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Microbiology Summer 2020 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q 
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Bordella Pertussis, and the Influenza virus all go through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for their portal of entry. 
A. GI Tract 
B. Respiratory Tract
C. GU Tract 
D. Skin 
E. Parenteral
A

B. Respiratory

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2
Q 
Bordetella Pertussis is also known as what? 
A. Hepatitis 
B. Whooping Cough 
C. Gastric Ulcer Disease 
D. Cholera
A

B. Whooping Cough

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3
Q 
Escherichia Coli, Listera Monocytogenes, Vibrio Cholerae, Helicobacter pylori all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. GI Tract 
B. Respiratory 
C. GU Tract 
D. Skin 
E. Parenteral
A

A.GI Tract

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4
Q 
Neisseria Gonnorhea, Chlamydia Trachomatis, and the HIV virus all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. GI Tract 
B. Respiratory 
C. GU Tract 
D. Skin 
E. Parenteral
A

C. GU Tract

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5
Q 
Colstdriuim pefringes, and Staphyoloccus Areus all enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. GI Tract 
B. Respiratory 
C. GU Tract 
D. Skin 
E. Parenteral
A

D. Skin

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6
Q 
Hepatitis B and C virus, and Plasmodium species enter the body through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. GI Tract 
B. Respiratory 
C. GU Tract 
D. Skin 
E. Parenteral
A

E. Parenteral

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7
Q

Flu can also spread through _____.

A

tears

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8
Q

HIV is not typically found in _____.

A

Tears

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9
Q

Is COVID direct contact transmission?

A

Yes

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10
Q

The transmission of pathogens through water, food, and air.

A

Vehicle transmission

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11
Q

You can contract hepatitis A from _____ and ____ through vehicle transmission.

A

Food and Water

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12
Q

The WHO says that 17% of all infectious diseases are ______ born.

A

Vector

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13
Q

______ alone causes half of the 17% of infectious diseases that are vector born.

A

Malaria

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14
Q

What cycle should you watch if your patient has Malaria?

A

Fever

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15
Q

Broad-Spectrum antibiotics can lead to what?

A

C. Diff

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16
Q

True or False- Transplant patients are a very compromised host.

A

True

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17
Q

Are burn patients a compromised host? If so, what type of burns (1st degree etc) are at risk?

A

Yes and Patients with a 3rd degree burn are at an even higher risk.

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18
Q

A compromised host is one that is MORE LIKELY to develop an ___________.

A

Opportunistic Infection

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19
Q

A pathogen that is very virulent will cause disease in _______.

A

Everyone

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20
Q

What are the top five Hospital Acquired Infections?

A

S. Areus, E. Coli, Enteroccous Sp., C. Diff, Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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21
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the rate of new (or newly diagnosed) cases of the disease contracted into a set population in a certain time period. (month, year, season) 
A. Incidence of Disease 
B. Prevalence 
C. Morbidity Rate 
D. Mortality Rate
A

A. Incidence of Disease

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22
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the total number of people infected with a disease in a set population at any given time. (May not have seasonal variance) 
A. Incidence of Disease 
B. Morbidity Rate 
C. Mortality Rate 
D. Prevalence
A

D. Prevalence

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23
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the number of individuals affected by the disease during a set period DIVIDED BY the total population. 
A. Incidence of Disease 
B. Morbidity Rate 
C. Mortality Rate 
D. Prevalence
A

B. Morbidity Rate

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24
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific time period DIVIDED by the total population. 
A. Incidence of Disease 
B. Morbidity Rate 
C. Mortality Rate 
D. Prevalence
A

C. Mortality Rate

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25
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is Random and unpredictable typically pose no threat to public health. (HantaVirus New Mexico) 
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

A. Sporadic Diseases

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26
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is what we’re living in. When the disease occurs in epidemic proportions around the world.
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

C. Pandemic

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27
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is Strep throat, mononucleosis. Person to Person spread. (saliva, airsol, coughing) (Flu)
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

F. Propogated Epidemic

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28
Q

The numbers of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the _________

A

Incidence rate

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29
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is when a group of people are all exposed to an infectious agent or a toxin from the same source. (Legionnaires Disease, air conditioner) 
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

E. Common Source Outbreak

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30
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  occurs when the incidence of the disease becomes higher than normal or what we’re expecting
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

D. Epidemic

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31
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a disease that is constantly in a population but in numbers too low to be a public health problem. Causes more problems for a compromised host. 
A. Sporadic Diseases 
B. Endemic 
C. Pandemic 
D. Epidemic 
E. Common Source Outbreak 
F. Propogated Epidemic
A

B. Endemic

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32
Q

Chlamydia in patients ages 5 years and above is or is not reportable.

A

IS

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33
Q

Salmonella in patients ages 4 and below is or is not considered reportable.

A

IS

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34
Q

True or False you report all cases of Pertussis no matter what the patient’s age is.

A

True

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35
Q

True or False you report all cases of Campy no matter what a person’s age is.

A

True

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36
Q

What can broad spectrum antibiotics lead to?

A

C Diff

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37
Q

Why do we notify disease surveillance?

A

So we can stop it before it causes a really big outbreak.

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38
Q

Endotoxins are secreted by _______

A

pathogenic organisms

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39
Q

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______

A

true pathogens

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40
Q

The terms infection refers to ___________________________

A

pathogens penetrating host defenses

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41
Q

_______ is a preparation of a pathogen or its products used to induce active immunity.

A

Vaccine

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42
Q

_______ immunity is when you come in contact with something and YOUR BODY fights it off and produces antibodies.

A

Active

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43
Q

If a large enough number of individuals can be immunized, ______ immunity is achieved and the transmission of communicable diseases among people is interrupted.

A

herd

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44
Q

_______ immunity is also herd immunity.

A

Community

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45
Q

______ means that your body PRODUCES an IMMUNE RESPONSE. YOU FORMED THE RESPONSE. There are two types.

A

Active

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46
Q

_______ ______ _____ is where you got an infection (cold, virus, bacteria) and your body responded and developed antibodies. Some bacteria your body cannot form an active immunity (UTI- because the microbes are able to change and aren’t stable enough) Your body develops antibodies.

A

Naturally Acquired Active Immunity

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47
Q

_______ ______ ______ this is where vaccines come into play. Health care workers introduce antigens into vaccines, they inject it or have someone consume it. Your body develops antibodies.

A

Artificially Acquired Active Immunity

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48
Q

_______ _______this is where antibodies or protective cells are in something and they are passed on to you but they are passed on to you in that form and your body didn’t have to do anything to develop it and there passive as in they don’t last long, for a few months or weeks.

A

Passive Immunization

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49
Q

_______ ______ ______ _____is like when you’re born, Your mother transferred IGG through the placenta, why we’re concerned with organisms and pathogens bc they can pass through the placenta. Breastfeed- double protected: Secretory IGA.

A

Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity

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50
Q

______ _________ _______ is When you get preformed antibodies. If you have a pt who has HEP B or HIV, so instead of waiting to see if you contracted it you can get plasma from someone else and they purify it and inject it into you, flooding your body with IGG. (Immunoglobulin shot) If you’ve been bitten by a snake we can give you an antitoxin that will flood your body that will bind to the toxin to keep you from dying.

A

Artificially Acquired Passive

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51
Q

Many vaccines are given in _________ to protect against infections that are usually acquired early in life.

A

childhood

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52
Q

The objective of ______ immunization is to provide transient protection against a particular infection.

A

passive

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53
Q

At what age can you start to give the Hep B vaccine?

A

Between 1 to 2 months.

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54
Q

What age do you continue to give the Hep B vaccine?

A

From 6 to 18 months.

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55
Q

The DTaP shot can be given at what age?

A

15 to 18 months.

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56
Q

PCV 13 and Hib shots are both given at…..

A

between 12 to 15 months.

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57
Q

IPV shot is given between….

A

6 to 18 months.

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58
Q

You can start giving the Influenza shot yearly at what age?

A

6 months

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59
Q

Two doses given at four weeks apart are recommended for which vaccine?

A

Influenza

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60
Q

Your MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) and your varicella vaccines are given at what age?

A

12 to 15 months.

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61
Q

Hep A vaccine can be given…

A

12 months and older

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62
Q

How many doses of the Hep A vaccine are needed for life long protection?

A

Two

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63
Q

When should you receive the second dose of your Hep A vaccine?

A

6 to 18 months later.

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64
Q

Name the vaccines we currently have.

A

Chickenpox (varicella) , Diptheria, Hib (influenzae type B), Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Influenza (Flu), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR), Pertussis (Whooping Cough), Polio, Pneumoccocal, Rotavirus, Tetanus

65
Q

Are vaccination schedules modifiable?

A

Yes

66
Q

If a patient is 65 years of age or older, what shots should they be getting?

A

Pneumoccocal and Shingles

67
Q

Does being deprived of good nutrition make you susceptible for new diseases?

A

Yes `

68
Q

What are some factors that could make a patient more at risk for infection/ new disease?

A

Underlying medical conditions, nutritional status, age, efficacy.

69
Q

High levels of IgG - and igM is lower- the infection is ____ ____

A

not new and it has been going on.

70
Q

High levels of what indicates we have had a recent infection?

A

IgM

71
Q

______ stimulates antibody production.

A

Antigen

72
Q

In children under ___ months, the ____ (____ ____) is routinely used for vaccinations.

A

36 months, thigh (vastus lateralis)

73
Q

If someone is allergic to EGGS what vaccination should we NOT give them?

A

Influenza

74
Q

People who do not vaccinate their children fear that their children could experience what?

A

serious side effects

75
Q

People who do not vaccinate their kids also fear what?

A

Autism, and they believe children get too many shots.

76
Q

_____ people are usually the ones who are not vaccinated.

A

Wealthier

77
Q

________ has been attempted to be used as a biological weapon.

A

Smallpox

78
Q

_______ are protein filaments that extend like long tails from the cell membranes of certain gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

A

Flagella

79
Q

Does a vibrio cholera have a single, many, or no flagella?

A

single flagella

80
Q

Does E. Coli have single, many, or no flagella?

A

many flagella

81
Q

Does Proteus Mirabilis have a single, many, or no flagella?

A

many flagella

82
Q

Does Shigella have single, many, or no flagella?

A

no flagella

83
Q

_____ ______ occur with UTI’s, wound infections, and stinks. They have many flagella.

A

Proteus Mirabilis

84
Q

flagellum to spirochetes are _____

A

internal

85
Q

Mirella madorphia is associated with _____ ____.
Is it internal?
Is it mobile?

A

Lyme disease, yes, yes

86
Q

Treponema Palldidum is associated with _____.
Is it internal?
Is it mobile?

A

syphilis, yes, yes

87
Q

Pili look like little _____

A

thorns

88
Q

Does a pili have circular DNA?

A

Yes

89
Q

Fimbria ____ to things.

A

stick

90
Q

____ ____ is required form mating (conjugation)

A

Sex Pili

91
Q

______ _______ bind to cervical cells and buccal cells. These enzymes deactivate IGA.

A

Neisseria Gonorrhea

92
Q

______ ______ adhesion binds to ciliated respiratory cells and causes whooping cough.

A

Bordetella Pertussis

93
Q

_ ___ and ____ ______ cannot cause diarrhea without their adhesions to bind to the intestinal epithelium.

A

E. Coli and Campylobacter jejuni

94
Q

______ are protective walls that surround the cell membranes of gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

A

Capsules

95
Q

______ enable bacteria to be more virulent because macrophages and neutrophils are unable to phagocytize them.

A

Capsules

96
Q

Smooth means _____.

A

Virulent

97
Q

Rough means ________.

A

Not virulent

98
Q

_ ________ vaccine contains antigens from the 23 most common types of capsules.

A

S. Pneumoniae

99
Q

Is Bacillus aerobic or anerobic?

A

Aerobic

100
Q

Is C. Diff aerobic or anerobic?

A

Anaerobic

101
Q

Bacillus look like _____

A

string

102
Q

C. Diff is ____

A

small

103
Q

_____ are formed by 2 genera of bacteria, both of which are gram positive. (bacillus & C. Diff)

A

Endospores

104
Q

Endospores are metabolically _____ forms of bacteria that are resistant to certain things.

A

Dormant

105
Q

What are endospores are resistant to?

A

Heat (boiling), cold, drying and chemical agents, low nutrient conditions, radiation

106
Q

______ is an extracellular polysaccharide network, that forms a mechanical scaffold around bacteria.

A

Biofilm

107
Q

______ allow bacteria to bind to prosthetic devices (Iv, catheters) and protects them from attack by antibiotics and the immune system.

A

Biofilm

108
Q

________ _______ often forms biofilms on intravascular catheters & leeches out to cause bacteremia and catheter related sepsis.

A

Staphylococcus Epidermis

109
Q

_______ _____ _____ (___) is secreted by the organisms in the biofilm.

A

Extracellular Polymeric Substances (EPS)

110
Q

Are biofilms difficult or easy to treat with antibiotics?

A

Difficult

111
Q

What is the FIRST stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?

A

The reversible attachment of planktonic cells (takes seconds)

112
Q

What is the SECOND stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?

A

the first colonizers become irreversibly attached.

113
Q

What is the THIRD stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?

A

growth and cell division

114
Q

What is the FOURTH stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?

A

Production of EPS and formation of water channels.

115
Q

What is the FIFTH stage of the life cycle of a biofilm?

A

Attachment of secondary colonizers and dispersion of microbes to new sites.

116
Q

_______ _______ bacteria are phagocytosed by macrophages and neutrophils yet survive within these WBC’s unharmed.

A

Facultative Intracellular Bacteria

117
Q

Increased neutrophils mean that the infection is ______

A

bacterial

118
Q

What are the 8 bacterial pathogenesis? (Listen Sally Yer Friend Bruce Must Leave Now)

A

Listeria monocytogenes, salmonella typhi, Yesenia, Francisella tularensis, Brucella, mycobacterium, legionella, Nocardia.

119
Q

______ are proteins that are released by both gram positive and gram negative bacteria. But mostly gram positive.

A

Exotoxins

120
Q

What gram negative bacteria secretes exotoxins?

A

V. Cholera, E. Coli,

121
Q

What are some severe diseases that can be caused by exotoxins?

A

Anthrax (gram positive) (Saddam Husseins threatened germ warfare agent), Botulisms (gram positive) , tetanus (gram positive), and Cholera (gram negative)

122
Q

_______ are exotoxins that act n the nerves or motor endplates to cause paralysis.

A

Neurotoxins

123
Q

What are some examples of neurotoxins?

A

tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin

124
Q

_______ - tetanospasm

A

lock jaw

125
Q

________ are exotoxins that act on the GI tract to cause diarrhea. They inhibit NaCl reabsorption activate NaCl secretion or kill intestinal epithelial cells.

A

Enterotoxins

126
Q

The common end result of _______ is the osmotic pull of fluid into the intestine which causes diarrhea. (losing NaCl)

A

Enterotoxins

127
Q

The enterotoxins cause _ disease manifestations.

A

2

128
Q

______ _____ is where bacteria colonize and bind to the GI tract, continue releasing their enterotoxins locally. And diarrhea will continue until the bacteria are destroyed by the immune system or antibiotics.

A

Infectious Diarrhea

129
Q

What are some examples of Infectious diarrhea?

A

Vibrio cholera, E. Coli, Campy, Shigella dysenteriae

130
Q

____ ____ is when bacteria grow in food and release enterotoxin in the food.

A

Food Poisioning

131
Q

What are some examples of bacteria that cause food poisoning?

A

Bacillus cereus (rice products) Staphylococcus Areus, and salmonella

132
Q

______ _____ stimulate the release of cytokines and can cause a rash, fever, and toxic shock syndrome.

A

Pyrogenic Exotoxins

133
Q

What are some examples of Pyrogenic Exotoxins?

A

S. Areus, and S. Pyogenes

134
Q

_____ _______ _____ allow bacteria to destroy and tunnel through tissues. These include enzymes that destroy DNA, Collagen, Fibrin, NAD, and RBC’s and WBC’s.

A

Tissue Invasive Exotoxins

135
Q

What is an example of a tissue invasive exotoxin?

A

Necrotising Fasciitis

136
Q

______ is a piece of the OUTER membrane lipopolysaccharide of gram NEGATIVE bacteria.

A

Endotoxin

137
Q

______ is VERY toxic and is released when the bacterial cell undergoes lysis. They also shed is steady amounts from living bacteria.

A

Endotoxins

138
Q

Sometimes treating a patient with a antibiotic who has a _____ _____ infection could worsen the patients condition because the bacteria are lysed and releasing large quantities of endotoxin.

A

Gram NEGATIVE

139
Q

Endotoxins pathogenic to humans have only been confirmed in ____ ____ bacteria

A

gram negative

140
Q

____ _____ people world wide are affected by sepsis.

A

26 million

141
Q

____ are diagnosed each year in the US.

A

1.6 million

142
Q

It is the ___ leading cause of death.

A

3rd

143
Q

It has a __-___ % mortality rate.

A

25 to 30%

144
Q

It is the #__ cause of hospital readmission in the US.

A

1

145
Q

____ of septic patients enter the hospital through the emergency department.

A

2/3

146
Q

____ is bacteria in the bloodstream.

A

Bacteremia

147
Q

_______ can occur silently and without symptoms.

A

Bacteremia

148
Q

____ ____ ____ results in transient bacteremia

A

brushing your teeth

149
Q

_____ refers to bacteremia that causes a systemic immune response to infection.

A

Sepsis

150
Q

Septic patients are described as “ _____ ____”

A

looking sick

151
Q

What are some responses sepsis can cause?

A

high or low temperature, the elevation of WBC, and fast heart rhythm or breathing rate

152
Q

What is the most important principle in the treatment of septic shock?

A

find the site of infection and the bug responsible and eradicate it.

153
Q

The ____ is the most common site for septic shock followed by the _____ and ____ ___

A

lungs, abdomen, and urinary tract

154
Q

In 1/3 cases a site of infection is / is not identified?

A

is not

155
Q

It increases or decreases mortality if an antibiotic is delayed?

A

increases

156
Q

______ have long been considered to be of potential use in the treatment of sepsis because of their anti-inflammatory properties and beneficial effects on vascular tone.

A

Corticosteroids

157
Q

Blood pressure must be supported with _____ and _____ & ____ maintained in regards to sepsis.

A

fluids & drugs (dopamine & norepinephrine) & oxygen level. (intubation and mechanical ventilation is often required)

158
Q

What are the 4 bacteria that produce exotoxins that increase the levels of CAMP?

A

Cholera, Anthrax, Montezumas Revenge, Pertussis

Microbiology Summer 2020 (1 decks)

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