Exam 2 Flashcards

(272 cards)

1
Q

T/F Periderm is a germ layer

A

false, Ectoderm gives rise to epidermis which gives rise to periderm and basal layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What layer produces new Cells in a epidermis?

A

Basal Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What layer produces Keratinzed layer

A

Periderm Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F Sebaceous Glands is a downward growth

A

False, Sweat glands are their own thing and they grow downwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do seat glands develop from the epidermis into the dermis

A

Down-ward growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the functions of vermix Caseosa?

A

Protection of the fetus from the amnionic fluid and Lubricates the fetus to facilitates parturition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A whitish, greasy substance formed by secretions of sebaceous glands and Exfoliated Cells.

A

Vernix Casecosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Protection of the fetus from the amnionic fluid and Lubricates the fetus to facilitates parturition.

A

Functions of vermix Caseosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Periderm is replaced by what at 21 weeks?

A

Stratum Corneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What develops from the basal layer, that is genetically determined and produce patterns on the surface of the skin?

A

Epidermal Ridges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What forms the basis of fingerprint analysis?

A

Dermatoglyphics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two things Dermatoglyphics used for?

A

Forensic identification in criminal cases and medical diagnosis tool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Functions of the Epidermis ridges

A

Produces patterns @ fingerprints soles of feet palm of a hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Children with chromosomal abnormalities have what in common that is oftenly present?

A

Characteristic fingerprint patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In Albinism, the individual lack pigmaentation in what areas of the body ?

A

Skin, hair and retina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F albinos still have the same number of melanocytes as a normal person, but are not able to produce tyosinase ?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Does T/F Albinism occur when the melanocytes fail to produce melanin?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F The dermis forms the dermal papillae

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Dermis develops from mesenchyme, and is derived from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What projects up into the epidermis and contains blood vessels and nerves?

A

Dermal Papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What enzyme is necessary to produce melanin?

A

Tyrosinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the deeper layer of the dermis contain?

A

Fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false Melanocytes produce skin color- neural tube cells in the CNS ?

A

False They are produced in the neural tube- CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what direction does hair form

A

As a Down Growth, beginning from the hair bud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
T/F melanoblasts are derived from neural tube cells
False, They are Derived from Neural Crest cells
26
What do melanoblast differentiate into, which produce hair pigment.
Melanocytes
27
What are goosebumps muscle called
Arrector pili muscles.
28
What muscle elevates the hair shafts and are responsible for goosebumps?
Arrector pili muscle
29
What is also developed from the surrounding mesenchyme and attach to the dermal root sheath.
Arrector pili muscle
30
What are the first hair to form
Fine lanugo
31
What helps hold the vernix caseosa in place,
Lanugo
32
with the help of the vernix caseosa, what also helps protects the fetus from acid amniotic fluid
Lanugo.
33
During the perinatal period, lanugo are replaced by what?
coarser hair
34
At what area of the epidermis do the nails begin to thicken ?
Nail Fields at the end of the digits.
35
T/F do the nail fields begin at the Distal field?
False at the proximal Field.
36
What direction do the nail Fields surround ?
they Surround the proximal and along the lateral edges by nail folds.
37
Fingernail reach the tip of digits by what weeks?
32 weeks
38
Toenails reach the tip of digit by what week ?
36 Weeks.
39
At 32 weeks what feature reaches the tip of the digits?
Fingernails
40
At 36 weeks what feature reaches the tip of the digits?
Toenails.
41
Nails that DO NOT reach the tips of the of the digit is called ?
Prematurity
42
What are specialized sweat glands ?
Mammary Glands
43
T/F Mammary crest ( ridge) is a band- like thickening of the Dermis?
False its from the epidermis.
44
What glands are highly specialized type of sweat glands?
Mammary Glands
45
Where do mammary crest develop on the embryo?
They develop around the ventral surface of the embryo.
46
Where do mammary crest extends from?
They extend from the axilla to the groin ( inguinal) region.
47
Supernumerary ( extra) nipple which is more common in females?
Polythelia
48
Usually occurs inferior to normal breast.
Polymastia
49
What growth do mammary glands grow from the epidermis in the underlying mesenchyme which develop in to lactiferous ducts.
Down Ward Growth.
50
Can polythelia occur in males?
Yes
51
What Clinical mammary gland appears in the axillary or abnormal regions of girls
Polythelia and polymastia
52
What supernumerary mammary tissue rarely occurs in a location other than along the course of the mammary crest ( milk lines)
Polythelia and polymastia
53
What is it called when nipples fail to evert, may cause problem with breast feeding
Inverted nipple.
54
T/F a nipple which is everted and inverts during adulthood may indicate breast cancer
True
55
A small bud grows from the wall of the developing hair follicle called \_\_\_\_\_.
Sebaceous gland
56
What do you call an oil gland?
Sebaceous gland
57
Cells from sebaceous glands degenerate forming what kind of substance?
Sebum (aka oil)
58
Sclerotome are located where
Ventromedially
59
T/F The number of mammary glands and their location along the crest is genetically specific
False; species specific
60
The lactiferous ducts initially open into small \_\_\_\_.
Mammary pits
61
What causes a nipple and its surrounding areola to evert?
Proliferation of the underlying connective tissue
62
T/F Men are just as likely to have Polythelia as women?
False. More commonly seen in women, but still possible in men
63
What are somites derived from?
Paraxial mesoderm
64
What do somites differentiate into?
Sclerotome and Dermomyotome
65
Sclerotomes are located \_\_\_\_\_, while dermomyotomes are located \_\_\_\_\_.
Ventromedially; dorsolaterally
66
What do sclerotomes give rise to?
Vertebrae and ribs
67
What do dermomyotome?
Muscle and dermis of skin
68
Mesenchyme may differentiate into: (n=3)
Fibroblasts: fibrous tissue forming cells Chondroblasts: cartilage forming cells Osteoblasts: bone forming cells
69
Define Osteogenesis
Bone formation
70
Bones develop from mesenchyme in what two ways?
1. Intramembranous Ossification - bone develops from mesenchyme directly within membranous sheaths 2. Endochondral Ossification - mesenchyme differentiates first into hyaline cartilage models, which then ossify
71
What is the skull made up of?
Neurocranium (encloses brain) and Viscerocranium (forms the face)
72
What Opens up into small mammary pits
Lactiferous
73
Paraxial mesoderm are segmented into what blocks?
Somites
74
Somites are divided into what segments?
Sclerotome and Dermomyotome
75
What does sclerotome gives rise to
Vertebrae and ribs
76
Dermomyotome are located where ?
Dorsolaterally
77
Dermomyotome give rise to?
The muscle and dermis of the skin.
78
By the end of the 4th week of development, the sclerotomes form a loosely woven embryonic connective tissue called ?
Mesenchyme.
79
T/F Neural crest cells are susceptible to teratogens as they migrate
True. This makes the skull a common site for birth defects
80
What forms the skull vault (aka calvaria)?
Membranous Neurocranium
81
What forms the base of the skull?
Cartilaginous Neurocranium
82
What are 2 reasons women’s breast enlarge during puberty?
Deposition of fat and outgrowths from the lactiferous ducts
83
Mesenchyme may differentiate into what building cells?
Fibroblast Chondroblast Osteoblast
84
What is the definition of Osteogenesis ?
Bone Formation
85
What is the two ways bone develops from mesenchyme?
Intramembranous ossification. and Endochondral Ossification.
86
Intramembranous Ossification, the bone develops from mesenchyme directly within what?
membranous sheaths.
87
The intramembranous Ossification Develop what bones?
Flat bones of the skull.
88
Endochondral Ossification, differentiate first into what type of cartilage ?
Hyaline
89
Endochondral ossification develops what bones ?
limb bones and most other bones.
90
The development of the Cranium ( skull) develops from mesenchyme is split into two developments, what are they?
Neurocranium and Viscerocranium
91
Viscerocranium Forms What?
It forms the face
92
Neurocranium Does what?
It encloses the brain
93
T/F Mesenchymes which forms the skull is derived primarily from Neural tube cells?
False, They are dervived from neural crest cells
94
As the mesenchyme cells migrate to the skull they are susceptible to the teratogen, this most likely makes the skull common site of what?
Birth defects.
95
The neurocranium is further subdivided into what eares\>
Membranous Neurocranium and the cartilaginous neurocranium.
96
The membranous is formed by what ossification?
Intramembranous
97
The cartilaginous neurocranium is formed by endochondral ossification
Endochondral ossification.
98
Membranous neurocranium forms what?
Skull vault or calvaria
99
Cartiliginous neurocranium forms what?
The base of the skull.
100
Neurocranium, Whats it function ?
Encloses brain
101
Viscerocranium forms what part of the body?
Forms the face.
102
What is susceptible to teratogens
Neural Crest cells.
103
What allows molding of the fetal cranium to the birth canal during parturition.
Fontanelles and sutures.
104
What is the largest fontanelle and closes at about 1.5 year after birth?
Anterior Fontanelle
105
What another name for "soft spot"
Anterior Fontanelle
106
What fontanelles closes 3 months after birth ?
Posterior Fontanelles
107
Which two fontanelles are paired?
Anterior and posterolateral Fontalles.
108
What cartilaginous neurocranium is formed by endochondral ossification?
Formed the base of the skull.
109
A prenatal fusion of cranial sutures?
Craniosynostosis.
110
What is the common birth defect that extensively affects the vertebral column?
Arcania
111
This type of cranial deformity involves with premature closure of the saggital sure skull?
Scaphocephaly
112
This is the most common cranial sutures and the skull becomes wedge-shaped?
Scaphocephaly.
113
This type of cranial deformity involves with premature fusion of Carona suture
Bracchephaly.
114
Coronal sutures, which results in a high tower-like cranium.
Bracchephaly
115
Complete or partial absence of the neurocranium[Enclose brain]
Arcania
116
A type of deformed cranium that results in, Partial absence of the brain
Arania.
117
Each sclerotome differentiates into What parts ?
Cranial and Caudal Part.
118
What part of the sclerotome is loosely packed?
Cranial Part.
119
What sclerotome part is mote densely packed.
Caudal Part.
120
By the eight weeks of development, there are three primary centers of ossification for each vertebral arch.
Centrum and neural arch.
121
What does the centrum part of the primary ossification form?
Forms part of the vertebral body
122
Forms part of the vertebral body
Centrum.
123
Surround the neural tube and gives rise to the vertebral arch during the primary ossification?
Neural arch.
124
What are neural arch regions
right to left.
125
How many secondary ossifications appears in the vertebrae after puberty.
Five.
126
Name the three main secondary ossifications for vertebrae after puberty.
Tip of the spinous process Tip of the trnasevere process( left and right) Annular epiphysis
127
T/F The most common cause of Congenital Scoliosis is Klippel- Feil Syndrome?
False, Its Hemivetebrea
128
What is the name of a syndrome that its main feature includes, Short neck, a low hairline, restricted neck movement?
Kippel-feil syndrome
129
Having one or more cervical motions segments and abnormalities of the brainstem and cerebellum is part of what syndrome?
Kippel- feil syndrome
130
Failure of one of the chondrification centers to appear is known as what clinical term?
Hemivertebrae
131
Which portions of the ribs are the most common accessory Ribs?
Lumbar is the most common accessory ribs ( with no problems)
132
Attachment of what ribs lead to Compression on brachial plexus or subclavian artery?
Cervical Ribs
133
Which part of the ribs may produce neurovascular Symptoms?
Cervical Ribs.
134
A Concave Depression in the lower sternum?
Pectus Excavatum
135
This Clinical note is due to overgrowth of lower costal cartilages which pushes the sternum inward.
Pectus exacavatum.
136
The Appendicular skeleton includes four parts, what are they
Pectoral Girdle Upper limb Pelvic Girdle Lower Limb
137
Lanugo is replaced by coarser hair during the ____ period?
Prenatal Period.
138
Inverted nipples may cause problems with baby’s \_\_\_\_.
139
Which Craniosynostosis is the most common?
Scaphocephaly
140
T/F Mammary buds are up-growths.
False, they are down-dowths
141
Explain the nail growth process
142
Neural crest cells invade the epidermis and differentiate into melanocytes within the first ___ months.
First three months
143
T/F Development of lactiferous ducts and nipples in males and females is identical at puberty
False in males, in males the lactiferous ducts remain rudimentary throughout life.
144
T/F Polymastia is more common in men than women
False,
145
What two features allow the molding of the fetal cranium to the birth canal, during parturition?
Fontanelles and sutures.
146
T/F Scaphocephaly is the premature fusion of the coronal suture, making the skull become long narrow and wedged shaped.
False, Premature Fusion of the coronal Suture.
147
Neurocrainum: Does what to the brain?
Encloses the brain.
148
149
What type of Crainsynostosis produces a high tower-like skull?
Brachycephaly
150
T/F Acrania is only the complete absence of the neurocranium
False, It's partial and complete.
151
Most Secondary ossification centers appear before birth T/F.
False, They appear after birth.
152
The first bone to begin ossification it the\_\_\_\_?
Clavicle.
153
Condensed mesenchyme bone models appear within the limb, and undergoes\_\_\_\_\_ and become cartilaginous bone models?
Chondrification.
154
What is the second bone to begin ossification? And is formed through what ossification?
Femur and endochondrial ossification.
155
The clavicle is unique because of its ossifications, Why?
It's unique in that it is initially formed by intramembranous ossification. It later develops growth cartilages at either end, so it also undergoes endochondral ossification.
156
What bone exclusively formed through the endochondral ossification?
Femur.
157
When do the epiphysis fuse to the diaphysis ?
When the growth in length of the long bone ceases.
158
In regards to the endochondral ossification of the clavicle, where does the growth cartilage develop: Location.
At either end of the clavicle.
159
T/F Bone is added primarily to the epiphyseal side during childhood growth
False, bone is added to the diaphyseal side
160
What are some characteristics of Achondroplasia?
161
T/F The risk of developing achondroplasia increases with maternal age
162
What kind of disorder is achondroplasia?
163
The muscular system develops almost exclusively from mesoderm, except:
164
What are the three types of muscle tissue and where are they derived from?
Skeletal muscle: from somites derrived from paraxial mesoderm. Smooth muscle: from splanchnic mesoderm surround the gut Cardiac muscle: from splanchnic mesoderm surrounding the heart tube.
165
What are the embryonic precursors to muscle cells and where are they derived from?
Embryonic precursors to muscle cells are known as myoblast. They are derived from mesenchyme.
166
\_\_\_\_\_ fuse to form long, multinucleated muscle fibers
Myoblast
167
After the first year, muscle size increases with what?
in fiber diameter
168
What two divisions do myotomes divide into?
Hypaxial divisions: Located Ventrally Epaxial Divisions: Located Dorsally
169
Each developing spinal nerve divides into what two rami?
Posterior Primary Rami: supplies epaxial division Anterior Primary Rami: supplies hypaxial division
170
Which of the following is not part of the cervical region of the Hypaxial Division: A. Prevertebral muscles B. Geniohyoid C. Extensor muscles of the vertebral column D. Scalene
C. Extensor muscles of vertebral column are part of the Epaxial Division
171
Do all skeletal muscles develop before birth?
172
Tongue muscles are derived from which occipital myotomes?
2nd the 4th occipital myotomes.
173
T/F: Skeletal muscle is derived from the somites of the splanchnic mesoderm.
False - it is derived from the somites derived from the paraxial mesoderm
174
What are the muscles involved with epaxial division?
1. Extensor muscles of the neck and the vertebral column 2. Sacrococcygeal ligaments
175
Myoblasts from the pharyngeal artches give rise to all of the following *except*: A. Larynx B. Esophagus C. Mastication D. Facial Expression
B. Esophagus - it would be the pharynx
176
By what week is the heart muscle evident?
177
Which part of the limb bud induces growth and development of the underlying mesenchyme?
AER - Apical Ectodermal Ridge which is a band of ectoderm on the surface
178
T/F cardiac muscle myoblasts fuse together to later become the intercalated discs
179
What type of cardiac muscle fibers have fast-conducting gap junctions and controls the heart’s rhythmic beating?
180
What are the 3 different types of muscle tissue and where are they derived from?
181
What is the most critical period for limb development?
24-36 days after fertilization
182
The thoracic region of the hypaxial divisions is subdivided into what regions.
Intercostal muscle and muscle of the anterior abdominal wall.
183
The hypaxial division is divided into three ventrolateral muscle layers in the thorax, what are they?
External, internal and innermost intercostal.
184
The abdomen region of the hypaxial division is divided into what sections?
The external Oblique internal oblique and transversus abmominis
185
What do limb buds consist of?
186
Name the homologous bones: | (upper limb —\> lower limb)
Humerus —\> Femur Radius —\>Tibia Ulna —\> Fibula Metacarpals —\> Metatrsals Thumb —\> Great toe
187
In regards to limb rotation, in what direction doe the knees and elbows move?
Knees point ventrally with the extensor muscle located on the ventral surface of the bones. Elbows point dorsally with the extensor muscle located on the dorsal surface of the bone.
188
What drug is known to be a teratogen which can result in the embryo developing Amelia and meromelia
Thalidomide
189
In sensory innervation, the area of a skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is called \_\_\_\_\_.
Dermatome
190
Motor axons grow into the limb buds during what week? What do motor axons innervate?
5th week, to innervate the ventral and dorsal muscle masses
191
What is the complete absence of a limb?
Amelia
192
Blood vessels of the limbs arise as buds from the ________ arteries, which are branches of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
intersegmental; dorsal aorta
193
T/F Cranial nerves are part of the CNS
194
What does the Autonomic Nervous System consist of?
It supplies blood vessels, smooth muscle, and glands Components are found in BOTH the CNS and PNS
195
The CNS is derived from ______ while the PNS is derived from \_\_\_\_\_\_.
196
What is neurulation?
formation od the neural tube.
197
The humerus is homologous to what lower limp?
Femur
198
The Radius is homologous to what lower limp?
TIbia
199
The ulna is homologous to what lower limp
Fibula
200
The metacarpals are homologous to what lower limp
Metatarsals
201
The paraxial mesoderm is derived from what in the skeletal muscle?
Somites.
202
The mesoderm surrounding the gut is derived from what of the smooth muscle?
Splanchnic
203
The surrounding of the heart tube is derived from what in the cardiac muscle?
Splanchnic mesoderm?
204
A fusion of digits?
Syndactyly
205
206
Most common type of dwarfism
Achondroplasia
207
Clinical Note of appendicular skeleton: Due to a disturbance in endochondral ossification
Achondroplasia
208
Clinical note of the appendicular Skeleton: Normal sized head, bulging forehead, indented nasal bridge, short and bowed limb bones – disturbance of growth plates
Achondroplasia
209
What skeletal system which its Primary ossification centers develop during the eighth week of development?
Appendicular Skeleton
210
What is the first bone to begin ossification ?
Clavicle
211
What is the second bone to begin ossification
Femur
212
Pes Excavatum
concave depression in lower sternum Due to overgrowth of lower costal cartilages, which push the sternum inward
213
what is the outcome of overgrowth of lower costal cartilages, which pushes the sternum inward?
214
What myotome region is involved with intercostal muscle and muscles of the anterior abdominal wall?
Thoracic region.
215
What myotome region includes the external anal sphincter?
Sacral and coccygeal Region.
216
In regards to the myotome division, is the scacrocygeal ligaments part of the sacral and coccygeal region?
No, it's part of the epaxial divisions.
217
The smooth muscle in the walls of blood and lymph vessels is derived from what mesoderm ?
Somatic Mesoderm
218
Larger diameter than ordinary cardiac muscle Fast conducting system of the heart Form conductin system of the heart Controls rhythmic beating. What fiber are we describing?
Purkinje Fibers
219
What kind of buds appear near the end of the 4th week ?
Limb buds
220
What do the limb buds consist of \>
Apical ectodermal ridge ( AER): a band od ectoderm on the surface Central core of mesenchyme derived from mesoderm.
221
most critical period for limb development ?
24-36 days after development.
222
digital rays from within the hand plate as a condensation of mesenchyme become what?
fingers
223
At what week digital rays from the footplate become toes?
week 7
224
at what week do fingers and toes form?
week 8
225
the hypaxial division is divided into 3 ventrolateral meucles layers in the thorax: External, internal and \_\_\_\_\_
innermost intercostals
226
within the ventricular zone: the initial, inner zone contains what cell?
Neuroepithelial Cells
227
What is the outer most zone in the developing spinal cord?
Marginal Zone.
228
Within the neuroepithelial cells, which one is the supporting cells of the CNS ?
Glioblasts.
229
What is grouped together as macroglia?
Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes.
230
Where are microglia cells originate and derived from?
Derived: mesenchyme Originate: Bone Marrow
231
The microglia cells reach the CNS late in the fetal period via _____ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
Blood vessels and phagocytic cells.
232
Differential thickening of the lateral walls of the spinal cord soon produces a shallow longitudinal groove, that appears bilaterally. What is this called?
Sulcus limitations.
233
The sulcus groove separates into two plates, what are they?
Alar plate and Basal plate
234
Where is the alar plate located? and what does it form?
dorsally forms the dorsal gray columns
235
Where is the basal plate located? And what does it form?
Located ventrally and Forms ventral lateral gray columns.
236
What does the transverse section form?
Dorsal gray matter horn of the spinal cord.
237
What part do the lateral and ventral columns form?
Lateral gray horns of the spinal cord respectively
238
When it comes to the meninges, what layer is derived from the neural crest cells?
Thin inner layer.
239
T/F the thick outer layer of the meninges is derived from neural crest cells.
False, it's derived from mesenchyme
240
T/F The peripheral processes of the sensory neurons grow inward within the spinal nerves to form sensory endings in somatic and visceral structures.
241
The dura mater of the meninges is formed from what layer ?
Thick Layer.
242
The pia arachnoid is futures subdivided into what kind of mater?
Outer arachnoid mater and inner pia mater
243
The outer archnoid mater and inner pia mater are filled with what kind of fluid in between them?
Cerebral spinal Fluid.
244
A severe type of spina bifida, which involved protrusion of the spinal cord/ and or meninges through defects in the vertebral arches.
Spinal Bifida cystica
245
A spina bifida that contains cyst meninges and cerebrospinal fluid
Spina bifida with meningocele
246
Spina bifida that contains Cyst on the spinal cord and spinal nerve root
Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
247
Spina bifida with myeschisis has what features?
Spinal cord open because neural folds failed to fuse
248
which spina bifida leads to permanent paralysis?
Spina bifida with myeloschisis
249
People with a certain diet are at high risk of folic acid deficiency?
Vegans
250
myelination of the brain and spinal cord is formed by what cells
Oligodendrocytes
251
The myelination sheaths around the PNS are formed by what cell? Which are derived from what cell?
Schwann cells and derived from neural crest cells.
252
Prosencephalon is subdivided into? which make what in the brain
Diencephalon: Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalamus. Telencephalon: Forms the Cerebral hemisphere ( Thinking part of the brain)
253
The mesencephalon is subdivided into what?
It's not subdivided, it just becomes mesencephalon.
254
Rhombencephalon is subdivided into what part of the brain? the what do they develop?
Metencephalon: Forms PONS and cerebellum myelencephalon : Forms the medulla Oblongata.
255
A fusion of the neural folds in the cranial region and closure of the rostral neuropore form, what three vesicles of the brain
Forebrain (prosencephalon) Midbrain (mesencephalon) Hindbrain (rhombencephalon)
256
The hindbrain partly divides into two vesicles, what are the vesicles?
metencephalon and myelencephalon.
257
The midbrain (mesencephalon) undergoes what kind of changes in the brain?
The neural canal narrows and becomes the cerebral aqueduct
258
The cerebral aqueduct of the midbrain connects what ventricles together?
3rd and the 4th ventricle.
259
Neuroblasts migrate from the alar plates of the midbrain into the\_\_\_\_\_ and aggregate to form four large groups of neurons, the paired superior and inferior colliculi
Tectum.
260
Neuroblasts from the basal plates may give rise to groups of neurons in the\_\_\_\_\_
Tegmentum of the midbrain.
261
A down growth from the neuroectoderm of the diencephalon, the?
the neurohypophyseal diverticulum
262
An upgrowth from the ectodermal roof of the stomodeum, the
Adenohypohysis ( Rathke Pouch)
263
The cerebral hemispheres of the telencephalon enlarge to cover?
Diencephalon Midbrain Hindbrain
264
Largest commissure is the?
Corpus callosum.
265
266
The roof of the CSF is formed by what to make the tela choroidea?
Pia mater: externally and Ependymal cells: Internally
267
The tela choroidea invaginates the 4th ventricle where it differentiate into what plexus?
Chord Plexus?
268
An abnormal accumulation of the CSF with the ventricles leads to what Clinical abnormality?
Hydrocephalus.
269
The results that lead to significant enlargement of the head b/c of the suture are nor fuse allowing expansion?
Hydrocephalus.
270
Neurodevelopmental disorder which usually results in small bran and neurocranium with a normal size face.
Microcephaly
271
Structural malformation in which part of the cerebellum herniated through the Foramen Magnum into the vertebral canal A posterior cranial fossa is often abnormally small
Chiari Malformation
272