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1

What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?

white tailed deer

2

Which one of the following statements regarding liver abscesses in cattle is true?

calf diptheria and foot rot

3

Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?

Staphalococcus

4

What would be the most likely cause of the otitis media diagnosed in this calf?

mycoplasma

5

You have been called to examine this recumbent neonatal calf which is unable to rise. In addition the calf is showing
opisthotonus and has a fever of 107 degrees F. The calf does not have tetanus. What would be the most likely
diagnosis?

meningitis

6

Shown are five stages of infectious keratoconjunctivitis in cattle. Which one of the following statements is true
concerning this disease?

The pinkeye vaccine has been disappointing as the sole means of controlling pinkeye because there are over
20 strains of the M. bovis bacteria

7

This is one of several lactating ewes found down one morning in a lush pasture after a period of rain. She was in
distress, paddling and unable to rise. What is your tentative diagnosis?

hypomagnesimia

8

Which one of the following diseases can a horse contract from exposure to a ratite?

EEE

9

Which one of the following distinguishes the practice of production medicine from more traditional food animal
practice?

mgmt decisions based upon herd data

10

What is usually the first step to be recommended in therapy for berserk male syndrome in llamas?

castration

11

Which one of the following vaccinations would probably be most important for a camelid living with a horse?

Rhinopneumonits

12

The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:

5.5- 7.0

13

The tick mostly responsible for the severe outbreak of dermatophilosis in cattle in the caribbean is:

amblyomma veriegatum

14

A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight
loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:
A. Paratuberculosis and mucosal disease.
B. Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis.
C. Abomasal parasitism and tick fever.
D. Hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia.
E. Caudal venal caval thrombosis.

Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis.

15

Which one of the following bacteria is isolated most frequently from the lungs of calves with severe fibrinopurulent
pneumonia?

manheima hemolytica

16

Which one of the following diseases is considered to be genetic?

BLAD

17

What disease symptom is associated with Mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas?

Anemia

18

Myotonia congenita is a problem observed in a breed of

goats

19

Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot is called

preconditioning

20

Which of the following drugs is banned from use in food animals?
A. Gentamicin .
B. Metronidazole.
C. Human insulin.
D. Ionophore antibiotics.
E. Enrofloxacin.

gentamicin

21

Which is most true of extra-label drug use by licensed veterinarians?
A. It is illegal to prescribe drugs extra-label for food animals.
B. Extra-label use is illegal but FDA will not prosecute as long as certain conditions are met.
C. Extra label drug use is only permitted if an extended withdrawal time is specified.
D. Use of human-labeled drugs extra label in food animals is absolutely prohibited.
E. A veterinarian is free to use any drug labeled for food animals in an extra label manner.

C. Extra label drug use is only permitted if an extended withdrawal time is specified.

22

Select the parameter that suggests to you that this diet may result in sub-acute rumen acidosis and be implicated in
hoof horn quality problems.
A. Crude Protein: 16%.
B. ADF: 20.2%.
C. NDF: 29%.
D. NFC: 45%

NFC

NRC (2001) recommends that dairy rations contain 35%-45% of ration DM as NFC

NFC or NDSC represents all forms of digestible carbohydrates that are solubilized after boiling a feed sample in neutral detergent solution. These are all forms of non-cell-wall carbohydrates and include starch, sugar, pectin and fermentation acids, which are digestible and serve as energy sources for the animal. Because NFC includes some other digestible compounds in addition to starch and sugars included in NSC, NFC generally shows a higher value than non-structural carbohydrate (NSC) on the feed analysis report.

23

What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?

Staph and E. Coli

24

Which of the following choices is most reasonable for grade M2 mastitis (clots and flakes, swollen quarter, but no
systemic involvement), in a herd in which most clinical mastitis is caused by Strep. uberis?

Cefa - Lak

intrammary infusions

25

Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Strong iodine tincture is recommended for disinfection of the umbilicus of calves and foals.
B. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease is an acute orbiviral disease of wild ruminants that can also affect cattle.
C. In the United States dihydrostreptomycin is an accepted treatment for leptospirosis in cattle.
D. External caseous lymphadenitis lesions seem to be more common in sheep, while int

B

26

What is the main route for transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?
A. Fecal-oral.
B. Fly bites.
C. Intra-uterine.
D. Iatrogenic with mechanical means.
E. Saliva and nasal secretions.

D

27

Approximately what percentage of a llama diet should be crude fiber on a dry matter basis?

25%

28

“Pronounced arching of back. Reluctant to move, with almost complete weight transfer off
the affected limb.” This description is characteristic of which degree of cattle lameness?

5

29

Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a neutropenia in a dairy cow?

acute overwhelming uterine infection

30

Which one of the following may be a sequel to cattle being infected with Histophilus?
A. Polioencephalomalacia.
B. Thromboembolic-meningoencephalitis.
C. Depressed sensorium.
D. Flaccid paresis.
E. Night blindness

B