Exam 2 Anatomy Chap 10-14, 16-18 Flashcards by Priscilla Sabik

Does the A band decrease during the sliding filament mechanism?

No. It remains the same length throughout the muscle contraction.

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Receptors for acetylcholine are located on:

external surface of the sarcolemma

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What is the process during the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction?

calcium binds to troponin to remove the tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding site

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What are the characteristics that describe smooth muscle cells?

can stretch without losing their contractile function
may contract in response to nerve impulses, hormones or autorhythmic signals
non-striated
usually activated involuntary

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The arrangement from microscopic to gross level of a muscle

myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle

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The H band is comprised of

Myosin only

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What does not shorten when a muscle fiber contracts?

myofilaments

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What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum contain?

terminal cisterns

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In the neuromuscular junction, the motor end plate is part of the:

muscle cell

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A fascicle is:

a bundle of muscle fibers

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Myofibrils contain both __ and __ filaments

think & thick

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True or false. An isometric contraction is one which the length of the muscle doesn’t change.

True

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What characteristic refers to the ability of muscle tissue to repeatedly generate spontaneous action potentials, i.e. as seen in cardiac muscle fibers and some smooth muscle fibers?

Autorhymicity

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____ muscle tissue contracts only when stimulate by acetylcholine, while ___ muscle tissue can contract without extrinsic (outside) nervous or hormonal stimulation

Skeletal; cardiac

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What are the physiological properties of muscle tissue?

Excitability
Extensibility
Contractility

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Thin filaments are composed of:

actin plus the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin

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A motor neuron communicates with skeletal muscle fiber by releasing ___ into the synaptic cleft at the neuromuscular junction

Acetylcholine

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Which structure forms tunnels from the sarcolemma inward and allows for rapid communication of the action potential to parts of the muscle fiber?

transverse tubules

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Muscles with a high myoglobin content and a large number of capillaries are classified as:

slow oxidative

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Skeletal muscle fibers that would be used for walking or distance running are the:

fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

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Which of the following differentiates cardiac muscle tissue from skeletal muscle tissue?

autorhythmic
shorter in length
branching

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What would result from contraction of the skeletal muscle?

Aid the return of blood especially from lower limbs to the heart
Produce body movement
Produce heat
Stabilize body position

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What is a structural protein of the myofibril?

Titan

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The type of muscle fibers that have low myoglobin content, relatively few blood capillaries and few mitochondria, and appear white in color:

fast glycolytic fibers

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The type of muscle fibers associated with aerobic, endurance-type activities such as running a marathon are:

Slow oxidative (SO) fibers

Slow oxidative fibers (type I) function:

adapted for maintaining posture

Stimulation of one ___ muscle fibers causes contraction of many adjacent fibers, but stimulation of one ___ muscle fiber causes contraction of that fiber only.

visceral smooth / multi-unit smooth

True or false. Endurance training can cause gradual transformation of some fast glycolytic fibers to fast oxidative glycolytic fibers.

True

A neuromuscular bundle of skeletal muscles contains both __ and __ axons

sensory / motor

What are the characteristics of a transverse tubule?

- tube-shaped invaginations of the sarcolemma - filled with interstitial fluid - ensure that all the superficial and deep parts of the muscle fiber become excited almost simultaneously

The ___ surrounds each individual muscle fiber and distributes capillaries to the fibers.

Endomysium

The fascicles is a subunit of a skeletal muscle surrounded by ___

Perimysium

The muscle enthesis is the:

site of attachment to the bone

The outer connective tissue layer of a skeletal muscle is the ___ and it is comprised of ___

epimysium / dense irregular connective tissue

Characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue:

- moves the bones of the skeleton - striated - voluntary

Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue:

- found only in the heart - striated - involuntary - autorhythmicity

Characteristic of smooth muscle tissue:

- located in the walls of hollow internal structures such as B.V.'s, airways, most organs in the abdominopelvic cavity, and hair follicles - non-striated - involuntary - regulated by neurons in the PNS & hormones released by the endocrine system

What are the main functions of muscular tissue:

- producing body movements - stabilizing body positions - storing and moving substances within the body - producing heat

What are the properties of muscular tissue?

- electrical excitability (action potentials) - contractility - extensibility; stretch within limits - elasticity; return to its original shape

Surrounding each muscle fiber is a thin wrapping of mostly reticular fiber called ___

endomysium

Groups of muscle fibers form bundles wrapped in a thicker layer of connective tissue called ___

muscle fascicles

The attachment of a muscle's tendon to the stationary bone is called the:

origin

The attachment of a muscle's other tendon to the moveable bone is called the:

insertion

Motion occurs when the effort applied to the bone __ the load

exceeds

Only a relatively small effort is required to move a large loud over a small distance. What is this mechanism called?

mechanical advantage

A relatively large effort is required to move a small loud. What mechanism is this called?

mechanical disadvantage

Characteristics of first-class levers (EFL):

- fulcrum is between the effort and load - either mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage - Ex. seesaw, scissors

Characteristics of second-class levers (ELF):

- load is between the effort and fulcrum - mechanical advantage - Ex. standing up on your toes

Characteristics of third class levers (FEL):

- effort is between the fulcrum and load - mechanical disadvantage - most common levers in the body - Ex. flexing the forearm at the elbow, the contraction of the biceps brachii

The tissue surrounding an entire muscle is known as

epimysium

The tissue that surrounds a muscle cell (myofiber) is known as

endomysium

Muscle fibers are bundled into groups known as

fascicles

Bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) are wrapped by a tissue known as

perimysium

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has conductivity. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

Muscles have local electrical charges that are capable of moving along the muscle fiber.

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has extensibility. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

Muscles can stretch when needed.

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has excitability. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

Muscles contract when stimulated.

Which of the following groups are considered to be parts of the series-elastic components of muscle? A. actin and myosin B. ligaments and tendons C. thick and thin filaments D. endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons

endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons

Which of the following best describes the function of the series-elastic component of muscle? A. These components help the muscle contract. B. The components help maintain muscle tone. C. These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic. D. These assist the thick and thin filaments to contract.

These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic.

What part of a muscle is the muscle fiber? A. actin and myosin component B. series-elastic component C. muscle cell itself D. nuclei and the mitochondria

muscle cell itself

The outer membrane of the muscle fiber is known as the

sarcolemma

The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber is known as the

sarcoplasm

The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber contains a molecule to distribute oxygen within the cell. This molecule is known as

myoglobin

The molecule within the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber that supplies quick energy for contraction is

glycogen

The myofilaments within the muscle fiber are composed of three integral items. Which of the following lists the components correctly?

myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament

Thick filaments within the myofibril are composed of

myosin

Thin filaments within the myofibril are composed primarily of

actin

The elastic filaments within a myofibril are composed of molecules known as

titin

The elastic filaments within a myofibril are attached to and wound around, which of the following? A. myosin B. troponin C. actin D. sarcolemma

myosin

In the myofibril, ATP is used for:

- muscle tone - muscle contraction - muscle relaxation

Which of the following tissues has the greatest ability to repair itself?

smooth muscle

Of the following muscles types, which one has long, cylindrical-shaped cells?

skeletal muscle

Of the following muscle types, which one has only one nucleus?

smooth muscle

Of the following muscle types, which one does NOT have striations?

smooth muscle

Of the following muscle types, which one is usually voluntary?

skeletal muscle

Objects that move through organs that are surrounded by smooth muscle are often moved by means of

peristalsis

Of the following muscle types, which one is found in the middle layer of the aorta?

smooth muscle

The "all-or-none" concept of skeletal muscle contraction means that

muscle fibers contract completely

Which of the following best describes the use of muscle tone in the body? A. It keeps heart muscle activated and functional. B. It keeps smooth muscles in a ready state. C. It prevents fatigue. D. It keeps our backs straight and our heads up.

It keeps our backs straight and our heads up

Action potential frequency is best described as:

The number of action potentials produced per unit of time.

Triads in skeletal muscle consist:

two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule

When acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, what happens to the choline?

It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine.

The recovery stroke in muscle contraction involves:

return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases

What is one of the primary functions of muscle tissue?

heat production

The ability of a muscle to be stimulated is called

excitability

Which of the following muscles is involuntary and is the most widely found throughout the body?

smooth

What muscle type contains intercalated discs and branching fibers?

cardiac

What muscle type contains peripherally located, multiple nuclei in its cells?

skeletal

Function of the Z line:

an attachment point for actin molecules

Function of the I band:

a band where only actin molecules are found

Function of H band:

a band where only myosin molecules are found

Which of the following is the A band within a myofibril? A. actin myofilaments in profile B. myosin myofilaments in profile C. Z disks in profile D. gaps between the actin and myosin myofilaments

myosin myofilaments in profile

What is the unit in a myofibril from Z line to Z line called?

sarcomere

What best describes a muscle motor unit?

one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve

On the surface of the sarcolemma, the voltage may shift up and down rapidly. This change in electrical potential caused by shifts in ions across the membrane is known as a(n)

action potential

During an action potential, calcium is released into the sarcoplasm, near the actin and myosin molecules. Which of the following is the best explanation of what the calcium does?

The calcium removes the tropomyosin block.

When the myosin head (of the thick filament) flexes into a bend, while releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate, pulling the thin filament along with it, this is called the

power stroke

When the thick and the thin filaments pull together, what happens to the sarcomere?

The sarcomere gets shorter

The tissues of cardiac muscle have unique structures known as

intercalated discs

Function of Intercalated discs:

passing electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells

What is unique about cardiac muscle tissue?

The cells have large mitochondria

Which of the following is TRUE of cardiac tissue? A. It contains only small amounts of myoglobin and glycogen. B. It has few nerve endings within the tissue. C. The fibers are not arranged in bundles. D. It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic

It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic

What proteins attaches Z discs to myosin myofilaments?

titin

The functional connection between a nerve fiber and a muscle fiber is called a(an)

Synapse

When the neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, what molecule diffuses across the gap between them?

acetylcholine

Once a signal molecule has left the neuron and binds to a receptor molecule on the surface of the muscle fiber, a sodium channel opens, allowing entry of sodium into the muscle fiber. Which substance is then released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

calcium

Muscle fibers and neurons are called electrically excitable cells because

their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation

Movement of which protein causes exposure of the active sites on the actin molecule?

tropomyosin

What type of molecule is acetylcholine?

a neurotransmitter

Binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on muscle cells causes

opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel

What kind of molecule is ACh?

protein

In the muscle fiber, what is the function of acetylcholinesterase?

It deactivates acetylcholine

What is the voltage of the resting potential of the sarcolemma?

-70 mv

Which of the following is a molecule that binds to a receptor?

acetylcholine

Which of the following is true of an isometric muscle contraction? A. The length of the muscle increases during the contraction. B. responsible for rapid movements of the extremities C. divided into concentric and eccentric D. The amount of tension increases during the contraction.

The amount of tension increases during the contraction.

Eccentric muscle contractions occur when A. a person slowly lowers a heavy weight B. the length of the muscle does not change C. a person rapidly raises a lighter weight D. the length of the muscle decreases

a person slowly lowers a heavy weight

The sum of active and passive tension is called

total tension

Active tension in a muscle is defined as

the tension applied to a load when the muscle contracts

Which of the following types of muscle fatigue represents depletion of ATP? A. psychological B. synaptic C. muscular D. physiological

muscular

Which of the following types of fatigue is caused by the release of more acetylcholine than can be produced to replace it? A. muscular B. psychological C. synaptic D. physiological

synaptic

What energy storages source is most commonly used during the first 10 seconds of exercise?

creatine phosphate

During anaerobic respiration, what is the net amount of ATP produced?

2 ATP

Which of the following represents the amount of oxygen that is necessary for the body to recover from anaerobic respiration? A. creatine phosphate utilization period B. oxygen overload C. oxygen debt D. aerobic respiration

oxygen debt

All of the following are true about fast-twitch fibers except A. high amount of myoglobin B. rapid contraction C. break down ATP rapidly D. fewer mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers

high amount of myoglobin

What is the difference between fast and slow-twitch fibers in the body?

Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue.

A person with an arm immobilized in a cast for 6 weeks will

develop muscular atrophy.

Which of the following effects of exercise elevate the body temperature? A. elevated metabolism from the oxygen debt B. vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin C. skeletal muscle contractions D. all of the above

all of the above

True or false. The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle.

True

What is most common neurotransmitters in smooth muscle?

acetylcholine and norepinephrine

All of the following are properties of cardiac muscle cells except: A. intercalated discs B. involuntary C. branching fibers D. shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles.

shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles.

A type of muscle that extends a joint is known as a(n)

extensor

When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed its

origin

When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its

insertion

When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction. Such a muscle is called a(an)

antagonist

For the following muscle shapes, which one is thick and tapered like the biceps brachii muscle? A. fusiform B. parallel C. Convergent D. pennate

fusiform

For the following muscle shapes, which one is fan shaped like the chest muscles?

convergent/triangular

When a muscle contracts, there may be another muscle that contracts along with it. Which of the following terms describes that type of muscle?

synergist

Which muscle encircles the outer border of the orbits?

orbicularis oculi

Of the following muscles of the head, which one aids in chewing?

masseter

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the side of the head?

temporalis

Of the following muscles of the head, which one wraps around the mouth?

orbicularis oris

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the nose?

nasalis

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is over the temporal bone?

temporalis

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is in the back of the head?

occipitalis

Which of the following muscles is (are) attached to the tongue? A. genioglossus B. hypoglossus C. styloglossus D. all of the above

all of the above

Which muscle of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side?

sternocleidomastoid

Which muscle of the neck flexes the neck laterally?

scalenes

Of the following back muscles , which is the largest?

trapezius

Which of the following muscles of the back has its origin on the occipital bone?

trapezius

Which muscle of the back adducts, and rotates the arm laterally?

infraspinatus

Which muscle of the back has its insertion on the humerus?

latissimus dorsi

Which muscle of the lower back inserts on the humerus and helps to move the arm?

latissimus dorsi

Which muscle is the major muscle for respiration? And it separates the abdominal and thoracic cavity.

diaphragm

Which is the deepest abdominal muscle?

transversus abdominis

Which muscle of the arm inserts at the mid-humerus?

deltoid

Which muscle of the arm moves the arms up, as in asking a question in class?

deltoid

Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm laterally?

supinator

Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one flexes and abducts the wrist?

flexor carpi radialis

Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one has its origin on the mid-humerus and its insertion on the coronoid process of the ulna? It flexes the forearm at the elbow.

brachialis

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one crosses over the anterior portion of the thigh from lateral to medial?

sartorius

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?

biceps femoris

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the anterior midline?

rectus femoris

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the medial side of the thigh and pulls the leg inward?

adductor magnus

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is a narrow band that is on the medial side and moves from the pubis to the tibia?

gracilis

Of the following muscles of the thigh which one has its origin on the ilium, sacrum and coccyx and its insertion on the posterior surface of the femur?

gluteus maximus

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one inserts on the head of the fibula?

adductor magnus

Of the following muscles of the thigh which one is on the medial side of the anterior thigh?

vastus medialis

Which muscle would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?

biceps femoris

Which muscle would be considered an antagonist to the gluteus maximus?

rectus femoris

Of the following muscles of the lower leg, which one is on the anterior side?

tibialis anterior

Which muscles of the leg inserts on the calcaneus?

gastrocnemius

Of the following muscles of the leg, which one attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon?

soleus

Of the following muscles, which one flexes the toes?

flexor digitorum longus

There are _____ pairs of spinal nerves.

The deep groove on the ventral surface that extends the length of the spinal cord is the

anterior median fissure

Which spinal nerves comprise the cauda equina?

lumbar, sacral and coccygeal

What two grooves extend the length of the spinal cord and partially divide it into right and left halves?

anterior median fissure and posterior median sulcus

The fibrous strand or terminal filum that anchors the inferior end of the spinal cord to the coccyx is a continuation of the of which mater

pia mater

space superficial to the meninges in the spinal cord area in which an anesthetic is injected to block pain impulses from the pelvic area

epidural space

What are the four regions into which the spinal cord is divided?

- lumbar - sacral - thoracic

The spinal cord is contiguous superiorally with the

medulla oblongata

The nerves that supply the upper limbs enter or exit from this area of the spinal cord.

cervical enlargement

The nerves that supply the lower limbs enter or exit from this area of the spinal cord.

lumbar enlargement

The inferior end of the spinal cord is anchored to the coccyx by the

filum terminale

The white matter in each half of the spinal cord is organized into three columns. What are the three columns?

ventral column lateral column dorsal column

The gray matter on either side of the spinal cord is subdivided into anterior, lateral and posterior ___

horns

The lateral horns of the gray matter in the thoracic region of the spinal cord contain the cell bodies of

sympathetic motor neurons.

The gray matter on the right and left sides of the spinal cord is connected by the

gray commissure.

Which of the following terms is synonymous with columns as in columns of white matter in the spinal cord?

funiculi

Each column in the white matter of the spinal cord consists of one or more

tracts

The white matter in each half of the spinal cord is arranged in

three columns - ventral, lateral and dorsal.

Ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

columns

What is correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?

8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal

Where are fibers of adjacent spinal nerves sorted and recombined so that fibers specific to a body part reach that body part in the same nerve?

plexus

The brachial plexus supplies nerves that function to contract:

muscles of the arm and forearm

The sciatic nerves arise from which plexuses?

lumbosacral

After severely breaking his left humerus in an accident, a man lost sensation on the posterior aspect of the limb and was unable to extend his forearm, wrist, or fingers. What nerve was damaged?

radial

After severely injuring her hip in an accident, a woman was unable to extend her right leg. What nerve was damaged?

femoral

Which of the following nerves arises from the brachial plexus and innervates all of the extensor muscles of the upper limb?

radial nerve

Compression of what nerve arising from the brachial plexus results in numbness, tingling, and pain in the fingers, a condition called carpal tunnel syndrome?

median nerve

Nerve fibers in the phrenic nerves that innervate the diaphragm arise primarily from what plexuses?

cervical

Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?

medulla oblongata

What are the enlargements on the medulla oblongata that are involved in conscious skeletal muscle control?

pyramids

Which of the following serves as a motor center that is involved in maintaining muscle tone and coordinating movements? A. inferior olivary nucleus B. red nucleus C. substantia nigra D. suprachaismatic nucleus

substantia nigra

Another term for "midbrain" is

mesencephalon

The _________ is the most-specific part of the midbrain that is an integral part of the auditory pathway.

inferior colliculi

The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary is the

infundibulum

Which lobes receive and interpret sensory input for smell and / or hearing?

frontal and temporal

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

longitudinal fissure.

The _______ comprises the bulk of the mature adult brain.

cerebrum

The posterior boundary of the frontal lobe is the

central sulcus.

What type of nuclei in the cerebrum are involved in control of motor functions?

basal nuclei

Which of the following is or are located within the white matter of the cerebrum?

basal nuclei

What lobe of the cerebrum is located deep within the lateral sulcus?

insula

A ridge or fold on the surface of the cerebrum is called a

gyrus

Gyri on the cerebral surface _______ the surface area of the cortex.

increase

Venous blood flows through the _______, located in some areas of the meninges surrounding the brain.

dural venous sinuses

Dural sinuses contain

venous blood.

What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the overlying cortex?

tentorium cerebelli

What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the two cerebellular hemispheres?

falx cerebelli

The cluster of specialized capillaries at which cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into a ventricle is the

choroids plexus.

The cerebrospinal fluid circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the

subarachnoid space.

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates from the third ventricle to the fourth through the

cerebral aqueduct.

From superficial to deep, the three layers of the meninges are

dura mater - arachnoid mater - pia mater

Which space(s) does the brain get filled with cerebralspinal fluid?

- subarachnoid space - ventricles - spinal cord - central canal of spinal cord

Lipid-soluble substances move through the blood-brain barrier by A. active transport. B. mediated transport. C. diffusion

diffusion

The central nervous system develops from the embryonic

forebrain

The embryonic forebrain gives rise to the

cerebrum and diencephalon

The bulk of the adult human brain develops from which of the following secondary vesicles during embryonic development?

telencephalon

There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves.

Sensory impulses from taste receptors are transmitted to the brain on which of the following cranial nerves?

Facial nerve (VIII), Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), Vagus nerve (X)

The anesthetic a dentist injects before drilling to clean and repair a cavity is done to block sensory impulses from a branch of what cranial nerve?

trigeminal (contains alveolar nerves which transmit tooth pain)

Autonomic fibers of the _______ nerve carry motor impulses to the heart and many smooth muscles and glands in the viscera of the thorax and abdomen.

Vagus

The nerve fibers carrying sensory information through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone are associated which the _______ nerve.

olfactory

How many of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves enter or exit the central nervous system through the brainstem?

Which cranial nerve innervates four of the six muscles that move the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris muscle that raises the superior eyelid?

oculomotor

A drooping upper eyelid is a symptom indicative of possible damage to what cranial nerve?

oculomotor

Which cranial nerves transmit sensory impulses pertaining to taste to the brainstem?

facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus

The only cranial nerve involved in sensory cutaneous innervation is the

glossopharyngeal

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles involved in chewing?

vagus

What cranial nerve causes movements of the tongue involved in speaking, manipulating food and swallowing?

hypoglossal

The jugular foramen provides a route of passage through the cranium for which of the following cranial nerves?

glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory

Which of these somatic receptors is involved in detecting heavy pressure?

pacinian corpuscles

Ascending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

columns

Sensory information on its way from your hand to the cerebral cortex would pass through the following structures in what sequence? 1. medulla oblongata 2. midbrain 3. pons 4. spinal cord 5. thalamus

spinal cord -> medulla oblongata -> pons -> midbrain -> thalamus

The sensory areas for vision are located in what lobes

occipital lobes

The sensations of temperature, touch, pressure and pain occur in the

postcentral gyrus of each parietal lobe

Somatic sensory signals are routed to which of the following areas? A. Auditory B. Olfactory C. Taste D. Visual

Visual

Descending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

columns

The primary motor area is located in the __________ gyrus of each __________ lobe.

precentral; frontal

What happens to the muscle fibers during isotonic contraction?

muscle fibers are contracting to shorten the muscle against the load

What happens to the muscle fibers during isometric contraction?

the number of fibers contracting and generating a force are equal to opposite force of the load, so the muscle does not change length

The extracellular matrix liquid portion in blood is called

blood plasma

True or false. Blood is more dense and more viscous than water.

True

What is the average alkaline pH range?

7.35 - 7.45

Where are blood plasma proteins produced?

In the liver by hepatocytes (liver cells)

What is the function of a albumin?

- osmotic pressure - blood viscosity - transport hormones - regulate blood pH

What is the function of globulins?

- attack viruses - transport iron

What is the function of fibrinogens?

blood clotting

Lymphoid stem cells give rise to:

- lymphocytes - natural killer cells

Myeloid stem cells give rise to:

- RBC's - platelets - monocytes - neutrophils - eosinophils - basophils - mast cells

Red blood cells have oxygen-carrying proteins called

hemoglobin

When hemoglobin releases nitric oxide (NO), what happens to the blood vessel?

Vasodilation - increase in the diameter

What is the production of RBC's called?

Erythropoiesis

Which white blood cells are categorized as granular leukocytes?

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

Which white blood cells are categorized as agranular leukocytes?

lymphocytes and monocytes

What hormone aids in producing platelets?

thrombopoietin

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber(s) receive blood from outside the heart?

- right atrium (deoxygenated) - Left atrium (oxygenated)

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber directs blood to the lungs?

right ventricle

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber is enclosed by a thick layer of heart muscle so that it can pump blood out of the body?

left ventricle

What is the purpose of valves in the heart?

they facilitate the movement of blood through the heart

The heart valves are “tethered” or held down by a structure known as the?

Chordae Tendineae

Describe the systemic circuit of circulation:

blood moves from the left ventricle to the body (excluding the lungs)

The heart actually pumps blood to itself (to the myocardium). What is the name of the blood vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood?

coronary vessels

What is is true of the SA node?

- it stands for Sino artial - It is the peacemaker of the heart

What is the sequence of the cardiac conduction pathway?

SA node, atria, AV node, ventricles

True or false. There are two phases to the heart beat. One phase relates to when the heart is contracting, the other phase refers to when the heart is relaxed. Diastole refers to the phase when the heart is contracting.

False; diastole refers to the phase that is relaxing. Systole refers to the phase that is contracting.

The heart is position with the apex directed ___ and __ to the ___.

inferiorly; anteriorly; left

What causes the heart valves to open?

increased pressure within the preceding chamber

What is the flow of deoxygenated blood through the heart?

superior and inferior vena cava; right atrium; tricuspid valve; right ventricle, pulmonary artery

The right and left coronary arteries branch from which blood vessels

ascending aorta

What is the function of autorhythmic cells?

generate cardiac action potentials

During atrial systole the atrioventricular valves are ___, and the semilunar valves are ___.

open; closed

S1, the first heart sound, is the result of what cardiac event?

closure of the atrioventricular valve

The first heart sound (S1), described as a lubb sound, is caused by blood turbulence associated with the closure of which valves?

right (tricuspid) and left (bicuspid) atrioventricular valves

Which part of the heart is the most inferior part of the heart and sits slightly to the patient’s left?

Apex

During each cardiac style, there are four heart sounds. In a normal heart only the first “lubb” and second “dump” heart sounds (S1 and S2) are loud enough to be heard through a stethoscope. What causes these heart sounds?

the closing of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

A person with a heart valve that leaks would most likely have a condition known as ___.

heart murmur

AV valves close during which periods?

ventricular systole

What creates a delay for the atria to empty their blood into the ventricles?

atrioventricular node

What can lead to blood regurgitating (flowing back) into the atria when the ventricles contract?

- Damaged to the chordae tendineae - Damaged to the atrioventricular valves

The ___ transports oxygen ___ blood from the heart to the lungs

pulmonary trunk; poor

The ____ transports oxygen ___ blood from the left lung to the heart

pulmonary veins; rich

The ___ received oxygen-poor blood from the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus

right atrium

Blood ejected by the left ventricle flows through the ___ then into the aorta and then through the body

aortic semilunar valve

The base of the heart is formed primarily by the left atrium and also includes portions of the right atrium and the ___ sinus

Coronary

The mechanism of closing a semilunar valve is

a decrease in ventricular pressure

Contained within the intercalated discs are ___ which hold the cardiac fibers together.

Desmosomes

An incompetent bicuspid valve may allow blood to regurgitate (backflow) into the __________?

left atrium

The ___ receives oxygen rich blood from the pulmonary veins.

left atrium

Branching off the ascending aorta, the ____ carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium of the heart.

coronary arteries

A remnant of fetal circulation, the ___ was originally designed to bypass the lungs and deliver blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

ligamentum arteriosum

Blockage of the circumflex branch of the coronary arteries prevents oxygenated blood flow to the walls of the

left ventricle and left atrium

Which component of the conduction system provides the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles?

atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)

The left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to all tissues except

pulmonary alveoli of the lungs

Semilunar valves close when ventricular pressure is (high or low)

low

What type of blood occurs in pulmonary circulation?

- both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood - Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs - Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood back to the heart to be prepared to pump it to the rest of the body

During the ventricular relaxation period, describe the orientation of the heart valves:

- atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves closed (During ventricular relaxation or diastole, the AV valves are open to allow blood to fill the ventricles. The SL valves will open during ventricular contraction to allow the ejection of blood)

The anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery supplies oxygenated blood to the walls of both

- Ventricles - Coronary arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscle tissue.

The majority of pacemaker cells in the heart occur in the

sinoatrial node

During aortic insufficiency there is a backflow of blood from the aorta into the

left ventricle

Blood that enters the heart via the superior and inferior venae cavae enters the atrium, flows through the ____________________ valve, enters the ventricle, then passes the ____________________ valve.

tricuspid valve; pulmonary valve

The membrane that surrounds the heart is called the __________ and it functions to ____________.

pericardium; protect the heart

After blood from the myocardium enters the coronary veins and coronary sinus, it enters the

right atrium

The left ventricle can be distinguished from other chambers by the

Thickest myocardium

Which of the layer of the heart is responsible for the pumping action of the heart?

myocardium (middle layer of the heart)

The coronary sinus empties into the right atrium and is located on the

posterior surface of the heart

The innate heart rate is 100 bpm, however the ___ division of the autonomic nervous system slows the SA node down to 75 bpm.

Parasympathetic

Branching off the ascending aorta, the __ carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium of the heart.

coronary arteries

This valve opens during an increase in ventricular pressure and routes blood to the lungs.

pulmonary semilunar valve

Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ___

Ventricle

The receiving chambers of the heart are the ___

atria

How many flaps are in each semilunar valve?

Heart valves are designed to open and allow a one directional flow of blood and then close to prevent __

back flow

Which of the following time spans represents the normal lifespan for platelets?

5-9 days

Identify the element found in the hemoglobin molecule.

Iron

Agglutination is

the clumping of red blood cells

Platelets arise from _________ stem cells.

Myeloid

Myeloid stem cells complete development in the

red bone marrow

____ is fluid that surrounds body cells.

interstitial fluid

In physiology lab, a group of students lysed (opened up) RBCs to analyze the contents. Which protein should they expect to find?

Hemoglobin

An individual with type A blood has

anti-B antibodies

An individual with red blood cells that display the A antigen has

type A blood

An individual with type O blood can receive blood transfusions of which type(s)?

type O

In a healthy individual, less than 1% of all white blood cells are

basophils; basophils help with inflammation

A high white blood cell count of ________ may indicate a bacterial infection.

Neutrophils; contain defenses, proteins tat exhibit a broad range of antibiotic activity against bacteria and fungi

A high white blood cell count of ________ may indicate a fungal infection.

monocytes; often appear during chronic inflammation are indicative of various disease states including fungal infection, tuberculosis, and some leukemias

After platelets die, which organ removes them from circulation?

Spleen or liver

An individual with red blood cells that display neither of the A and B antigens has

type O

The gel-like mass that consist of fibrin threads, platelets, and any blood cells trapped by the fibrin in a blood vessel is a

blood clot

Anti-A antibodies will react with __ antigens

An individual with A antigens on their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma has

Type A

Monocytes will migrate into tissues where they enlarge and differentiate into

Macrophages

In centrifuged blood, the buffy coat consists of

white blood cells and platelets

An individual with no antigens on their red blood cells but who has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma has

type O blood

Which of the following disorders involves an inability to carry oxygen?

Anemia

Which of the following disorders involves cancer of white blood cells?

Leukemia

Which subtype of lymphocyte attacks viruses, fungi, and some bacteria?

T cells; attack infected body cells and tumor cells

Which are the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood?

pulmonary arteries

Blood leaves the liver by way of which vein?

Hepatic

The superior mesenteric vein empties into which vessel?

hepatic portal vein

What is the term for the union of the branches of two or more arteries?

Anastomosis

The internal and external iliac veins unite to form which of the following?

common iliac vein

The vertebral veins, external jugular veins, and internal ________ veins drain most blood from the head.

Jugular

Blood is supplied to the cardiac myocardium through which system?

coronary circulation

Arterioles branch to form which smaller vessels?

Capillaries

Compared to arteries of the same diameter, veins have __ walls than arteries

Thinner

The outermost layer of an artery or vein is called the tunica

adventitia (externa)

What gives arteries high compliance?

elastic fibers (Artery walls can stretch easily and expand without tearing in response to a small increase in pressure)

Describe the structure of arterioles.

- thin tunica intima - Small pores - Thin internal elastic membrane

The five basic types of blood vessels are arteries, arterioles, capillaries, __, and veins.

Venules

After blood from the myocardium enters the coronary veins and coronary sinus, it enters the ___

right atrium

The coronary sinus empties into the right atrium and is located on the

posterior surface of the heart

The branches of the thoracic aorta that supply blood to internal organs are called __ branches

Visceral

The dural venous sinuses are located between layers of what type of cranial tissue?

dura mater

Which vein drains the gallbladder?

Cystic

What is the term for a vein that carries blood from one capillary network to another?

portal vein

From where does the superior mesenteric vein drain blood into the hepatic portal?

- Intestine - Pancreas - Stomach

The abdominal aorta ends when it divides into the:

common iliac arteries

The portion of the aorta that emerges from the left ventricle is the ______ aorta.

Ascending

Which vessels returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium?

- superior vena cava - Coronary sinus - Inferior vena cava

When the pulmonary trunk splits, the right pulmonary __ carries blood to the pulmonary capillaries in the right lung.

Artery

What is the term for the part of the tunica interna that has openings to facilitate diffusion of materials to the tunica media?

internal elastic lamina

The __ mesenteric vein passes into the splenic vein and drains blood from portions of the large intestine.

Inferior

What forms the hepatic portal vein?

superior mesenteric and splenic vein

True or false. The pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary alveoli within the lungs and returns deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary alveoli (air sacs) to the left atrium.

FALSE; The pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, where it becomes oxygenated and returns to the left atrium as oxygenated blood

The portion of the aorta that descends inferior to the diaphragm is the _____ aorta.

Abdominal

From where does the hepatic portal vein receive blood?

digestive canal

Where do the pulmonary arteries of the lungs originate?

pulmonary trunk

The popliteal artery divides into the anterior and posterior __ arteries.

Tibial

The pulmonary trunk divides into what?

pulmonary arteries

Describe the structure of veins.

- thin walls - Little smooth muscle - Few elastic fibers

Which two veins open directly into the hepatic portal?

right/left gastric veins

Describe the order of vessels in the pulmonary circulation from lungs to heart.

alveoli, capillaries, venules, pulmonary veins, left atrium

The hepatic portal vein transports blood from the gastrointestinal organ capillaries and spleen capillaries to which organ?

Liver

The abdominal portion of the esophagus is drained by the right __ vein.

Gastric

What does pulmonary circulation do?

- carries deoxygenated blood to alveoli - Returns oxygenated blood from alveoli

The pulmonary trunk emerges from where?

right ventricle

How are veins and arteries structurally different?

- veins have larger lumen - Veins lack external/internal elastic membrane - Veins have thinner tunica intima and media

Most blood is drained from the head through the internal jugular veins, external jugular veins, and which vessel?

Vertebral veins

The innermost layer of blood vessels is composed of:

simple squamous epithelium

Which type of blood vessel is associate with thick elastic walls and high pressure?

Arteries

Which type of blood vessel is associated with gas exchange in the lungs and tissues?

Capillary

Which type of blood vessel is associated with valves and skeletal “muscle pump”?

Veins

Continuous capillaries have:

intercellular clefts - located in lungs

Fenestrated capillaries have:

many small pores - located in kidneys

Sinusoids have:

- unusually large fenestrations - incomplete or absent basement membrane - very large intercellular clefts - located in liver

Blood is combined from other veins and returns to the heart through the superior and inferior ___.

vena cava

Identify the three layers of a blood vessel from outermost to innermost?

tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

What are the functions of smooth muscle within the blood vessel wall?

- regulate blood flow - Regulate blood pressure - Limit loss of blood through a damaged vessel wall (vasospasm)

Which level of blood vessels play a key role in regulating blood flow and are therefore known as resistance vessels?

Arterioles

Which structures can be referred to as blood reservoirs as they contain a large percentage of the blood volume?

veins and venules

What 3 branches are a direct branch off the aortic arch?

- Left subclavian artery - Left common carotid artery - Brachiocephalic trunk

In anatomical position, the __ artery runs along the lateral side of your lower arm.

Radial

Capillaries found in the kidneys, choroid plexuses of the ventricles in the brain, and most endocrine glands are most likely to be which capillaries:

fenestrated capillaries

Which vessel is the first major branch of the arch of the aorta?

brachiocephalic trunk

Describe the sequence of the blood flow through the pulmonary circulation?

right ventricle -> pulmonary trunk -> pulmonary arteries -> lungs

What is the correct circulatory route that delivers blood throughout the body?

arteries -> arterioles ->capillaries -> venules -> veins

Trace the flow of venous blood draining from the small intestine back to the heart:

superior mesenteric vein -> hepatic portal vein -> hepatic veins -> inferior vena cava -> heart

The abdominal aorta splits first into right and left ___ arteries

common iliac

The __ artery runs down the posterior surface of the knee.

Popliteal

The internal iliac artery supplies the:

- pelvic organs - External genitals - Buttocks

The left subclavian vein receives blood directly from:

left external jugular vein

The artery that is commonly used to measure/take the blood pressure is, and it is classified as a(n) ___ artery.

brachial; muscular

A characteristic feature of many veins, that are not evident in arteries are:

cusp-like internal valves

The internal layer of a blood vessel is called the:

tunica intima or tunica interna

The middle layer of a blood vessel is called the:

tunica media

The artery family of blood vessels consists of:

elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and arterioles

The most common type of capillaries are the ___ capillaries that are characterized by plasma membranes that are separated by ____

continuous/intercellular clefts

Fenestrated capillaries are more permeable than continuous capillaries because their plasma membranes:

have intercellular clefts and small pores

Capillaries are the __ vessels of the circulatory system of vessels

Exchange

The heart is self-regulating pump consisting of four chambers - two receiving chambers called __ and two pumping chambers called ___

Atria / ventricles

The large vessels that carry blood from the right and left ventricles are the __ and __.

pulmonary trunk/aorta

The right pump, or right ventricle of the heart, pumps blood into a circulatory pathway called the ___

pulmonary circuit

Arteries called __ vessels, which means to take blood away from the heart, while veins are called __ vessels, which means to return blood to the heart.

Efferent/afferent

The principal molecules of exchange in capillaries of the pulmonary circuit are

oxygen and carbon dioxide

The first capillary network of the renal portal system is the

Glomerulus

Blood helps to maintain homeostasis by

transporting materials between the tissue fluid and the external environment

The average blood volume for an adult is about

5 liters

What percentage of body weight is blood?

Other than water, the most common component of plasma is

protein

The antibodies that circulate in the plasma are made by

B lymphocytes, which are part of the immune system

If you have some blood from which the formed elements have been removed, how can you tell if it is plasma or serum?

plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not

Plasma proteins listed in order from highest to lowest percent:

albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

The benefit of the biconcave shape of red blood cells is that it

decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin molecules, facilitating oxygen uptake

Blood cells all develop from a common stem cell in bone marrow, but early in development they split into separate lineages. Which three of these cells develop from the myeloblast lineage?

basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil

Blood test results for an adult male are returned and the total red blood cell count is 2,500,000 cells per mm3. This person

has an abnormally low total red blood cell count

As red blood cells get older, they

become more fragile

What would you suspect to find if someone has high blood erythropoietin levels?

blood oxygen deficiency

Which hormone stimulates red blood cell formation?

erythropoietin

Which condition would stimulate erythropoietin secretion?

low blood oxygen level

The lower the total amount of iron stored in the body,

the higher the absorption of ingested iron in the intestine.

In which choice are the formed elements arranged in order of increasing size? A. red blood cell, neutrophil, platelet B. platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil C. neutrophil, platelet, red blood cell D. platelet, neutrophil, red blood cell

platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil

In adults, red blood cells are made in one place, spend most of their lifespan in another, and most are finally destroyed in yet another place. list the locations in chronological order:

bone marrow; blood vessels; spleen

The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is

transferrin ("Ferric" and "ferrous" refer to iron)

Joe had to have both of his kidneys removed and is now kept alive only by dialysis machines that remove waste molecules from his blood and adjust electrolyte levels. Because Joe has no remaining kidney tissue, he may also need

erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production

The term "hematopoiesis" refers to

the process of blood cell formation

What is the role of the nitric oxide (NO) carried by hemoglobin?

NO relaxes blood vessels and decreases blood pressure

If someone has no megakaryocytes, he/she will

have a reduced ability to prevent blood loss

Once released from the bone marrow into the circulation, the average life span of a red blood cell is about

4 months

Leukocytes arranged in order from most common to least common:

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

One molecule of hemoglobin:

contains two alpha globin proteins and two beta globin proteins.

In a red blood cell, carbon dioxide is attached to the

amino acids of the Globin

Erythropoietin is produced by

kidneys

Red blood cells do not use any of the oxygen that they carry, because

they lack miochondria to use oxygen for aerobic respiration

A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks blood flow in a vessel

supplying part of a lung

What happens when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin?

a clot is formed

Removal of this substance from blood would prevent clotting.

calcium

A person's blood type is determined by

mixing the blood with different antibodies to see which ones cause the red blood cells to agglutinate

A person who is Rh negative might form anti-Rh antibodies if she

receives a transfusion of Rh positive blood

Agglutination, which occurs during transfusion reactions, is caused by binding between

RBC membrane antigens and plasma antibodies

A person with type O+ blood would

have Rh but not A or B antigens on his RBCs

Blood types are determined

genetically by glycoproteins and glycolipids on the RBC membrane

Type O is considered to be universal:

donor because it has neither antigen A nor antigen B on its RBCs

A dietary deficiency of iron could cause

a low red blood cell count

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%,

plasma volume would be 55% of total blood volume

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%, in which choice below are the components of blood correctly ranked in order of decreasing percent of total volume?

plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells

Which of these diseases involves a problem with the red blood cells?

sickle-cell anemia

A person with a vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency would probably also have

anemia

Which describes anemia?

a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

The buffy coat, a layer that appears when blood is centrifuged for determining the hematocrit, is made of

white blood cells and platelets

An abnormally high number of normal white blood cells is called

leukocytosis

Exam 2 Anatomy Chap 10-14, 16-18 Flashcards

(471 cards)