Exam 2 Flashcards
Dr. Ronald R. has been dating a young woman he met through an online dating service for two months and their relationship is starting to get serious. However, on the last date, he learned that his new girlfriend is the sister of one of his therapy clients. The client is an adult and does not live with his sister. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. R. should:
Select one:
A. stop seeing the sister until his therapeutic relationship with the client has terminated.
B. terminate therapy with the client after providing him with appropriate referrals.
C. discuss the matter with the client as soon as possible to help determine the best course of action.
D. do nothing unless it becomes evident that the situation is reducing his effectiveness as a therapist.
c. CORRECT The situation described in this question is not directly addressed by the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics, but this response is most consistent with their requirements regarding multiple relationships. For example, Standard 3.05(b) of the Ethics Code states: “If a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code.” It may become necessary for Dr. R. to refer the client to another therapist or to end the relationship with the client’s sister, but neither of these would be the best initial course of action.
The primary goal of quality assurance is best described as:
Select one:
A. reducing program costs and beneficiary expenditures.
B. improving the health status and satisfaction of patients.
C. policing the profession by detecting and dealing appropriately with incompetent psychologists.
D. guaranteeing that the needs of patients belonging to a particular group or population are being met.
b. CORRECT Quality assurance is directed toward ensuring that programs and services are effective, efficient, and available. This goal is achieved by comparing services to predefined standards.
Sperling (1960) had research participants stare at a blank screen onto which he flashed a display of letters for a fraction of a second and then asked them to recall as many of the letters as they could. Sperling was studying which of the following? Select one: A. eidetic memory B. semantic memory C. iconic memory D. echoic memory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four terms listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Eidetic memory is also known as photographic memory and refers to visual images that are particularly vivid and detailed. Although Sperling was studying memory for visual images, this is not the best answer of those given.
b. Incorrect Semantic memory is the aspect of long-term memory that includes general knowledge.
c. CORRECT Iconic memory is the aspect of sensory memory that stores visual stimuli. Sperling was studying iconic memory.
d. Incorrect Echoic memory is the aspect of sensory memory that stores auditory stimuli.
A person with associative visual agnosia:
Select one:
A. can name a familiar object she sees but does not know how to use it.
B. can name a familiar object when she does so spontaneously but not when she is asked to do so.
C. cannot name a familiar object she sees but may recognize it when it is placed in her hand and cannot copy or match a drawing of the object.
D. cannot name a familiar object she sees but may know what it is used for and can copy or match a drawing of the object.
d. CORRECT This response describes associative visual agnosia, which occurs when visual and language areas become disconnected.
To assess the effectiveness of differential reinforcement for alleviating a child's bad habits (i.e., nail biting, thumb-sucking, hair-pulling, and pencil-chewing), the best research design would be which of the following? Select one: A. time-series B. Solomon four-group C. multiple baseline D. reversal
a. Incorrect A time-series design is a group design that involves measuring the dependent variable multiple times before and after the intervention is applied.
b. Incorrect The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on the dependent variable.
c. CORRECT The multiple baseline design is a single-subject design that can be used to assess a treatment for different behaviors, settings, or participants. Additional information about the multiple-baseline design is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.
d. Incorrect The reversal design is also a single-subject design but is not as useful as the multiple baseline design for assessing the effectiveness of a treatment for different behaviors.
To reduce or eliminate a child's tantrums, which of the following would probably be most effective? Select one: A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment D. negative punishment
In this situation, the goal is to eliminate a behavior. Therefore, punishment is the correct choice.
d. CORRECT If you have to choose between positive and negative punishment as an intervention, negative punishment (which involves removing a stimulus following a behavior) is generally preferred. Examples of negative punishment include time-out and response cost.
Use of multicomponent behavior therapy in conjunction with nicotine replacement therapy as an intervention for cigarette smoking:
Select one:
A. is no better than nicotine replacement therapy alone.
B. is no better than behavior therapy alone.
C. is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone only for individuals who have developed tolerance for nicotine.
D. is better than nicotine replacement therapy alone, especially in terms of long-term effects.
Answer D is correct: There is some evidence that, in terms of short-term effects, a combined treatment does not have significant advantages over nicotine replacement therapy alone. However, in terms of long-term abstinence, the combined treatment is best.
When interpreting an examinee's responses to the Rorschach test, form quality provides information on which of the following? Select one: A. coping resources B. interpersonal style C. cognitive style D. reality testing
Form quality is one of several factors considered when scoring the Rorschach.
a. Incorrect Coping resources are indicated by responses related to human and animal movement.
b. Incorrect Interpersonal style is assessed by looking at the proportion of human versus animal responses.
c. Incorrect Cognitive style is evaluated by considering under- versus over incorporation.
d. CORRECT Form quality refers to the similarity between the examinee’s perception of the inkblot and its actual shape and provides information on reality testing.
Stepwise multiple regression would be most useful for:
Select one:
A. identifying the smallest number of predictors needed to accurately predict scores on a criterion.
B. comparing the strength of the relationship between pairs of predictors and a single criterion.
C. determining which predictors have a causal effect on two or more criteria.
D. determining the combination of criteria that are most accurately predicted by a set of predictors.
Multiple regression is used when the goal is to use several predictors to predict or estimate performance on a single criterion.
a. CORRECT When using stepwise multiple regression, predictors are added or deleted one at a time to determine the minimum number necessary to accurately predict or estimate performance on the criterion.
Based on their review of the research on eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), Davidson and Parker (2001) concluded that eye movements:
Select one:
A. are the most important contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment.
B. are one of three essential contributors to the effectiveness of the treatment.
C. are not an essential contributor to the effectiveness of the treatment.
D. actually decrease the effectiveness of the treatment.
The research on EMDR has not produced entirely consistent results. However, Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis found that eye movements do not contribute to its effectiveness and that its benefits are due, instead, to exposure to the feared stimulus.
With regard to fees in forensic settings, the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology:
Select one:
A. states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees.”
B. states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees” except when those services are court-ordered.
C. recommends that psychologists not provide services to participants involved in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees” except when such fees are compatible with current standards of practice.
D. does not explicitly address the issue of providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of “contingent fees.”
a. CORRECT Paragraph 5.02 states: “Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.”
A young man has just received a diagnosis of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. You can expect that he will display which of the following?
Select one:
A. rapidly changing and shallow expression of emotions
B. instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and mood
C. grandiose behavior and a lack of empathy
D. excessive emotionality and attention seeking
Answer C is correct: Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
Sleeping immediately after studying on the night before your 8:00 a.m. exam would help minimize the effects of which of the following on your ability to recall information during the exam? Select one: A. cue-dependent forgetting B. trace decay C. retroactive interference D. proactive interference
c. CORRECT Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. Sleeping between learning information and being tested on that information would eliminate retroactive interference.
The procedures known as “time-out” and “response cost” share in common which of the following?
Select one:
A. Both are forms of operant extinction.
B. Both entail withholding or removing positive stimuli.
C. Both involve reinforcing alternative behaviors.
D. Both entail using negative reinforcement.
Time out involves removing opportunities for reinforcement for a period of time following a behavior to reduce that behavior. Response cost entails removing positive reinforcement (e.g., a desirable activity) following a behavior to eliminate the behavior.
b. CORRECT Time out and response cost are both types of negative punishment that involve removing positive reinforcement following a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
Damage to the postcentral gyrus is most likely to impair which of the following? Select one: A. sense of touch B. motor coordination C. vision D. executive cognitive functions
The postcentral gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex.
a. CORRECT The primary somatosensory cortex mediates touch and other skin and muscle sensations for the contralateral (opposite) side of the body.
Elevated scores on the MMPI-2's L and K scales are most indicative of: Select one: A. an attempt to "fake good." B. an attempt to "fake bad." C. random responding. D. responding "true" to all items.
a. CORRECT An abnormally high score on the L and K scales (usually accompanied by a slightly lower-than-normal score on the F scale) indicates an attempt to present oneself in a favorable light – i.e., to “fake good.”
In most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for which of the following functions?
Select one:
A. perceiving whole shapes from parts
B. recognizing emotions in facial expressions
C. perceiving direction and distance
D. controlling complex and precise movements
Knowing that the right (nondominant) hemisphere is responsible for processing emotional and spatial information would have helped you eliminate responses a, b, and c as correct answers to this question.
d. CORRECT In the majority of people, the left hemisphere is dominant for fine motor functioning, which is evident in the fact that most people are right-handed.
Studies investigating the impact of viewing violent pornography have generally supported the predictions of which of the following? Select one: A. frustration-aggression hypothesis B. catharsis hypothesis C. social learning theory D. vicious circle hypothesis
c. CORRECT Social learning theory predicts that we acquire behaviors by observing others engage in those behaviors. Therefore, its predictions are consistent with the results of studies investigating the effects of viewing violent pornography.
Bowlby (1980) proposed that a child's early experiences lead to the development of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which then affects his or her future relationships. Select one: A. object permanence B. gender identity C. an internal working model D. a transactional model
According to Bowlby, a child’s early experiences with primary caregivers leads to the development of an internal working model, which is a mental representation of oneself and others and relationships between oneself and others.
c. CORRECT A child’s internal working model influences his or her future relationships.
If your data analysis involves calculating an "effect size," you are conducting which of the following? Select one: A. meta-analysis B. path analysis C. factor analysis D. discriminant analysis
Only one of the statistical techniques listed in the answers involves calculating an effect size, which is a measure of the magnitude of the relationship between two variables (e.g., a treatment and an outcome).
a. CORRECT Meta-analysis is used to combine the results of multiple studies. For example, a meta-analysis might be conducted to combine the results of several different studies that investigated the effects of cognitive therapy on depression. Use of this technique involves calculating an effect size for each study and then calculating a mean effect size for all of the studies.
After a training program has been administered to employees, an organizational psychologist wants to determine if the instruction met its objectives in terms of the employees' on-the-job performance. What type of evaluation will he conduct? Select one: A. summative B. formative C. primary D. secondary
a. CORRECT A summative evaluation is conducted after the administration of a program to determine if the program’s goals have been achieved.
b. Incorrect Formative evaluations are conducted during the development of a program to determine whether the program should be altered to improve its effectiveness.
You are conducting a multiple regression analysis and find that one of your predictors has a negative regression coefficient. This means that:
Select one:
A. you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation.
B. the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion.
C. the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis.
D. you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations.
The size and sign of a predictors regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion.
b. CORRECT A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion.
Research on the effects of the SSRI fluoxetine for individuals with Bulimia Nervosa has found that:
Select one:
A. it is useful only for reducing comorbid symptoms of depression.
B. it is useful for reducing symptoms of Bulimia and comorbid symptoms of depression.
C. it is more effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy for reducing symptoms of Bulimia.
D. it has a paradoxical effect that reduces the likelihood of a positive response to cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Answer B is correct: Several studies have found that the antidepressant fluoxetine is effective for alleviating the symptoms of comorbid depression and for reducing the symptoms of Bulimia regardless of the presence or absence of depressive symptoms. However, it has not been found to be more effective than CBT although, for some patients, a combination of CBT and fluoxetine is more effective than CBT alone.
Krumboltz’s (1996) theory of career decision-making emphasizes which of the following?
Select one:
A. the match between the individual’s ego development and his/her career development
B. the match between the individual’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job
C. the individual’s ability to acquire skills that allow him/her to respond to changes in work requirements
D. the degree to which a job fosters the individual’s ability to achieve career maturity
Krumboltz’s social learning theory differs from other prominent theories of career development and decision-making in that it does NOT focus on matching an individual’s characteristics to the characteristics of the job.
c. CORRECT Krumboltz emphasizes the importance of continual learning and self-development, which enable individuals to respond effectively to constantly changing work environments.
According to Carol Gilligan, adolescent females tend to score at lower stages than adolescent males on Kohlbergian tasks because:
Select one:
A. there are biases in the way that raters score the responses of females.
B. females are more concerned than males with being judged positively by the rater.
C. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on individual rights, while the moral reasoning of girls reflects concerns about responsibility toward others.
D. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on instrumentality, while the moral responses of girls are based more on socioemotional concerns.
c. CORRECT According to Gilligan, males and females use different moral criteria in judging moral dilemmas, with females emphasizing mutual caring and responsibility for others and males focusing more on individual rights.
Following a severe closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 26-year-old male exhibits anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Most likely, which of the following memories will return first during his recovery?
Select one:
A. memory for the events that occurred just after the accident
B. memory for events immediately before the accident
C. memory for his birthday dinner six months prior to the accident
D. memory for his high school graduation
Following moderate to severe head injury, a person is likely to show some degree of both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. In this situation, recovery of long-term memories typically involves a predictable pattern.
a. Incorrect Anterograde amnesia is usually more severe than retrograde amnesia, and the individual usually never recalls the incident that caused the amnesia or the events occurring after it because those events were never stored in long-term memory.
d. CORRECT Memories of more remote events ordinarily return first.
A psychologist is hired to develop a community program for seniors that will focus on maintaining social contacts and reducing the risk of social isolation. This program is an example of which of the following? Select one: A. milestone prevention B. primary prevention C. secondary prevention D. tertiary prevention
b. CORRECT Since this program is aimed at all seniors in the community, it is a primary prevention.
c. Incorrect A secondary prevention would be aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at high-risk. As originally defined, secondary prevention always involves some kind of screening process to identify individuals.
d. Incorrect A tertiary program is for people who have already suffered mental health problems. Its purpose is to reduce the risk for relapse or a continuation or worsening of the problem.
Which of the following is not a rater bias? Select one: A. strictness error B. central tendency bias C. floor effect D. halo effect
a. Incorrect Strictness error (bias) refers to the tendency to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale.
b. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting the central tendency bias when he/she rates all ratees using the middle of a rating scale.
c. CORRECT A floor effect is a characteristic of a measuring instrument (not a rater) and refers to the instrument’s inability to distinguish between people who have low levels of whatever is being measured by the instrument.
d. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting a halo effect when his/her evaluation of an employee on one dimension of performance affects the rater’s evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance.
Research investigating the relationship between ADHD and substance abuse has found that:
Select one:
A. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is not associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood.
B. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood.
C. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual was treated with stimulant drugs in childhood.
D. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual had comorbid conduct symptoms.
Answer B is correct: ADHD with or without comorbidity is a risk factor for substance abuse in adulthood.
Bandura’s social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when:
Select one:
A. it provides immediate rewards for achieving goals.
B. trainees participate in defining the program’s goals.
C. trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins.
D. models are clearly and consistently reinforced for successful performance.
c. CORRECT Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.
A father is trying to work in the garden, but his son wants his attention and keeps whining and nagging. The father finally gives in and plays with the boy who stops whining. The father's behavior (playing with his son) is the result of: Select one: A. positive punishment. B. negative punishment. C. positive reinforcement. D. negative reinforcement.
d. CORRECT When the father plays with the child, the child stops nagging and whining. In other words, the father’s play behavior is being negatively reinforced.
The father’s play behavior has increased in this situation, which means that it is being reinforced.
Which of the following would most likely maximize the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient?
Select one:
A. increase the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
B. decrease the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
C. increase the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
D. decrease the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
c. CORRECT Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute(s) being measured by the test.
Research comparing outcomes for children who are actively rejected or neglected by their peers has found that:
Select one:
A. rejected children are better adjusted than neglected children and are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
B. rejected and neglected children are similar in terms of adjustment although neglected children are less likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
C. rejected and neglected children are similar in terms of adjustment although neglected children are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
D. neglected children are better adjusted than rejected children and are more likely to experience a change in social status when they change social groups.
d. CORRECT Overall, the outcomes for neglected children are better than those for rejected children. In addition, neglected children are more likely to experience a change in peer status when they change schools or social groups.
A researcher is most likely to choose the multiple-baseline design for her research study because:
Select one:
A. she wants to eliminate the confounding effects of “demand characteristics.”
B. she wants to eliminate the confounding effects of repeated measurement of the dependent variable.
C. she wants to avoid having to remove an effective treatment during the course of the study.
D. she wants to determine if “nonspecific factors” are responsible for any observed effects of the treatment.
c. CORRECT One advantage of the multiple baseline design is that its use does not require removing a treatment once it has been applied to a baseline for the duration of the study.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding a psychologist’s use of client testimonials in advertisements?
Select one:
A. The use of testimonials is prohibited under any conditions.
B. The use of testimonials is prohibited only when they are from current clients.
C. The use of testimonials is prohibited when they are from current clients or, in certain circumstances, former clients.
D. The use of testimonials is not prohibited as long as they provide accurate information.
c. CORRECT Standard 5.05 states that “psychologists do not solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients or other persons who, because of their particular circumstances, are vulnerable to undue influence.”
Dr. Staret is renting Dr. Tyro office space and providing him with secretarial services, and he charges Dr. Tyro on a “per patient” basis. Dr. Tyro will be receiving occasional referrals from Dr. Staret. This arrangement is:
Select one:
A. unethical because it represents “fee-splitting.”
B. unethical because it represents a “multiple relationship.”
C. ethical as long as the per patient fee is based on Dr. Staret’s actual costs.
D. ethical as long as the per patient fee does not include a referral fee.
c. CORRECT The per patient fee must reflect Dr. Staret’s actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral.
Broadbent (1958) used the dichotic listening task to investigate the predictions of his filter theory of attention. This task involved having the listener hear different messages presented simultaneously to each ear and then verbally report what he/she had heard. For example, in a typical study, three digits (e.g., 5, 2, 7) were presented to one ear, while three other digits (e.g., 4, 9, 8) were simultaneously presented to the other ear. The results of these studies confirmed Broadbent's theory because, in most cases, listeners reported that they had heard which of the following? Select one: A. 5-4-2-9-7-8 B. 5-2-7-4-9-8 C. 5-2-7 only OR 4-9-8 only D. 7-8 only
Broadbent’s (1958) filter theory of attention was the first comprehensive theory of attention and the first of the “bottleneck” theories. It proposes that a filter (sensory buffer) selects which incoming message will be further processed or attended to on the basis of the physical properties of the message.
b. CORRECT Most participants in Broadbent’s studies reported the information by ear rather than by the order in which they heard the digits, and he concluded that this proved that the physical properties of the message determined if it was attended to or ignored. In other words, in the dichotic listening task studies, the filter allowed the message from one ear to “pass through” before it allowed the message from the other ear to do so, which explained why participants would report the digits heard in one ear first, followed by the digits heard in the other ear.
With regard to Schizophrenia, there is some evidence that the higher rate found among African American individuals may be due to:
Select one:
A. genetic factors.
B. misdiagnosis.
C. lower recovery rates.
D. a higher risk for complications during birth.
Answer B is correct: Although the research on the relation between race/ethnicity and Schizophrenia is limited, there is some evidence that African American individuals have a slightly higher rate of Schizophrenia than other groups. And the results of the existing studies suggest that African Americans with other disorders (especially Bipolar Disorder, depression, and alcohol-related organic disorders) are often misdiagnosed as having Schizophrenia because their symptoms include auditory and visual hallucinations.
Validity generalization studies make use of which of the following techniques? Select one: A. multiple regression B. meta-analysis C. item response theory D. multitrait-multimethod matrix
Validity generalization studies are conducted to determine if validity coefficients are generalizable to situations and populations other than those included in any particular validity study. Schmidt and Hunter (1977), for example, conducted validity generalization studies to evaluate and compare the criterion-related validity of personnel selection procedures.
a. Incorrect Multiple regression uses multiple predictors to predict outcome on a single criterion measure.
b. CORRECT All forms of validity generalization involve the use of some form of meta-analysis to combine the results of multiple validity studies.
c. Incorrect Item response theory is an alternative to classical test theory for conceptualizing and constructing tests.
d. Incorrect The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate a test’s construct validity.
During the first session of a therapy group, the therapist emphasizes the importance of self-disclosure. Although many of the members do not go along with this group norm initially, after several weeks, most of the members are beginning to self-disclose. According to Irvin Yalom, the willingness to self-disclose during this stage of group development is most likely attributable to which of the following? Select one: A. increased role conformance B. reduced defensiveness C. increased group cohesiveness D. reduced role induction
Yalom (1985) proposed that, regardless of the type of therapy group or the theoretical background of the group leader, self-disclosure by participants is always an essential group norm.
c. CORRECT Yalom describes several initial stages that new groups typically pass through. By the third stage, as the result of increasing group cohesiveness, group members begin to adhere to the norm of self-disclosure even if they were resistant to doing so to begin with.
At age 8, a girl receives a WISC FSIQ score of 144. When she is retested at age 12, she obtains a score of 138. Which of the following best accounts for this decline in her IQ score? Select one: A. demand characteristics B. cohort effects C. normal aging effects D. statistical regression
Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to regress toward the mean on retesting and may threaten a study’s internal validity whenever participants are chosen on the basis of their extreme scores on a pretest.
d. CORRECT Although statistical regression is typically used in the context of scores obtained by a group of examinees (rather than an individual examinee), of the answers given, it is the best choice.
A current client has filed a complaint against you with the Ethics Committee and the Committee has contacted you requesting that you provide it with test results and other client information that it needs to resolve the client’s complaint. You have attempted to contact the client to obtain his release but he has not responded to your attempts and has stopped coming to therapy. You believe that the client’s complaint is frivolous and unfounded. You should:
Select one:
A. provide the Committee with the information it has requested.
B. provide the Committee only with information you believe is relevant to the complaint.
C. contact the Committee and inform it about your inability to obtain a release from the client.
D. contact the Committee and inform it that you believe the client’s complaint is improper.
c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with ethical requirements. For example, Standard 1.06 states: “Psychologists cooperate in ethics investigations … [and] in doing so, they address any confidentiality issues.”
A person who is low in self-monitoring (Snyder, 1987) will rely on which of the following when deciding how to act in a particular social situation?
Select one:
A. his/her life scripts.
B. his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs.
C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with.
D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood.
As defined by Snyder (1987), self-monitoring refers to the degree to which people are concerned about the impressions they convey to others in social situations and are able to control those impressions.
b. CORRECT A person who is low in self-monitoring relies on his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs when determining how to act in social situations and, as a result, acts similarly in different social situations.
c. Incorrect People who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and, as a result, adapt their behaviors to the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people in each social situation.
A waiter is waiting on a group of professors from the local university. Being familiar with social loafing theory and desiring the largest tip possible, the waiter hopes that:
Select one:
A. each professor will leave his/her own tip.
B. the professors will contribute anonymously to a group tip.
C. the professors will discuss how much tip to leave.
D. one of the professors will volunteer to leave the tip for all of the professors.
Social loafing occurs when a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone.
a. CORRECT The waiter will get the most money if each person leaves his/her own tip since this will discourage social loafing.
As described by Piaget, which of the following is a primary concern for individuals in the autonomous stage of moral development?
Select one:
A. abstract universal principles
B. socially agreed-upon principles
C. the need to maintain social rules and laws
D. the positive and negative consequences of an act
Piaget described moral development in terms of two stages – heteronomous and autonomous.
a. Incorrect Universal moral principles are of concern for individuals in Stage 6 of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development.
b. CORRECT Children in Piaget’s autonomous stage view rules as being socially agreed-upon and alterable when people who are governed by them agree to the change.
c. Incorrect The need to maintain social rules and laws is characteristic of Kohlberg’s Stage 4.
d. Incorrect Children in Piaget’s heteronomous stage (and Kohlberg’s Stages 1 and 2) focus on the consequences of an act.
Several days after losing an important customer, David D., a 41-year-old sales representative, develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He tells his therapist that he has trouble even thinking about going out and “drumming up more business” and is concerned that his attitude may be having a negative effect on his relationships with other customers. David’s symptoms have lasted for nearly three weeks, and he has no history of a previous mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis for David is:
Select one:
A. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
B. Adjustment Disorder, unspecified.
C. Major Depressive Disorder.
D. Acute Stress Disorder.
Answer A is correct: The nature and duration of David’s symptoms and the fact that they are apparently related to the loss of an important customer are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Adjustment Disorder. Because his symptoms are those associated with depression (sadness and hopelessness), the correct diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.
Performance on which of the following is least likely to be adversely affected by increasing age in adulthood? Select one: A. a measure of implicit memory B. a dichotic listening task C. a measure of processing speed D. a test of visual acuity
a. CORRECT Although explicit memory shows age-related declines, implicit memory is relatively unaffected by increasing age.
The Stone Center’s self-in-relation theory attributes a woman’s core sense of self to which of the following?
Select one:
A. the development of a mutually empathic bond with her mother during early childhood
B. her ability to resolve the conflicting demands of the id, ego, and superego during childhood
C. her ability to separate “self” and “object” during the separation-individuation process
D. the development of a unique “autonomous” self during adolescence
a. CORRECT Self-in-relation theory proposes that a woman’s core self-structure is an interacting or relational self that emerges from the early mother-daughter relationship and the development of mutual empathy in that relationship.
During the process of developing a training program, you evaluate its effects on trainee satisfaction and learning to determine what changes to the program are needed to achieve maximal effectiveness. This is an example of: Select one: A. needs assessment. B. functional analysis. C. summative evaluation. D. formative evaluation.
c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the outcomes of a program and is less geared toward guiding future changes than a formative evaluation is.
d. CORRECT Although the question isn’t entirely clear, the evaluation sounds more like a formative one because it is conducted during program development and its results will be used to make necessary changes in the program.
As defined by Herek (2004), \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ promotes hostility and violence toward homosexuals and consists of beliefs about gender, identity, and sexuality that define sexual minorities as deviant or threatening. Select one: A. homophobia B. sexual stigma C. sexual prejudice D. heterosexism
d. CORRECT Herek considers homophobia to be an imprecise term and recommends that it be replaced with the terms listed in answers b, c, and d. The description in this question is consistent with Herek’s definition of heterosexism.
According to Herbert Simon (1960), “bounded discretion”:
Select one:
A. is due to limited cognitive ability.
B. ensures that the optimal alternative is chosen.
C. limits a decision-maker’s choices.
D. reduces a leader’s effectiveness in ambiguous situations.
Knowing that Simon distinguished between two models of individual decision-making (rational-economic and bounded rationality) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
c. CORRECT Bounded discretion is also known as bounded rationality and refers to the limitations on a decision-maker’s choices resulting from certain social, legal, moral, and organizational factors.
he criminal justice system provides intervention at what level of prevention? Select one: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quartiary
Primary prevention focuses on all members of an identified group. Secondary prevention targets specific individuals who are at high risk. Tertiary prevention intervenes after the incidence of the behavior
c. CORRECT The criminal justice system intervenes after an individual engages in a criminal act.
Outward signs of the self-conscious emotions of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are first evident between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of age. Select one: A. 6 to 10 months B. 10 to 18 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 24 to 30 months
It is not until the second year of life that children begin to exhibit outward signs of self-conscious emotions.
c. CORRECT Jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment are among the first self-conscious emotions exhibited by young children.
Tokens in a token economy act as which of the following? Select one: A. primary reinforcers B. back-up reinforcers C. generalized conditioned reinforcers D. generalized unconditioned reinforcers
In a token economy, tokens have value because they can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers.
a. Incorrect Primary reinforcers are inherently reinforcing and include food, water, and desirable activities.
b. Incorrect In a token economy, the back-up reinforcers are the primary reinforcers that can be “purchased” with tokens.
c. CORRECT Tokens are generalized conditioned (secondary) reinforcers that can be exchanged for a variety of unconditioned (primary) reinforcers. Like other conditioned reinforcers, they are reinforcing only because they are associated with primary reinforcers.
In comparison to White middle-class families, African American middle-class families:
Select one:
A. are more likely to have a patriarchal structure.
B. are more likely to have a matriarchal structure.
C. are less likely to include members of the extended family.
D. are less likely to exhibit differentiation in power along gender lines.
The studies have confirmed that a difference between middle-class African American and White families is that African American families are less rigid with regard to gender roles.
d. CORRECT Although White middle-class families are generally less rigid about gender roles than they were in the past, this is still considered a characteristic that distinguishes African American and White middle-class families.
Research suggests that, with regard to metamemory, older adults are:
Select one:
A. more likely than younger adults to underestimate their actual memory deficits.
B. more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits.
C. just as able as younger adults to accurately estimate their actual memory deficits.
D. better than younger adults at estimating their actual memory deficits.
b. CORRECT Metamemory refers to the ability to monitor one”s own memory processes. There is evidence that, compared to younger adults, older adults tend to view their memory loss as worse than it actually is.
Examinees with Alzheimer's Dementia would most likely obtain the highest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes? Select one: A. Verbal Comprehension B. Working Memory C. Perceptual Reasoning D. Processing Speed
Answer A is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical Manual reports the highest score for individuals with Alzheimer’s Dementia for the Verbal Comprehension Index, followed by the Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed Indexes.
Research on theory of mind has found that it is not until about \_\_\_\_\_\_ years of age that children understand that another person's actions depend on that person's beliefs (which may be false) rather than on the reality of the situation. Select one: A. two to three B. four to five C. six to seven D. eight to nine
b. CORRECT By four to five years of age, children understand that a person’s beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.
Fathers who have a child who has received a diagnosis of ADHD:
Select one:
A. tend to rate the child’s behaviors as less problematic than mothers do.
B. tend to rate the behaviors of their son (but not daughter) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do.
C. tend to rate the behaviors of their daughter (but not son) with ADHD as less problematic than mothers do.
D. tend to rate the child’s behaviors as more problematic than mothers do.
a. CORRECT The limited research on this issue suggests that fathers of children with ADHD rate the behaviors of their children as less problematic.
Dr. Aimee A. is in private practice and, based on her experience and the experience of her colleagues, she has concluded that clients with symptoms of Malingering are at high risk for suing their therapists for malpractice. As a result, Dr. A. has decided to refer clients who exhibit signs of Malingering during the first therapy session to another therapist she knows is willing to work with them. Dr. A’s practice is:
Select one:
A. unethical.
B. ethical only if she makes her policy about decisions related to accepting clients clear at the outset of therapy.
C. ethical only if she makes the referral before a therapeutic relationship has been established with the client.
D. ethical.
d. CORRECT Psychologists in private practice do not have an ethical or legal duty to provide professional services to individuals they do not want to serve. Therefore, it would be acceptable to make the decision to refer a client who is exhibiting signs of Malingering after an initial therapy session. (Ethical guidelines require psychologists not to discriminate on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law, but litigious clients do not fall into this category.)
Dr. Eliana Escobar is appointed by the court to evaluate a defendant in a criminal case to determine his state of mind at the time he committed the crime. In this situation, Dr. Escobar:
Select one:
A. must obtain informed consent from the defendant prior to the evaluation.
B. must obtain informed consent from the defendant or the defendant’s attorney prior to the evaluation.
C. does not have to obtain an informed consent but must notify the defendant of the purpose of the evaluation.
D. does not have to provide information to the defendant unless requested to do so by the court or the defendant’s attorney.
c. CORRECT Although a psychologist is not required to obtain an informed consent from a defendant when an evaluation is court-ordered, he/she should inform the defendant of the purpose of the evaluation and of the limits on confidentiality before conducting it.
When treating an 8-year old child who doesn’t like going to bed at night because he’s afraid of the dark, which of the following interventions would probably be most successful?
Select one:
A. a social skills technique that relies on modeling with guided participation and behavioral rehearsal
B. a cognitive self-control technique that incorporates visual imagery and positive self-statements
C. a behavioral technique that includes flooding (in vivo exposure with response prevention)
D. a behavioral technique that includes systematic desensitization
In general, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn’t help with this question since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy’s age may have helped you eliminate at least two of the answers (c and d).
a. Incorrect Participant modeling has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and medical procedures.
b. CORRECT This technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney (Children and Behavior Therapy, New York, Aldine, 1984), who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visualizes a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as “I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark.” This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child’s progress).
c. Incorrect The use of flooding with children is controversial and is not considered a treatment-of-choice by most authorities.
d. Incorrect Systematic desensitization has generally not been found to be particularly effective with children (see Graziano and Mooney for a review of the literature).
To calculate the F-ratio for a one-way ANOVA: Select one: A. MSB is multiplied by MSW. B. MSB is divided by MSW. C. MSW is divided by MSB. D. MSW is subtracted from MSB.
As described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials, the F-ratio is calculated by dividing a measure of treatment plus error by a measure of error only in order to obtain an estimate of treatment effects.
b. CORRECT MSB (mean square between) is a measure of treatment plus error, while MSW (mean square within) is a measure of error only, and the F-ratio is calculated by dividing MSB by MSW.
A working mother who has been reassured by her husband and friends many times that she is a "great mother," states that she is a "terrible mother" after she forgets to wash her daughter's baseball uniform the night before an important game. Aaron Beck would consider the mother's conclusion to be an example of which of the following? Select one: A. personalization B. arbitrary inference C. selective abstraction D. dichotomous thinking
All of the responses are terms that Beck describes as cognitive distortions.
a. Incorrect Personalization occurs when a person attributes external events to him/herself without evidence supporting such a causal connection.
b. CORRECT Arbitrary inference involves drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence or in the face of contradictory evidence.
c. Incorrect Selective abstraction occurs when a person interprets a situation on the basis of a single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husband thinks his wife is having an affair with the neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back).
d. Incorrect Dichotomous thinking involves categorizing an experience in terms of one of two extremes (e.g., “If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don’t, everything will be terrible”).
The item difficulty index (p) represents which scale of measurement? Select one: A. ordinal B. interval C. nominal D. ratio
The item difficulty index (p) is calculated by dividing the number of individuals who answered the item correctly by the total number of individuals.
a. CORRECT To understand why the item difficulty index represents an ordinal scale, assume that items 1, 2, and 3 of a test are passed by 10, 20, and 30 percent of examinees, respectively, which will result in p values for these items of .10, .20, and .30. Although these values indicate that item 1 is more difficult than item 2 which, in turn, is more difficult than item 3, it is not possible to say that item 2 is twice as difficult as item 1 or that the difference in difficulty between items 1 and 2 is equal to the difference between items 2 and 3. Moreover, an item difficulty index of 0 would not mean that the item completely lacks difficulty (which doesn”t really make any sense).
In other words, p values represent an ordinal scale because they do not have the property of equal intervals or an absolute zero point.
As defined by Salvador Minuchin, triangulation is:
Select one:
A. a therapeutic technique that helps family members achieve insight.
B. a structural configuration that is desirable because it improves communication.
C. a chronic boundary problem that serves a conflict-diffusing function.
D. a chronic boundary disturbance involving “talking through” rather than “talking to.”
c. CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin’s use of this term, knowing that he focuses on boundary disturbances and emphasizes the role of stress in family dysfunction would have helped you pick this as the correct response. As noted in the Clinical Psychology chapter of the written study materials, Minuchin describes several types of rigid triads (triangles) that all serve to reduce conflict and stress - i.e., triangulation, detouring, and stable coalition.
The children of parents who are ______________ tend to be self-confident, socially responsible, and achievement-oriented.
Select one:
A. low in demandingness and low in warmth
B. low in demandingness and high in warmth
C. high in demandingness and low in warmth
D. high in demandingness and high in warmth
The research has linked authoritative parenting to the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
a. Incorrect This combination of demandingness and warmth describes rejecting-neglecting parents.
b. Incorrect This combination describes permissive parents.
c. Incorrect This combination is characteristic of authoritarian parents.
d. CORRECT Authoritative parents are high in demandingness and high in warmth (responsivity). The children of these parents tend to be better adjusted than children of rejecting-neglecting, permissive, or authoritarian parents.
With regard to terminating the life of an animal used in research, the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations:
Select one:
A. prohibit this practice except in the “most unusual circumstances.”
B. permit this practice only when the animal is experiencing pain as the result of the experimental procedures.
C. permit this practice only with the approval of the institutional review board.
D. permit this practice when it is done in a humane manner.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.09(g) of the APA’s Ethics Code states: “When it is appropriate that an animal’s life be terminated, psychologists proceed rapidly, with an effort to minimize pain and in accordance with accepted procedures.”
The PTA votes to remove certain controversial books from the school library. Even though these books had been rarely checked out by students prior to the vote, once the books have been removed, teachers notice that many of their students have purchased and are reading the books. The students' behavior is an example of: Select one: A. cognitive dissonance. B. psychological reactance. C. the boomerang effect. D. deindividuation.
In this situation, the students are doing the opposite of what the PTA members want them to do.
a. Incorrect Cognitive dissonance refers to a state of discomfort that results when a person has inconsistent attitudes and behaviors.
b. CORRECT Psychological reactance occurs when a person feels his or her personal freedom is being threatened and, as a result, does the opposite of what is required or requested.
c. Incorrect The boomerang effect refers specifically to attitude change and involves changing one’s attitude in a way that is opposite to that contained in a persuasive communication. Because the boomerang effect refers to attitude change (rather than behavior change), answer b is a better response.
d. Incorrect Deindividuation occurs when a person feels anonymous because of his participation in a group. It can cause a person to act in uncharacteristic ways.
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires which of the following?
Select one:
A. the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two of five designated situations
B. the duration of symptoms for at least three months
C. a history of at least one unexpected panic attack
D. recognition by the person that his/her fear and anxiety are excessive or unreasonable
Answer A is correct: The diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires the presence of marked fear or anxiety about at least two of the following situations: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone.
Which of the following best describes the difference between trauma-induced retrograde and anterograde amnesia?
Select one:
A. Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma.
B. Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring at the time of the trauma.
C. Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events that occurred in the distant past, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events that occurred just before the trauma.
D. Retrograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring after the trauma, while anterograde amnesia involves memory loss for events occurring before the trauma.
a. CORRECT This is a correct description of retrograde and anterograde amnesia: Retrograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur before the trauma, while anterograde amnesia is a loss of memory for events that occur subsequent to the trauma.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a type of cost analysis that entails comparing the costs and benefits of several treatment approaches using "quality-adjusted life years" as the measure of treatment benefits. Select one: A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Cost-utility analysis C. Cost-minimization analysis D. Cost-feasibility analysis
b. CORRECT When conducting a cost-utility analysis (CUA), measures of duration and quality of life for each intervention are combined and the result is compared to the monetary costs associated with the intervention. Quality-adjusted life years is a commonly used combined measure.
When a woman experiences chronic stress and anxiety during her pregnancy, there is a greater risk for all of the following except:
Select one:
A. premature birth of the infant.
B. a greater number of delivery complications.
C. an infant with lower-than-normal levels of activity.
D. an infant with more feeding and sleep problems than normal.
c. CORRECT High levels of maternal stress during pregnancy is associated with prematurity, abortion, delivery complications, infants who are hyperactive and irritable, and infants who have feeding and sleep problems.
A 67-year-old accountant exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions along with a depressed mood. The presence of which of the following suggests that his symptoms are due to “pseudodementia” (depression) rather than mild Neurocognitive Disorder?
Select one:
A. The onset of his symptoms was insidious.
B. The man tends to exaggerate his cognitive problems.
C. The man’s symptoms worsen over the course of the day.
D. The man exhibits greater impairment in declarative memory than procedural memory.
Answer B is correct: Depression is often difficult to differentiate from mild Neurocognitive Disorder when the depression includes prominent cognitive symptoms. However there are some distinguishing characteristics. For example, people with depression are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with mild Neurocognitive Disorder are likely to minimize or deny them.
Answers A, C, and D: An insidious onset of symptoms and a worsening of symptoms in the evening are more characteristic of Neurocognitive Disorder. Also, people with depression tend to to exhibit greater impairment in procedural memory than declarative memory.
When a research study will cause participants pain, deception:
Select one:
A. is prohibited if the pain is physical but not if it is psychological in nature.
B. is prohibited whether the pain is physical or psychological in nature.
C. is acceptable only if no alternative methods for obtaining the data are available.
D. is acceptable only if it is justified by the study’s “prospective value.”
b. CORRECT This response is most consistent with Standard 8.07(b), which states, “Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.”
A psychology intern does not inform clients that he will be receiving supervision. This is:
Select one:
A. ethical and a good practice since knowledge of the supervisory relationship could undermine his authority in therapy.
B. ethical as long as he disguises the identity of the clients when discussing them with his supervisor.
C. ethical as long as the client is aware that the psychologist is an intern.
D. unethical.
d. CORRECT Standard 10.01(c)states: “When the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor.”
A test developer would use Lord’s chi-square in order to:
Select one:
A. compare the standard error of measurement for two different tests or test items.
B. predict the number of people who are likely to answer a test item correctly.
C. determine whether factors in a factor analysis are orthogonal or oblique.
D. evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test.
d. CORRECT In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF) is another name for item bias and is occurring when one group responds differently to an item than another group even though both groups have similar levels of the latent trait (attribute) measured by the test. Several statistical techniques are used to evaluate DIF. Lord’s chi-square is one of these techniques.
Your client is Angie A. who has been seeing you for a long-standing gambling problem. She is not responding to the treatment you have been providing and you decide to consult with a colleague who has extensive experience working with clients who have a gambling addiction. Before doing so:
Select one:
A. you must obtain consent from Angie.
B. you must obtain consent from Angie unless this is an emergency situation.
C. you must obtain consent from Angie unless you will be able to disguise her identity when talking to the consultant.
D. you do not need to obtain consent from Angie as long as you discuss only information relevant to the purpose of the consultation with the consultant.
c. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. For example, Standard 4.06 states that, when consulting with a colleague, “psychologists do not disclose confidential information that could reasonably lead to the identification of a client/patient … unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person … or the disclosure cannot be avoided.”
When working in military settings, a clinical psychologist should keep in mind that:
Select one:
A. clients should be informed of potential limits to confidentiality at the outset of the delivery of services.
B. confidential client information should not be revealed to military personnel without the client’s consent except in the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. client confidentiality should always be treated in the same way that it would be treated in other settings.
D. legal and ethical requirements related to confidentiality are suspended as required by military rules and policies.
a. CORRECT Client confidentiality is more limited in military settings than it is in other settings, and clients should be informed of these limits during the informed consent process.
A "cover story" that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study they are participating in is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following? Select one: A. Hawthorne effect B. Rosenthal effect C. demand characteristics D. differential attrition
a. Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance.
b. Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher”s expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance.
c. CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.
d. Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study’s results.
A researcher is studying the ability of college students to remember lists of related word pairs (e.g., dog-cat, chair-table). Prior to studying the to-be-remembered list of word pairs, the experimental group is presented with a list of opposite word pairs such as tall-short, while the control group completes multiplication problems. What results should the researcher expect when the two groups are subsequently asked to recall the word pairs?
Select one:
A. Due to retroactive interference, the control group will recall more word pairs.
B. Due to retroactive interference, the experimental group will recall more word pairs.
C. Due to proactive interference, the experimental group will recall fewer word pairs.
D. Due to proactive interference, the control group will recall fewer word pairs.
c. CORRECT For the experimental group, the two tasks are similar, and the first list of word pairs interferes with the ability to learn or recall the second list. This is referred to as proactive interference. For the control group, the two tasks are dissimilar, and there is less interference. Consequently, the control group will remember more words than the experimental group.
This question describes a standard proactive interference study. During the first phase, the experimental group is presented with a list of word pairs (e.g., tall-short) and the control group engages in an unrelated arithmetic task. During the second phase, the experimental and control groups both study the to-be-remembered word pairs (e.g., dog-cat). During the third phase, participants in both groups are asked to recall the word pairs.
To be consistent with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA), a school psychologist must keep in mind that:
Select one:
A. it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student’s parents before releasing any information from the student’s file to officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll.
B. student records, including identifying information, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities if needed in connection with the evaluation of federally sponsored educational programs.
C. parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children’s school records but also to challenge the contents of the records.
D. all of the above.
c. CORRECT This is a requirement of FERPA
In factor analysis, “rotating” the factors has which of the following effects?
Select one:
A. It changes the factor loadings for the variables and the eigenvalue for each factor.
B. It changes the factor loadings for the variables but does not change the eigenvalue for each factor.
C. It changes the eigenvalue for each factor but does not change the factor loadings for the variables.
D. It does not change the eigenvalue for each factor or the factor loadings for the variables.
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors.
a. CORRECT Rotation alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor (although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same). Knowing that an eigenvalue indicates the amount of variability accounted for by each factor may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question – i.e., when the factor loadings change, the eigenvalues will also change.
Recovery of cognitive ability following head trauma follows a predictable pattern in most patients. For example, with regard to disorientation, recovery usually occurs in which sequence?
Select one:
A. orientation to personal information, then to place, and finally to time
B. orientation to time and place followed by orientation to personal information
C. orientation to place, then to personal information, and finally to time
D. orientation to personal information, then to time, and finally to place
a. CORRECT Orientation to personal information is recovered first, followed by place and then time. Patients who continue to be disoriented to personal information rarely exhibit orientation to time or place.
Which of the following techniques would be useful for predicting status on a single dichotomous criterion using two or more predictors when the assumptions for a discriminant analysis are not met? Select one: A. canonical correlation B. path analysis C. logistic regression D. multiple regression
c. CORRECT Logistic regression is considered more flexible than discriminant analysis since it can be used when the data violate some of the assumptions of discriminant analysis (e.g., the assumptions of linearity, normality, and/or homogeneity of variances).
Following a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and the right (nondominant) hemisphere, a person is most likely to exhibit:
Select one:
A. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field.
B. paralysis on the left side of his body and global aphasia.
C. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual agnosia.
D. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual loss in his right visual field.
a. CORRECT Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the body as well as vision loss involving the left visual field.
b. Incorrect In most people, language is mediated by the left hemisphere so that damage to the right hemisphere would not cause aphasia (language disturbances).
As defined by Piaget, egocentrism during the preoperational stage of cognitive development is a manifestation of: Select one: A. primary circular reactions. B. transduction. C. horizontal decalage. D. centration.
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development. The preoperational stage extends from ages 3 to 6 years.
a. Incorrect Primary circular reactions are characteristic of babies between the ages of 1 and 4 months and involve the repetition of pleasurable actions.
b. Incorrect Transductive thinking is characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, as defined by Piaget, it refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick).
c. Incorrect Horizontal decalage refers to the inability to transfer one type of conservation to another (e.g., the conservation of substance to weight or volume).
d. CORRECT Knowing that Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.
A consultant is hired to help a teacher who has been working at an inner-city school for two years. The teacher feels she does not have the skills she needs to deal with ongoing race-related conflicts that she often encounters in her classroom. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. client-centered case consultation.
B. consultee-centered case consultation.
C. program-centered administrative consultation.
D. consultee-centered administrative consultation.
a. Incorrect In client-centered case consultation, there would be a particular student who would be the focus of the consultation.
b. CORRECT In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus in on the consultee’s skills, abilities, objectivity, etc.
c. Incorrect In program-centered administrative consultation, an existing program is the focus.
d. Incorrect In this type of consultation, the consultant helps administrators acquire the skills they need for future program development and implementation.
Dissociative Amnesia most often involves which of the following types of memory loss? Select one: A. localized and selective B. generalized and continuous C. systematized and selective D. continuous and global
Answer A is correct: According to the DSM-5, localized and selective amnesia for one or more events are the most common types of memory loss associated with Dissociative Amnesia.
In the Strange Situation, a child with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attachment stays close to his/her mother before they are separated but, when she returns following a separation, is angry and resistant and may push his/her mother away and is not easily comforted. Select one: A. disorganized/disoriented B. insecure/avoidant C. insecure/ambivalent D. insecure/distrustful
c. CORRECT As its name implies, the insecure/ambivalent pattern is characterized by ambivalence – e.g., a child with this pattern will both seek closeness to his/her parent and push the parent away. Note that this pattern is also referred to as insecure/resistant attachment.
