exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?
A
coliform
2
Q
What would be the most likely cause of chronic protein losing enteropathy in these two cows?
A
paratuberculosis/ johnes dz
3
Q
In the milking process how soon should the inflations be attached to the teats after the udder is first
touched?
A
50-80 sec
4
Q
Which one of the following enteric diseases of calves is commonly seen at 1-2 weeks of age?
A
salmonellosis
5
Q
Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign with:
A
Phosphorus def
6
Q
- Which one of the following statements is true concerning Johne’s disease eradication from a cattle
herd?
a. Current diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life
b. A test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method
c. Fecal-oral transmission is less important than transmission through milk
d. Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
e. Culling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection
A
d. Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
7
Q
Which one of the following substances will reduce or kill salmonella organisms when fed to cattle?
A
sodium chlorate
8
Q
Which one of the following diseases is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in
cattle?
A
clostridium perfringes type a and arsenic toxicosis
9
Q
What enzyme do salmonella and E. coli 0157:H7 have that beneficial intestinal bacteria lack?
A
bacterial nitrate reductase
10
Q
In cattle with LDA, which part of the abomasums rises most dorsally on the left side of the rumen
A
greater curvature
11
Q
When feeding cattle and sheep in feedyards the total amount and digestibility of which one of the
following elements is of prime importance because of the environmental impact?
A
phosphorous
12
Q
Impacts occur during machine milkings of cows when:
A
air is emitted to an inflation while the milking vacuum is operating/ Pressure on the outside of the streak canal exceeds that on the inside at the end of milking
13
Q
A four year old Guernsey cow dies while being treated for botulism. Which of the following is most
likely on port-mortem exam?
A
no distinguishable lesions
14
Q
Which one of the following is true concerning contagious mastitis bacteria?
A
They are obligate parasites of mammary tissue or teat skin
15
Q
The apparatus responsible for opening and closing of the rubber teat cup lining of the milking machine
is the:
A
pulsator
16
Q
Which one of the following dairy cows would be most at risk for developing subacute rumen acidosis?
Dry cow on high fiber ration.
b. Mid-lactation dairy cow.
c. Late lactation dairy cow.
d. Recently calved dairy cow on high energy ration.
e. Pre-partum dairy cow on “steaming-up” ration
A
recently calved dairy cow on high energy ration
17
Q
What is the most likely diagnosis of a recently calved dairy cow with blindness and star-gazing?
A
Polioencephalomalacia
18
Q
Sudden death with high morbidity in a group of vaccinated beef calves on pasture after a new dirt pond
was dug would be suggestive of:
A
anthrax
19
Q
Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a leukopenia?
a. Fatty liver disease
b. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis
c. Left abomasal displacement
d. Abdominal fat necrosis
e. BRSV
A
fatty liver dz
20
Q
On a dairy farm, which group of animals is predisposed most to clinically significant nematode
infection?
a. Calves in hutches
b. Lactating dairy cows in free stalls
c. Yearling heifers on pasture
d. Mature dry cows on pasture
e. Heifer calves two weeks after being removed from hutches and placed in group pens
A
yearling heifers on pasture
21
Q
Which one of the following factors will put a dairy cow at risk for getting LDA?
a. Feeding anionic salts during the dry period
b. Having an abortion
c. Calving with twins
d. Diet of grass hay during the dry period
e. No access to salt during the dry period
A
calving with twins
as well as..
Increased concentrate to forage ratio in the postpartum diet
postpartum ketosis and metritis
22
Q
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the “sco(o)tch test”?
A
withers depression
Many gastrointestinal diseases cause abdominal pain in the cow. Cows with GI pain often stand hunched up with their elbows abducted. The withers can be pinched (sometimes it requires two hands). A normal cow will flex her back ventrally when her withers are pinched as seen above. A cow who is painful will not flex ventrally. False negatives are common. Common reasons for abdominal pain are hardware, abomasal ulcers, or distention of the small intestine with gas.
23
Q
When are most cases of acute rumen acidosis diagnosed in dairy cows?
A
within 2 months post calving
24
Q
Which one of the following bovine diseases would be most characterized by this group of clinical
signs—sudden death, ataxia, flaccid paresis, inability to control tongue movements?
A
botulism
25
You are called to a group of well-grown 4 month old calves which show the following signs: Reluctant to
get up, appear stiff when walking, rapid heart rate. One of them is dyspneic but you do not hear
abnormal lung sounds. There are no observable neurological deficits, the calves are not febrile and the
farmer reports that they eat normally.
enzootic nutritional myopathy
26
More cheese can be made from milk with a lower somatic cell count. What is the upper limit for somatic
cell count of milk in the US?
750K
27
Too high a vacuum level during the milking process of dairy cows may predispose to mastitis by causing:
eversion of the teat sphincter
28
Why is sand considered an ideal bedding material for lactating dairy
cattle?
inability to support bacterial growth
29
Purulent, cheesy secretion would be characteristic for which type of mastitis?
staphylcoccal
30
Which one of the following clinical signs do arsenic toxicosis and blue-green algae toxicosis of cattle have in common?
hemorrhagic diarrhea
31
Which one of the following can be considered a component of an ideal milking system?
narrow bore liner
32
A 4yr beef cow has been gradually losing weight over past 2 months. The cow is eating but has a
decreased appetite and no diarrhea. The TPR is normal, BCS is 1.5 out of 5. The left paralumbar fossa is
distended and lower right side of abdomen is extended. Rumen motility is present but erratic and
incomplete. On rectal, the rumen extends to the pelvis and across the midline of the abdomen ventrally.
The rumen is full and ingesta is firm. The most likely explanation for this is:
vagal indigestion
33
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:
5.5- 7
34
Three major possibilities to consider when a cow does not get up after calcium treatment are:
insufficient calcium, improper route of admin, pressure myopathy
35
Which one of the following drugs would you choose for therapy of severe udder edema in a post-parturient dairy cow?
a. Cyanocobalamin
b. Flunixin meglumine
c. Furosemide
d. Dexamethasone/chlorthiazide diuretic combination
e. Vitamin A and D
Dexamethasone/chlorthiazide diuretic combination
If pregnant use Furosemide so you don’t induce parturition and if after parturition use dexamethasone because repeated doses of Furosemide can cause hypocalcemia
36
In advanced cases of diarrhea in calves, which of the following electrolytes most often paradoxically shows a whole body loss but a concurrent increase in plasma concentration?
Potassium
37
Which one of the following bedding materials for dairy cattle would be most acceptable with respect to
prevention of mastitis?
sand
38
When right displacement of the abomasums or right torsion of the abomasums is diagnosed, which parameter is usually normal?
temperature
39
The California Mastitis Test (CMT) used in milk quality evaluation provides an estimate of:
SCC (somatic cell count)
40
A group of purebred Red Angus heifers was presented for examination of ill-thrift, diarrhea and faded
coat color. They had been pastured for the last few months on a good mixed grass and legume pasture.
You suspect:
ostertagiosis or copper DEFICIENCY
41
When fed in adequate amounts, which one of the following combinations has been shown to reduce the
incidence of new infections of the mammary glands of dairy cows?
Selenium and Vitamin E
42
A cow with a mild clinical case of suspected Streptococcal mastitis during the tenth week of lactation
without systemic signs should probably be treated by:
intramammary infusion
43
Which one of the following statements concerning bovine virus diarrhea is true?
a. BVDV can be spread iatrogenically
b. BVDV cannot survive in frozen semen
c. More than 70% of infections are clinical
d. Cytopathic strains of the virus are more common
e. A 25% mortality is predictd for animals whith mucosal disease in the first year of life
BVDV can be spread iatrogenically
44
Which cause of mastitis is contagious but usually easily eliminated?
a. Nocardia spp
b. Corynebacterium pyogens
c. Pseudomonas spp
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Streptococcus agalactia
Streptococcus agalactia
45
How would you characterize the lameness of a dairy cow that stands and walks with an arched back?
a. Severely lame
b. Lame
c. Moderately lame
d. Mildly lame
e. Normal, this is the way cows walk.
moderately lame
46
Which one of the following statements about cow’s milk is true?
a. A healthy dairy cow normally has a consistent level of electrical conducitivty in the milk
b. Cows milk has a strong alkaline pH, above 7.5
c. Normal somatic cell count for cow’s milk is about 800,000 cell per cmm
d. Cows milk does not contain lactoferrin, unlike milk from sheep and goats
e. Cows’ milk has a strong acid pH, below 5.0
A healthy dairy cow normally has a consistent level of electrical conducitivty in the milk
47
True or False: The most important reason for adding glucose to IV replacement fluids for a calf with
severe diarrhea is to supply nutrition to the calf.
FALSE
48
True or False: Normal milk will have less than 200,000 cells per milliliter.
TRUE
49
True or False: Streptococcus agalactia can only live and reproduce in cows’ udders
True
50
true or False: With respect to ruminal acidosis in cattle, as the disease progresses, the rumen pH rises; as the rumen pH rises, rumen motility decreases.
False
51
121. True or False: Cattle vaccinated for paratuberculosis may react positively to a single intradermal test for tuberculosis.
true
52
True or False: BVDV can survive in frozen semen
TRUE
53
True or False: Knuckling over at the fetlock is a clinical sign of femoral nerve damage often seen in
recovered downer cows.
***peroneal nerve*** FALSE!
54
True or False: Calves with scours that are still willing and able to nurse should be fed milk and electrolytes at the same time.
FALSE
55
True or False: The AC-ELISA test is an accurate test for persistent BVDV infection in calves.
true
56
True or False: Concerning dairy cattle nutrition, prior to calving the DCAD should be positive and after calving the DCAD should be negative
false
57
Which one of these causes of a “downer cow” would be most likely to respond to the therapeutic
method Aquacow following other appropriate therapy?
exhaustion
58
Which of the following adjectives could be applied to the condition harry heel warts?
a. Neoplastic
b. Traumatic
c. Infectious
d. Zoonotic
e. Hyperkeratotic
INFECTIOUS!
59
________ is an acute, infectious, toxic disease that primarily affects young cattle on pasture (but may also affect sheep). It is caused by the bacteria Clostridium haemolyticum which is a soil borne bacterium that can survive a long time in contaminated soil or in bones of infected carcasses. The bacteria spores are ingested and are naturally found in the rumen and liver of healthy cattle. It is not until there is local liver damage and necrosis usually caused by a migrating liver fluke infection.
Bacillary hemoglobinuria, also known as redwater disease
60
What nerve is probably affected in this cow’s rear leg after being down with milk fever?
peroneal
61
Which one of the following statement is true regarding salmonellosis?
a. The majority of salmonella infections are clinical
b. Salmonella organisms only survive a short time in the environment
c. Septicemic animals shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well as feces
d. Infection is unrelated to innate resistance of the host animal; dose and strain of the organism are much more important
e. The primary route of infection in most cases is by aerosol.
c. Septicemic animals shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well as feces
62
An important reason for adding glucose to IV replacement fluids for a calf with severe diarrhea is to:
Enhance the movement of extracellular potassium into cells
63
Too high volume level during the milking process of dairy cows may predispose to mastitis by causing:
a. Excessive wear of the rubber inflation
b. Teat end impacts
c. Shortened massage phase
d. Flooding of the bowl or claw
e. Hyperkeratosis of the teat orifice
e. Hyperkeratosis of the teat orifice
64
What product is used with the “Schoof” as an aid in curing and hardening the hoof horn?
Copper sulfate
65
Which one of the following statements about blackleg in cattle is correct?
a. The primary causative agent in Clostridium septicum
b. Blackleg is a peracute, contagious, highly fatal disease
c. Vaccination with bacterin is an effective preventive measure
d. Treatment is effective, but only in the early stages of the disease
e. Recovered animals usually end up with chronic lameness
c. Vaccination with bacterin is an effective preventive measure
66
Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning coxofemoral luxation in cattle?
a. Cows with caudo-ventral luxation have a worse prognosis than cows with cranio-dorsal luxation
b. Cows with caudo-ventral luxation have a leg which appears shorter than normal
c. In cows with caudo-ventral luxation the greater trochanter is palpable on a line between the tuber coxae and tuber ischii
d. Cows with caudo-ventral luxation are likely able to stand
e. Caudo-ventral luxation is the most common presentation
a. Cows with caudo-ventral luxation have a worse prognosis than cows with cranio-dorsal luxation
67
Which of the following is true?
a. If one quarter of a cow is infused with antibiotic the milk from the other three quarters can be put in the bulk tank.
b. Tanker loads of milk collected from dairy farms are tested randomly for contamination with beta-lactam antibiotics.
c. The specified milk withholding time of OTC intramammary antibiotics may be shortened if the infection is sub-clinical.
d. Only the tip of the infusion cannula should be inserted into the teat canal.
e. Best practice for mastitis treatments is to antibiotic treat all cases systemically as well as intramammary.
d. Only the tip of the infusion cannula should be inserted into the teat canal
68
A yearling Holstein heifer was found dead suddenly. She was in a field with about 40 other heifers
that were in good body condition while grazing on a mixed grass pasture. There was no history of
vaccination or deworming. On necropsy examination a darkly colored necrotic area was found in the shoulder area. Gas was present in tissues. From the following list, what is your primary tentative diagnosis?
Clostridial dz
69
Which one of the following statements is true concerning the typical sole ulcer of cattle?
a. Copper def has been implicated as an etiology of the typical sole ulcer
b. Sole ulcers are always found on the medial rear digits
c. Bandaging the sole ulcer will often result in quicker healing without blocking the opposite claw
d. Zinc def has been implicated as an etiology of the typical sole ulcer
e. Following therapy and relief of weight bearing on a sole ulcer, it will often heal in a couple of weeks
e. Following therapy and relief of weight bearing on a sole ulcer, it will often heal in a couple of weeks
70
Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Biotin improves the strength of hoof horn and decreases the healing time of hoof ulcers in cattle
b. Baldy calf syndrome is a genetic disease of Holstein cattle associated with a defect in copper
metabolism
c. The polled gene is recessive in sheep and cattle
d. Red coat color is associated with a dominant gene in cattle
a. Biotin improves the strength of hoof horn and decreases the healing time of hoof ulcers in cattle
71
True or False: Endemic stability occurs when calves are exposed to anaplasmosis when maternal or age resistance is high.
t
72
True or False: In the field, most cases of atrial fibrillation seem to be secondary to treatment of milk fever with calcium solutions.
True
73
True or False: Bovine respiratory syncytial virus suppresses the immune system of cattle
false - Bovine pestivirus or bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) does
74
True or False: A 7 day therapeutic blood concentration of ceftiofur is claimed after a single injection of Excede in beef cattle
true
75
True or False: Brucellosis vaccination of dairy heifers is usually done at 6-12 months of age.
false
76
True or False: Tail docking of cattle is associated with a positive impact on milk quality.
true
77
True or False: Higher cheese yield is associated with lower somatic cell counts of raw milk.
true
78
True or False: Antibiotics may be added to cattle feed if prescribed by a veterinarian under his extra label privilege
FALSE
79
True or False: Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent
false - pupillary dilation
80
True or False: The use of gentamycin is banned in food animals.
true
81
True or False: Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection.
true
82
The linear somatic cell count is not only useful to evaluate the individual animal but
also to estimate production loss.
true
83
Which one of the following enteric diseases of calves is commonly seen at 1-2 weeks of age?
a. Salmonellosis.
b. Paratuberculosis.
c. Bovine lymphosarcoma
d. Ostertagiasis.
e. Circovirus associated disease
salmonellosis
84
True or False: Subclinical mastitis is equal to clinical mastitis in its effect on reproductive performance in the lactating dairy cow.
true
85
Which of the following statements is true concerning foot and mouth disease?
The virus is relatively resistant to cold and freezing temperatures.
86
Which of the following drugs is banned from use in food animals because tissue residues may
lead to direct toxicity in humans?
a. Sulfamethazine.
b. Glycopeptides (e.g. Vancomycin).
c. Metronidazole.
d. Fluoroquinolones used extra-label.
e. Chloramphenicol.
Chloramphenicol
87
Bulk tank milk cultures are useful for monitoring for the presence or absence in the herd of:
a. Staphylococcus aureus.
b. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis.
c. Leptospira spp.
d. Streptococcus agalactiae.
e. Antibiotic residues.
d. Streptococcus agalactiae.
88
What mineral deficiency is associated with the condition sometimes referred to as “flying scapula syndrome?”
Selenium
89
Which of the following is a common environmental mastitis pathogen?
a. Strep agalactiae
b. Strep uberis
c. Staph aureus
d. Mycoplasma bovis
e. Corynebacterium bovis
Strep uberis
90
Regarding ostertagia infection in cattle:
a. Ostertagiasis is a parasitic problem limited to grazing cattle and not feedlot situations
b. Older cattle will develop full immunity to ostertagiasis
c. Of all helminth diseases of cattle in North America ostertagiasis has the least economic impact
d. Loss of hydrochloric acid producing parietal cells results in failure of conversion
of pepsinogen to pepsin, leading to impaired digestion of feedstuffs for cattle
e. Ostertagia has not developed resistance to anthelmintics
d.
91
Which one of the following downer cow positions would probably have the LEAST favorable prognosis for return to normal function? how about most favorable?
a. Resting in right lateral recumbency and returning to that position after being turned to the other side.
b. Hind legs partially flexed and displaced posteriorly.
c. Hind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position.
d. Sternal recumbency with the hind legs extended along side the body.
e. Frequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches
Hind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position.
most favorable: Frequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches
92
Which one of the following problems probably can be ruled our as a differential diagnosis in a five year old Angus cow with bottle jaw in Ohio in June?
a. Paratuberculosis
b. Ostertagiasis
c. Corona virus infection
d. Cardiac disease
e. Clostridial disease
corona virus = WINTER dysentery
| also contributes to Enzootic pneumonia of calves.
93
The cause of chronic fat necrosis cows is:
UNKNOWN
94
With respect to acute ruminal acidosis in cattle
a. Laminitis is not a sequela
b. Mucormycosis may be a sequela to the rumenitis associated with ruminal acidosis
c. Fatty infiltration of the liver doesn’t occur
d. Blood pyruvate levels are usually below 2%
e. Acetic, butyric and propionic acids are normally present in rumen fluid at moral percentages of 70%, 20% and 8% respectively
b. Mucormycosis may be a sequela to the rumenitis associated with ruminal acidosis
95
With respect to acute ruminal acidosis in cattle
a. Higher rumen pH favors the growth of lactobacillus
b. Peracute cases may die within 12 to 24 hours
c. Rumen pH below 7.0 is critical
d. Protozoa are least affected by rumen pH changes
e. The primary cause is overfeeding freshly harvested grass hay
b. Peracute cases may die within 12 to 24 hours
96
The freeze point of milk is determined as a quality check for the presence of
water
97
Ture or false? Fresh cows can not eat enough on dry matter intake to keep up with the energy requirement of heavy lactation
true
98
Which one of the following would you expect to be more critical in the daily ration of a dairy cow?
a. Vitamins
b. Minerals
c. Protein
d. Fat
e. Water
H20....
.gatorade...H20......gatorade
99
A persistently infected animal is one that was probably infected between?
30 to 125 days of gestation
100
Which one of the following statements concerning BVD is true?
a. Mucosal disease results when a CP-BVD infection is superimposed onto a NCP-BVD
infected animal
b. More than 70% of infectious are clinical
c. Cytopathic and non-cytopathic strains of the virus are equally common
d. BVDV is a DNA virus that can replicate into many variants
a. Mucosal disease results when a CP-BVD infection is superimposed onto a NCP-BVD
101
True or False: Propylene glycol is more effective than glycerol as a treatment for ketosis in cattle because it is not fermented in the rumen, whereas glycerol may be converted to ketogenic acids or propionic acid
true
102
True or False: Cows in the close to calving group with acidic urine are at much more risk of developing clinical milk fever and subclinical hypecalcemia than are cows with alkaline urine.
false
103
True or False: The primary cause of ruminant ketosis is chlorine deficiency
false
104
True or False: Removal of the milking claw at the end of milking without releasing the vacuum causes teat end impacts.
true
105
Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infections in cattle
true
106
True or False: The udder singe process utilizes a cool flame to remove hair from the udder of cows to
enhance sanitation and improve milk quality
true
107
True or False: Dairy calves that remain with their dam longer after birth have higher mortality rates.
true
108
True or False: Milk from cows free of mastitis pathogens has a somatic cell count of <200,000/mL
true
109
True or False: Pre-dipping of teats is more important than post-dipping for the prevention of contagious mastitis.
false
110
t/f Acremonium is a fungus associated with fescue toxicosis and hypogalactia in cattle and horses.
true
111
The pathognomonic sign associated with pericarditis in cattle is
splashing sound
112
What are the two most important factors in immunoglobulin transfer?
Amount of IgG
| time after birth
113
How long should a downer cow supported by a sling or hip clams in a single session?
20-30 MIN
114
What is considered to be the interference level for abomasal displacement in dairy herds?
According to Penn State what is the interference level of milk fever in a dairy herd?
5-7%
10-15%
115
Describe a response indicative of a positive withers depression test.
In a positive test, the animal will not drop away from painful stimulus. This indicates that there is pain in the caudal thorax or abdomen. If there was no
pain the animal would drop down.
116
In addition to low magnesium, which other blood electrolyte abnormality is usually present in grass tetany in cattle?
hypoCA
117
A dairyman calls you out to examine a 5 year old Jersey cow that just freshened. The complaint is that she is down and not responsive to stimulus. Parturition was normal and the bull calf that was born yesterday is fine and healthy.
differential diagnoses?
What is the most logical therapy?
How, or in what manner, can you confirm your diagnosis?
Hypocalcemia (most likely), Grass tetany, Broken pelvis, nerve damage
Calcium borogluconate IV slowly, calcium paste orally
Watch for response to treatment (eructating, urinating, defecating, pupils constrict, heart rate increases and muscles quiver)
118
Briefly outline a treatment plan for a dairy cow with suspected acute grain overload due to eating soybeans.
Alkalinizing agents, antibiotics, rumen lavage, rumenotoy, fluids, antihistamines, anti-inflammatories, thiamine, rumen transfaunation
119
Match these common syndorme names with the corresponding mineral deficiency Milk Fever; Grass Tetany; Refeeding Syndrome
Hypocalcemia - milk fever
Hypomagnesemia - grass tetany
Hypophosphatemia - refeeding syndrome
120
How do you recognize a cranio-dorsal coxofemoral luxation of the hip joint of a cow?
One leg will be shorter than the other on visual assessment and the greater trochanter is in line with the tuber coxae and tuber ischii.
121
A hormone is implicated in the pathogenesis of bovine laminitis. Release if this hormone is thought to
increase the elasticity of the collagen bundles that connect the pedal bone to the horn capsule. This
leads to pressure effects on the sole which contribute to the development of bovine laminitis. What is
this hormone? At what stage in the cow’s life cycle is this hormone released?
relaxin
just before parturition
