
Also, __________ hypoplasia may occur

A

FACE or LIMB

PULMONARY hypoplasia

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11
Q

Abnormally high volume of amniotic fluid

A

Polyhydramnios

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12
Q

Polyhydramnios is associated with major defects of the ____ and _________ _______

A

CNS

Esophageal Atresia - Prevents fetus from swallowing amniotic fluid

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13
Q

Two types of twins

A

Dizygotic

Monozygotic

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14
Q

Dizygotic Twins: (3)

A

Fraternal
2 oocytes + 2 sperm = 2 zygotes
2 placentas

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15
Q

Monozygotic Twins: One oocyte is fertilized by one sperm. During the ________ stage, the __________ divides into tow embryos with identical genetic makeups

A

BLASTOCYST stage

EMBRYOBLAST divides

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16
Q

Monozygotic Twins:

Each embryo has its own _______ sac, but they share a common ________ sac and _________.

A

(separate) Amniotic Sacs

(share) Chorionic Sac and Placenta

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17
Q

In monozygotic twins, an _________ ______ which does not completely separate results in conjoined twins.

A

Embryonic Disc

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18
Q

Neonatal Period -
The umbilical cord detaches __ - __ days after birth.
The Neonate loses ___% of its weight after birth, mostly due to the discharge of _________, a greenish substance of the fetal digestive tract, from the rectum.

A

Neonatal Period - First 4 weeks after birth

(umbilical cord detaches) 7-8 days after birth

(lose) 10% of weight due to discharge of MECONIUM (greenish substance of the fetal digestive tract)

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19
Q

Integumentary system includes… (4)

A

Skin
Hair
Nails
Mammary Glands

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20
Q

Two layers of skin

A

Epidermis (superficial, derived from ectoderm)

Dermis (deep, derived from mesenchyme)

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21
Q

The embryonic skin begins as a ______ layer of surface ________ cells

A

SINGLE layer of surface ECTODERM cells

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22
Q

Embryonic skin proliferates to form two layers:

A

Periderm - Keratinized Layer

Basal Layer - Produces New Cells

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23
Q

The keratinized cells of the periderm continuously _________, contributing to the _______ ______

A

Exfoliate

Vernix Caseosa

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24
Q

Whitish, greasy substance formed by secretions of sebaceous glands and exfoliated cells.

A

Vernix Caseosa

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25
Q

Vernix Caseosa covers the skin of the fetus and has the what 2 functions?

A

Protect fetal skin from amniotic fluid

Lubricates fetus to facilitate parturition

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26
Q

The periderm is replaced at week __ by the ________ ______

A

week 21

Stratum Corneum

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27
Q

________ ______ develop from the basil layer and produce patterns of the surface of the fingertips, palms of the hand and soles of the feet.

A

Epidermal Ridges

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28
Q

Epidermal ridges form the basis of fingerprint analysis or ___________

A

Dermatoglyphics

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29
Q

During the first __ months of development, ______ ______ cells invade the epidermis and differentiate into __________, which produce skin pigment

A

first 3 month…
NEURAL CREST cells…
MELANOCYTES

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30
Q

Albinism:

  • An _________ ________ genetic trait
  • Lack…
  • (number of melanocytes)
  • Due to an inability to produce _________ - an enzyme necessary to synthesize melanin
A

AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE genetic trait

lack PIGMENTATION of SKIN, HAIR AND RETINA

Normal number of melanocytes

inability to produce TYROSINASE

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31
Q

The dermis develops from __________, ultimately derived from ___________

A

Mesenchyme

Mesoderm

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32
Q

The dermis forms _______ ________, which project into the epidermis and contain blood vessels and nerves

A

Dermal Papillae

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33
Q

The deeper layer of the dermis contains _____

A

Fat

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34
Q

Hairs develop as _____-______ of the epidermis into the dermis called hair _____

A

Down-Growths

hair BUDS

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35
Q

The hair buds quickly form hair ______.

A

hair BULBS

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36
Q

Cells within the center of the hair bulbs ________, and as they are pushed toward the skin surface become _________, giving rise to the hair shaft

A

Proliferate

Keratinized

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37
Q

__________ (derived from neural crest cells) migrate to the hair bulbs and differentiate into ____________, which produce hair pigment.

A

Melanoblasts

Melanocytes

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38
Q

The _______ ______ ______ is formed from the mesenchyme surrounding the hair bulb.

A

Dermal Root Sheath

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39
Q

(Hair)

________ _____ muscles also develop from the surrounding mesenchyme and attache to the dermal root sheath.

A

Arrestor Pili Muscles - responsible for goosebumps

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40
Q

A small bud grows from the wall of the developing hair follicle to for a….

A

Sebaceous Gland

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41
Q

(Hair)

Cells from sebaceous glands ________, forming a fat-like substance which reaches the skin.

A

Degenerate

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42
Q

First hairs to form.

A

Lanugo

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43
Q

Lanugo: (2)

A

Help hold vernix caseosa - protects fetus from amniotic fluid
Replaced by coarser hair during prenatal period.

44
Q

Nails begin as…

A

Thickened areas of epidermis - Nail Fields

45
Q

Nail fields are surround proximally and along their lateral edges by ______ ______

A

Nail Folds

46
Q

Epidermal cells from the proximal nail fold spread _______ over the nail bed and become __________ to form the _____ _____

A

spread DISTALLY
become KERATINIZED
form the NAIL PLATE

47
Q

Fingernails reach the tip of the digits by…
Toenails reach the tips of the digits by…
Nail which do not reach the tips of the digits at birth suggest…

A

Fingernails - 32 weeks
Toenails - 36 weeks
not reaching the tips - PREMATURITY

48
Q

Specialized sweat glands

A

Mammary Glands

49
Q

Mammary glands develop from…

A

Band-like thickening of the epidermis called the MAMMARY CREST

50
Q

The mammary crest extends from…

A

Axilla to Groin

51
Q

Mammary glands of all mammals are found along the…

A

Mammary Crest

52
Q

Mammary _____ are down-growths of the epidermis into the underlying __________ which develop into _________ ______.

A

mammary BUDS…
into the underlying MESENCHYME…
develop into LACTIFEROUS DUCTS.

53
Q

The lactiferous ducts initially open into small…

A

Mammary Pits

54
Q

Shortly after birth, __________ of underlying ________ tissue causes the nipple and surrounding areola to evert.

A

PROLIFERATION of underlying CONNECTIVE tissue

55
Q

Developmental difference(s) of lactiferous ducts and nipples in males vs. females at birth.

A

None - Identical

56
Q

Breast development in females at puberty…

A

Female breast enlarges due to development of mammary glands as outgrowths from lactiferous ducts and deposition of fat.

57
Q

Polythelia

A

Supernumerary (extra) nipple along mammary crest.

58
Q

Polymastia

A

Supernumerary (extra) breast along mammary crest.

59
Q

During the third week of development, the ________ _________ becomes segmented into a series of blocks called _______.

A

During the third week of development, the PARAXIAL MESODERM becomes segmented into a series of blocks called SOMITES.

60
Q

Somites differentiate into… (2+definition)

A

Sclerotome: Located ventromedially - give rise to vertebrae and ribs
Dermomyotome: Located dorsolaterally - give rise to muscle and skin

61
Q

By the end of the fourth week, sclerotomes for a loosely woven embryonic connective tissue called _________

A

Mesenchyme

62
Q

Spina Bifida ______: Mild form of Spina Bifida
- (superficial indication)
Spina Bifida ______: Severe Form of Spina Bifida
- ________: cyst contain meninges and CSF
- ________: Cyst contains cord and roots
- ________: MOST severe; cord is open

A

Spina Bifida OCCULTS: Mild form of Spina Bifida
- PATH OF HAIR ON LOWER BACK
Spina Bifida CYSTICA: Severe Form of Spina Bifida
- MENINGOCELE: cyst contain meninges and CSF
- MENINGOMYELOCELE: Cyst contains cord and roots
- MYELOSCHISIS: MOST severe; open spinal cord

63
Q

Spina Bifida:

A

Failure of the two halves of the embryonic neural arch to fuse

64
Q

Klippel-Feil Syndrom:
Characterized by… (4)
Abnormalities of… (2)

A 
Short neck
Fused Cervicals
Restricted Neck Movement
Low Hairline
Abnormalities of Brainstem and Cerebellum
65
Q

Hemivertebrae - Most common cause of…

A

Congenital Scoliosis

66
Q

Most common type of dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

67
Q

Achondroplasia:

  • Due to disturbance in ___________ ossification
  • __________ dominant disorder
  • ___% come from new mutation and rate increases with ________ age
A

Achondroplasia:

  • Due to disturbance in ENDOCHONDRAL ossification
  • AUTOSOMAL dominant disorder
  • 80% come from new mutation and rate increases with PATERNAL age
68
Q

Achondroplasia Dwarves have… (physical features)

A
  • Normal size head with bulging forehead and indented nasal bridge
  • Limb bones are short and bowed due to disturbance of growth plate
69
Q

Muscle develops almost exclusively from __________.

A

Mesoderm

70
Q

2 exceptions of muscle developing from mesoderm

A
  • Smooth muscle sphincter and dialator muscles of pupil develop from NEUROECTODERM
  • Smooth muscle of mammary and sweat glands develop from SURFACE ECTODERM
71
Q

Pharyngeal Arch Muscles give rise to muscles of: (4)

A

Mastication
Facial Expression
Pharynx
Larynx

72
Q

Premature fusion of sutures

A

Craniosynostosis

73
Q

Carniosynostosis:
Scahocephaly: (1)
Brachycephaly: (1)
Trigoneophaly: (1)

A

Carniosynostosis:
Scahocephaly: premature fusion of SAGITAL SUTURE
Brachycephaly: premature fusion of CORONAL SUTURE
Trigoneophaly: premature fusion of FRONTAL SUTURE

74
Q

Vertebral Column:
Week 6: 2 _________ centers
Week 8: 3 _________ centers of ________ - (what are the three centers?)

A

Week 6: 2 CHONDRIFICATION centers

Week 8: 3 PRIMARY centers of OSSIFICATION - Centrum and Neural Arch (left and right)

75
Q

Vertebral Column:

5 secondary ossification centers after puberty:

A

Tip of Spinous Process
Tips of Transverse Processes (left and right)
Anular Epiphyses (superior and inferior)

76
Q

Primary ossification centers first appear during the ___ week of development

A

8th week of development - Primary Ossification Centers

77
Q

1st bone to begin ossification in appendicular skeleton.

A

Clavicle

78
Q

2nd bond to begin ossification in appendicular skeleton

A

Femur

79
Q

Myogenesis

A

Muscle Formation

80
Q

Most skeletal muscles develop before ______, and almost all are formed by the end of the ______ year

A

before BIRTH

by the end of the FIRST year

81
Q

The ______ limb buds appear __ days before the ______ limb buds

A

UPPER limb buds 2 DAYS before LOWER limb buds

82
Q

Most critical period for limb development

A

24-36 days

83
Q

limb buds consist of… (2)

A

Apical Ectoderm Ridge (AER)

Mesenchyme Central Core

84
Q

Level limb buds develop at:
Upper Limb Buds:
Lower Limb Buds:

A

Caudal Cervical Segments

Lumbar and Upper Sacral Segments

85
Q

Fingers and Toes are formed by the end of week ___.

A

8

86
Q

Syndactyly

A

Fusion of Digits

87
Q

Two types of syndactyly:

A

Cutaneous - Failure of webs to degenerate

Osseous - Fusion of bones

88
Q

Extra Digits

A

Polydactyly

89
Q

Ossification begins in the ___ week.

All long bones have a primary ossification center by the ___ week.

A

7th week

12th week

90
Q

________: complete absence of limb
__________: partial absence of limb
___________: drug that caused this from 1957-1962

A

Amelia: complete absence of limb
Meromelia: partial absence of limb
Thalidomide: drug that caused this from 1957-1962

91
Q

Talipes Equinovarus: (1)

  • Most common musculoskeletal deformity - 1/1000 births
  • More common in males
A

Club Foot

92
Q

2 openings in the neural tubes, which end, and when they close

A

Rostral Neuropore - Cranial End - Closes day 25

Caudal Neuropore - Caudal End - Closes day 27

93
Q

Three distinct zones of a developing spinal cord from deep to superficial

A

Ventricular
Intermediate
Marginal

94
Q

2 neuroepithelial cells –> where they originate –> where they migrate to.

A

Neuroblasts –> Ventricular –> Intermediate

Glioblasts –> Ventricular –> Intermediate and Marginal

95
Q

Glioblasts differentiate into ________ and ____________

A

Astroblasts

Oligiodendroblasts

96
Q

_______ _______: Shallow longitudinal groove that appears bilaterally on the lateral surface of the spinal cord.
- It divides the developing spinal cord into… (2)

A

Sulcus Limitans
Divides spinal cord into…
Basal Plate - Ventral
Alar Plate - Dorsal

97
Q

Two layers of mesenchyme migrate to surround the brain and spinal cord.

  • Thick outer layer is derived from _______ and forms the _____ ______
  • Thin inner layer is derived from ______ ______ cells and is called the ____ _________
A

Thick outer - Mesoderm - Dura Mater

Thin inner - Neural Crest Cells - Pia Arachnoid

98
Q

Roof of the fourth ventricle is formed by the: (2)

A

Pia Mater - Externally

Ependymal Cells - Internally

99
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF within ventricles

100
Q

Microcephaly (definition + example)

A

Small brain and neurocranium - Zika

101
Q

Chiari Malformation

A

Cerebellum herniates through the foramen magnum into the vertebral canal due to an abnormally small POSTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA

102
Q

Encephalocele

A

Herniation of meninges (and sometimes brain) through defect in skull

103
Q

Meroencephaly

A

Severe neural tube defect - Rostal neuropore does NOT close - forebrain, midbrain and most of hindbrain are missing

104
Q

Congenital Megacolon (__________ Disease):

A

Hirschprung’s Disease

Absence of parasympathetic ganglia in lower colon

105
Q

Each pharyngeal arch consists of: (4)

A

Ectoderm - Externally
Mesenchyme Core
Endoderm - Internally

106
Q

Only sinus present at birth

A

Maxillary Sinus

107
Q

Frontal sinus is visible of radiograph by age ___

A

7

Embryology (4 decks)

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