Exam 2 Chap. 10-13 Flashcards
(330 cards)
1
Q
Normal intestinal microbiota includes what 4 organisms?
A
- Enterobacter.
- Klebsiella.
- Proteus.
- E. coli.
2
Q
Zooplankton are ___.
A
Protozoa.
3
Q
In E. coli O157:H7, the O antigen is ___ and the H antigen is ___.
A
Lipopolysaccharide; flagella.
4
Q
What does PCR stand for?
A
Polymerase chain reaction.
5
Q
___ bacteria contain a string of magnetic crystals that align cells with ___.
A
Magnetotactic; Earth’s magnetism.
6
Q
What are 3 ways helminths enter the body?
A
- Poor sanitation/bare feet.
- Eaten with food.
- Insect bites.
7
Q
Early chemotrophs likely used what 2 options to produce energy?
A
- Anaerobic respiration - terminal electron acceptors abundant with CO2 or S.
- Fermentation - passed electrons to organic molecules like pyruvate.
8
Q
What are 2 examples of thermophilic extreme acidophiles?
A
- Thermoplasma.
- Picrophilus.
9
Q
___ (oomycetes) form masses of white threads on decaying material and secrete digestive enzymes onto a substrate.
A
Water molds.
10
Q
___ is used to make yogurt.
A
S. thermophilus.
11
Q
H2S production.
A
Detects H2S released as sulfur-containing amino acids are degraded.
12
Q
___ (cestodes) have flat, ribbon-shaped bodies.
A
Tapeworms.
13
Q
What is specialized transduction?
A
A phage transfers a specific/restricted set of genes to another bacterium.
14
Q
Diatoms incorporate ___ into cell walls.
A
Silicon dioxide.
15
Q
Nucleic acid probes and NAATs can ___.
A
Identify sequences unique to a species or group.
16
Q
What are examples of a silent viral genome or provirus?
A
Varicella zoster virus (VSV) and herpes simplex type 1 virus (HSV-1).
17
Q
___ are proteinaceous infectious agents composed only of proteins and no nucleic acids.
A
Prions.
18
Q
Snails are an intermediate host of fluke ___ (schistomiasis).
A
Schistosoma mansoni.
19
Q
Ribosomal genes are not commonly ___.
A
Horizontally transferred.
20
Q
What are 2 examples of nitrite oxidizers?
A
- Nitrobacter.
- Nitrococcus.
21
Q
Water mold play a part in what 2 food crop diseases?
A
- Mildew of grapes.
- Potato blight.
22
Q
Streptococcus pyogenes yields ___ colonies on blood agar.
A
β-hemolytic.
23
Q
What is a productive infection?
A
When new viral particles are formed.
24
Q
Virus genuses end in ___.
A
“-virus”.
25
Lichen are a good indicator of ___.
Air quality.
26
Cryptosporidium and Giardia are among the leading causes of ___ worldwide.
Diarrhea.
27
Trypanosoma brucei and Trypanosoma cruzi are types of ___.
Kinetoplastids.
28
S. Saprophyticus cause ___.
Urinary tract infections.
29
What are acute infection?
Bursts of virions are released from the infected host cell.
30
___ are viruses that infect bacteria.
Bacteriophages (phages).
31
___ and ___ inhabit the intestinal tract.
Clostridium; Enterobacteriaceae.
32
Loboscans and heteroloboscans both have ___ (flexible) body forms but are distantly related to one another.
Ameboid.
33
What are the two steps of the Chlamydia life cycle?
1. Starts inside cell as non-infectious bodies reproducing by binary fission.
2. Differentiate into infectious elementary bodies and released when the cell ruptures.
34
Mitosis is ___ reproduction while meiosis is ___ reproduction.
Asexual; sexual.
35
What does the following formula represent?
NO2 + .5O2 -> NO3
Nitrite oxidizers.
36
The species name of viruses is often ___.
The name of the disease they cause.
37
In the mycorrhizae association, fungi supply ___ from the breakdown of organic material in soil and plants supply fungi with ___.
Nitrogen/phosphorous; organic compounds.
38
A clear area forms if cells are susceptible to ___.
Antibiograms.
39
Lactic acid bacteria lack ___ so they can only ___.
Catalase; ferment.
40
Spirochetes use ___ contained within ___ to move in a corkscrew motion.
Endoflagella (axial filament); periplasm.
41
Yeasts are genetically engineered to produce molecules like ___ and ___.
Human insulin; hepatitis B vaccine.
42
Mechanical vectors transfer pathogens ___.
From one surface to another.
43
Flies are a type of ___ vector.
Mechanical.
44
Diplomonads typically have ___ and reproduce asexually.
Two nuclei.
45
What does FISH stand for?
Fluorescence in site hybridization.
46
Mimivirus carries about 1.2 million base pairs in its genome but ___.
Has no ribosomes.
47
Mosquitoes are a type of ___ vector.
Biological.
48
Obligate intracellular parasites cannot reproduce ___.
Outside of the cell.
49
Pyrolobus fumarii is from ___ and grows between ___.
HINT: pyro=hot.
"Black Smoker"; 90-113C.
50
___ is the percentage of G-C base pairs in DNA.
G + C content.
51
Clostridium, Bacillus, Azotobacter, Mytobacteria, and Streptomyces have structures to help them survive ___/
Dry periods.
52
Cutaneous mycoses are caused by skin-invading molds called ___.
Dermatophytes.
53
What is a bloom.
A large group of cyanobacteria.
54
Cyanobacteria use ___ to absorb wavelengths that chlorophyll cannot.
Phycobiliproteins.
55
Methanothermus grows optimally at ___ and as high as ___.
84C; 97C.
56
What are the 5 steps of MALDI-TOF?
1. Sample is spotted with the matrix.
2. Lasers vaporize/ionize the sample.
3. Small ions travel faster than the larger ones (time of flight).
4. Mass spectrums a "fingerprint"/profile of proteins or other macromolecules.
5. Computers compares the spectrum to the database.
57
___ is model for filamentous phages.
M13 phage.
58
Methanopyrus kandleri grows at ___.
122C.
59
Non-enveloped (naked) viruses are ___ resistant to disinfectants.
More.
60
What is mycelium?
Branching hyphae.
61
Unicellular algae include ___.
Diatoms, some green algae, a few red algae, dinoflagellates, and euglenids.
62
Bacillus are ___ anaerobes.
Obligate/facultative.
63
What are 4 examples of Ascomycetes?
1. Penicillium.
2. Dutch elm disease (pathogen).
3. Morels/truffles (pathogen).
4. Lichens (pathogen).
64
What is lysogenic conversion?
Temperate phages can direct a lytic infection or incorporate their DNA into the host cell genome.
65
Zones of clearing from bacterial lyses are ___.
Plaques.
66
What are the 3 shapes of viral architecture?
1. Icosahedral (20 flat triangles).
2. Helical (capsomeres arranged in a helix).
3. Complex (phages; icosahedral nucleocapsid head and helical protein tail).
67
Anaerobic chemoorganotrophs are ___.
Fermenters.
68
Gonyaulax cannot be destroyed by ___.
Cooking.
69
___ (sac fungi) include ~75% of known fungi.
Ascomycetes.
70
Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology describes ___.
All known prokaryotic species.
71
A notable pathogenic Vibrio that causes cholera is ___.
V. cholerae.
72
DNA with a ___ G + C content melts at a ___ rate due to ___ between the bases.
Higher; higher; 3 hydrogen bonds.
73
FISH probes for ___.
16S rRNA.
74
Fungal spores can be up to altitudes ___ and the air contains ___ cells/cubic meter.
>7 miles; 710000.
75
The infected cell is a ___ and the integrated phage DNA is a ___.
Lysogen; prophage.
76
If a phage lyses cells, ___.
A clear area forms.
77
Human protozoa pathogens include ___.
Toxoplasm gondii, Cryptosporidium parvum, and Cyclospore cayetanensis.
78
Non-enveloped viruses are released when the host cell dies, often by ___ initiated by the virus or host.
Apoptosis.
79
Protooncogenes ___ cell growth/division but tumor suppressor genes ___ growth division.
Stimulate; inhibit.
80
Sugar fermentation test.
Detects acidity resulting from fermentation of sugar in the medium and also detects gas production.
81
___ inhabits the genitourinary system.
HINT: vagina.
Lactobacillus.
82
Why are nitrifiers a concern to farmers using ammonium fertilizer?
They can deplete water of O2 if wastes are high in ammonium.
83
___ are cell openings.
Plasmodesmata.
84
Macroscopic algae include multicellular ___.
Brown algae, green algae, and red algae.
85
___ (club fungi) reproduce with mushrooms.
Basidiomycetes.
86
Lactobacillus is also important for ___ and ___.
Decomposing materials; production of fermented food.
87
Using the molecular typing method, ___ can be used to detect ___ and ___ is being used more.
Gel electrophoresis; RFLPs; WGS.
88
MALDI-TOF stands for ___.
"Matrix-associated laser desorption ionization time of flight" mass spectrometry.
89
Kinetoplastids have a distinctive ___ made of ___ in their large single mitochondrion.
Mass of DNA; interlocking rings.
90
Using the serological typing method, ___ can be used to differentiate stains and groups of strains with a characteristic serological type is called a ___.
Proteins/carbohydrates; serovar/serotype.
91
Acid-fast staining is used on Mycobacterium because ___.
Mycolic acid prevents Gram-staining.
92
Most fungi prefer ___ but can survive lower temperatures.
20-35C.
93
~740 million individuals are infected with ___.
Hookworm larvae.
94
Molds reproduce by ___ and yeasts reproduce by ___.
Fragmentation; mitosis/budding.
95
Chytrids are the only fungi with ___ and reproductive cells have ___.
Motile forms; flagella.
96
In 1970, ___ determined that evolutionary relationships are based on physical traits/___.
Stanier; nucleotide sequences.
97
Gelatinase test.
Detects enzymatic breakdown of gelatin to polypeptides.
98
Parabasalids live ___.
Within a host.
99
__ are the earliest oxygenic phototrophs.
Cyanobacteria.
100
___ is distinguished by ___ of flagella, capsules, and lipopolysaccharide molecules.
E. coli; antigenic types.
101
Serological testing uses ___ to detect specific molecules.
Antibodies.
102
Helminth reproduction takes place in a ___ host, like humans for Schistosoma.
Definite.
103
Filamentous phages attach to a protein on ___ of E. coli.
F pilus.
104
___ tests lower pH and ___ tests raise pH.
Sugar fermentation; urease.
105
What does PFU stand for?
Plaque-forming units.
106
Plaque assays are used to ___ in samples like ___.
Count phage particles; sewage, seawater, and soil.
107
What is the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?
Ingested eggs release immature worms the burrow into the bloodstream, and are coughed up and swallowed when they reach the lungs, produce eggs in the intestine and worms feed on the nutrients passing through the digestive tract.
108
Pyrodictium accultum cannot grow below ___.
82C.
109
Helminths are animals and are often identified by ___.
Microscopic eggs.
110
In the 1870s, ___ classified bacteria by ___.
Cohn; shape.
111
What is at the base of the food chain?
Phytoplankton.
112
Cyanobacteria are Gram-___.
Negative.
113
___ is when organisms develop similar characteristics independently as the adapt to similar environments.
Convergent evolution.
114
Viruses are classified generally based on ___.
The type of cell they affect.
115
Asexual/sexual reproduction are both common for protozoa and undergo ___ and ___ (multiple fission).
Binary fission; schizogeny.
116
PulseNet (established by CDC) tracks ___.
Foodborne disease outbreaks.
117
M. pneumoniac causes ___.
Walking pneumonia.
118
___ are protooncogenes that have been changed to promote uncontrolled growth but the insertion of a ___ may disrupt a protooncogene.
Oncogene; provirus.
119
Typhoid fever and bubonic/pneumonic plagues are caused by ___.
Enterobacteriaceae.
120
Most enveloped viruses are release via ___ in which viral protein spikes insert into host cell membrane, matric proteins accumulate, and nucleocapsids are extruded.
Budding.
121
___ is the study of the adaptations of physiological mechanisms that prokaryotes use to live in terrestrial/aquatic environments.
Ecophysiology.
122
What are some ways plant viruses are transmitted?
Soil, humans, contaminated seeds, tubers, pollen, insects and grafting.
123
___ are amongst the smallest forms of life.
Mycoplasma.
124
S. aureus cause ___.
Skin/ wound infections and food poisoning.
125
___ is a type of diplomonad that causes diarrhea in campers.
Giardia lamblia.
126
___ include black bread mold Rhizopus.
Zygomycetes.
127
PFUs represent ___.
Phages.
128
Helminths include roundworms (___) and flatworms (tapeworms (___)/flukes(___)).
Nametodes; cestodes; trematodes.
129
___ is a parasite of mimivirus.
Sputnik.
130
Amonita species produce toxins that cause ___.
Fatal liver damage.
131
Picrophilus can tolerate ___.
pH <1.
132
Corynebacterium are ___.
Facultative anaerobes.
133
DNA sequencing allows the construction of a ___.
Phylogenetic tree.
134
"___" is caused by larval flukes.
Swimmer's itch.
135
___ is model for temperate phages.
Lambda phage.
136
Green bacteria are Gram-___
Negative.
137
Cyanobacteria use ___ as a source of electrons.
Water.
138
What does the following formula represent?
NH4 + 1.5O2 -> NO2- + H2O + 2H+
Ammonium oxidizers.
139
The rigid cell walls of algae are mostly cellulose but red algae also have ___ (used in growth media) and brown algae also have ___ (used in ice cream and cosmetics).
Agar; alginic acid.
140
___ is the relatedness of organisms determined by the similarity of nucleotide sequences.
DNA Hybridization.
141
Onchocerca volvulus is transmitted by ___ (river blindness).
Flies.
142
Extreme halophiles require at least ___.
9% NaCl.
143
Green bacteria includes ___.
Chlorobium and Pelodictyon.
144
Schistosomiasis requires a ___ and releases a larval form called ___, which burrow through human skin and mature in blood vessels.
Snail host; cercaria.
145
___ are a capsid plus nucleic acids.
Nucleocapsids.
146
___ (viral particles) are nucleic acids surrounded by a ___ (protein coat) composed of simple identical subunits call ___.
Virions; capsid; capsomeres.
147
The general term for all prion diseases due to the characteristic appearance is ___.
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.
148
What are some characteristics of water molds?
Cytoplasm in filaments are continuous with many nuclei, cellulose in cell walls, lack chloroplasts, and reproductive cells are flagellated.
149
In 1908, ___ developed classification by ___.
Orla-Jensen; phylogeny.
150
What are 3 examples of anaerobic habitats that aerobes contribute to?
Mud, water, human body.
151
Plankton float ___ and unicellular algae comprise a significant portion of ___.
Near the surface; phytoplankton.
152
Algal asexual reproduction is done by ___.
Fragmentation.
153
What is superinfection?
Infection by the same phage.
154
___ of vascular plants have ___.
Mycorrhizas.
155
___ are flagellated protists lacking mitochondria.
Diplomonads and parabasalids.
156
___ (Brewer's/Baker's yeast) is used in wine, beer, and bread.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
157
Trypanosoma brucei causes ___ and Trypanosoma cruzi causes ___.
African sleeping sickness/trypanosomiasis; Chagas' disease.
158
Protozoa may exist as ___ (vegetative/feeding form) or ___ (resting form).
Trophazoites; cysts.
159
Extreme halophiles are ___ but can obtain additional energy from light via ___.
Aerobic or facultative anaerobic chemoheterotrophs; bacteriorhodopsin.
160
___ and ___ inhabit the respiratory system.
Streptococcus; Corynebacterium.
161
Lysine decarboxylase test.
Detects the enzymatic removal of the carboxyl group from lysine.
162
Urease test.
Detects enzymatic degradation of urea in CO2 and ammonia.
163
Many Mycobacterium are ___.
Saprophytes living on decaying material.
164
In the 1930s, ___ and ___ determined classification should be based on ___.
Klayver; van Niel; evolutionary relationships.
165
Green bacteria are all strict ___ and none are ___.
Anaerobes; chemotrophic.
166
16S rRNA is approximately ___ in size.
1500 nucleotides.
167
Streptococcus inhabit the ___ as normal microbiota.
Oral cavity.
168
Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis infects ___.
Frogs.
169
Infections may lead to ___ but is rare as most result from mutations.
Virus-induced tumors.
170
Magnetotactic bacteria require ___ habitats.
Microaerophilic.
171
What causes algal blooms?
Upwelling of nutrients, warmer temperatures, fertilizer runoff, and untreated sewage (red tides).
172
Staphylococcus are Gram-___, ___ anaerobes, and catalase ___.
Positive; facultative; positive.
173
Anaerobic chemotrophs include what 6 types of organisms?
1. Lactic acid bacteria.
2. Streptococcus.
3. Enterococcus.
4. Lactococcus.
5. Lactobacillus.
6. Propionibacterium.
174
Methane-generatin hyperthermophiles include ___ and ___.
Methanothermus; Methanopyrus kandleri.
175
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a ___ pigment and a ___ odor.
Green; fruity.
176
Methyl red test.
Detects mixed acids and the characteristics/products of fermentation pathways.
177
___ are parasites with an apical complex at one end that helps penetrate the membrane of host cells.
Apicomplexans.
178
___ (Enterobius vermicularis) are ingested on food.
Pinworm eggs.
179
Microscopic eukaryotes include what 4 groups?
1. Algae.
2. Fungi.
3. Protozoa.
4. Protists.
180
The Irish potato famine was caused by watermold ___ that ruined crop.
Phytophthora infestans.
181
MALDI-TOF takes ___ minutes.
Less than 15.
182
Using the phage typing method, species strains can differ in their ___ to various types of ___.
Susceptibility; bacteriophages.
183
What is a filterable virus?
Too small to be seen with a light microscope and passed through filters for bacteria.
184
Ascaris lumbricoides my exceed ___ and release ___ eggs/day.
30cm; 200000.
185
___ causes leptospirosis.
L. interrogens.
186
Mycoplasma have a characteristic ___ appearance.
"Fried egg".
187
Protozoa are not ___.
Fungi, slime molds, or water molds.
188
Conidia are ___ that are resistant to drying and easily spread by air.
Chains of spores.
189
___ were once considered fungi.
Slime/water molds.
190
Fungus protects and ___ and a photosynthetic member (lichen) provides ___.
Absorbs water/minerals; organic matter.
191
___ (nematodes) have cylindrical, tapered body with a digestive tract that extends ___.
Roundworms; from mouth to anus.
192
Persistent infections may last ___ and may/may not show symptoms.
Years/lifetime.
193
Mycoplasma have sterols added for ___.
Strength and rigidity.
194
What are viroids?
Small single-stranded RNA molecules so far only found in plants.
195
Clostridium are ___ anaerobes.
Obligate.
196
Phylogenetic trees provide a relative measure of ___ from a common ancestor due to ___ that accumulate over time.
Time elapsed since divergence; random mutations.
197
___ (amebic dysentery) affects ~50 million/year and kills ~100000.
Amebiasis.
198
Phenotypic traits include ___.
Size, shape, staining, and metabolic capabilities.
199
Lytic (virulent) phages exit the host by ___.
Lysing the cell.
200
Lichens are an association of fungus and are ___.
Photosynthesizers (algo/cyanobacterium).
201
Cryptosporidium and Entamoeba are types of ___.
Cysts.
202
Saccharomyces cervisiae are the great ___.
Spoliers of food.
203
Biochemical typing can trace ___.
Vibrio cholerae El Tor.
204
Zoonotic viruses and arboviruses cause diseases such as ___.
Yellow fever, dengue fever, West Nile encephalitis, and La Crosse encephalitis.
205
Human papillomavirus (HPVs) are associated with ___.
Cancer.
206
Aerobic chemolithotrophs include what 3 types of organisms?
1. Nitrifiers.
2. Ammonium oxidizers.
3. Nitrite oxidizers.
207
Indole test.
Detects the enzymatic removal of the amino group from trytophan.
208
Micrococcus tolerate ___.
Dry/salty conditions.
209
Nematode larvae Trichinella spiralis are ingested in ___, especially ___,
Animal flesh; undercooked pork.
210
What are the 3 general types of bacteriophages?
1. Lytic (virulent) phages.
2. Temperate phages.
3. Filamentous phages.
211
What is a dichotomous key?
A series of alternative choices.
212
Histoplasma capsulatum is an example of ___.
Dimorphic fungi.
213
How to plaque assays work?
Soft agar is inoculated with bacterial host and phage-containing specimen and a bacterial lawn forms.
214
Viruses are ___ contained within a protective protein coat.
Genetic information (DNA or RNA).
215
Using the antibiograms method, ___ can be used to characterize strains.
Antibiotic susceptibility.
216
A notable pathogenic Pseudomonas is ___.
P. aeroginosa.
217
Pseudomonas are Gram-___.
Negative.
218
Serological typing can trace ___.
E. coli.
219
What is generalized transduction?
A phage packages a random piece of DNA and can infect another bacterium and transfer that DNA causing a genetic recombination.
220
___ is rod-shaped and common in the mouth and vagina.
Lactobacillus.
221
Streptomyces can produce what 3 antibiotics?
1. Streptomycin.
2. Tetracycline.
3. Ethyromycin.
222
A common obligate intracellular parasite is ___.
Chlamydia.
223
What are nitrifiers?
Gram-negative organisms that oxidize inorganic nitrogen.
224
Vibrio are found in ___ environments and require ___ for growth.
Marine; Na+.
225
Molds (___), yeasts (___), and mushrooms (___) refer to ___, not classification.
Filamentous; single-celled; reproductive structures; morphological forms.
226
Propionibacterium are ___ pleomorphic rods that produce ___ via fermentation and can ferment ___.
Gram-positive; propionic acid; lactic acid.
227
Catalase tests are ___ if ___ are seen after H2O2 is added.
Positive; O2 bubbles.
228
Cyanobacteria were originally thought to be ___.
Algae (blue-green algae).
229
Where are Gram-positive Micrococcus found?
Soil, dust particles, inanimate objects, and skin.
230
___ species are used to make cheese.
Lactococcus.
231
Corynebacterium are referred to as ___.
Coryneforms or diphtheroids.
232
Acid-fact Mycobacterium are resistant to ___ and ___.
Disinfectants; antimicrobial drugs.
233
Kelp are macroscopic algae that posses ___ used for anchoring and the stalk (stipe) has ___ (leaflike structures) used for photosynthesis.
Holdfast; blades.
234
Protozoa have no ___ cell walls.
Cellulose/chitinous.
235
Algae with different ___ live at different ___.
Pigments; depths.
236
O2 was introduced ___ years ago.
~3 billion.
237
Enterobacteriaceae are ___ that ferment ___.
Facultative anaerobes; glucose.
238
What 2 organisms are the most common endospore-formers?
Clostridium and Bacillus.
239
Naegleria fowleri is a type of ___ that enters the human body and eats the brain.
Heteroloboscan.
240
What is a latent state?
Viral genome remains silent within the cell, but is replicated along with the host cell genome.
241
Volvox are a type of ___.
Microscopic algae.
242
___ causes ascariasis, the most common roundworm disease.
Ascaris lumbricoides.
243
Voges-Paskeur (VP) test.
Detects acetoin (intermediate of the fermentation that leads to 2,3-butanediol production).
244
Sulfur-reducing hyperthermophiles oxidize H2 and use ___ as a ___.
Sulfur; terminal electron acceptor.
245
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of ___.
Parabasalid.
246
Diarrheal diseases are caused by what 3 organisms?
1. Shigella.
2. Salmonella enterica.
3. E. coli.
247
Lactobacillus breaks down ___ deposited in the vaginal lining and the resulting ___ helps prevent vaginal infections.
Glycogen; low pH.
248
What are chronic infections?
Continuous production of low levels of virus particle.
249
Protozoa forminifera secrete a hard ___.
Calcium carbonate shell.
250
Basidiomycetes are ___.
Plant parasites.
251
Diplomonads reside in ___ or anaerobic condition inside hosts.
Stagnant water low in O2.
252
What 4 organisms are examples of extreme halophiles?
1. Halobacterium.
2. Halorubrum.
3. Natron-bacterium.
4. Natronococcus.
253
___ is a model roundworm organism.
Caenorhabditis elegans.
254
Loboscans extend and retract ___ and engulf food particles by ___.
Pseudopodias; phagocytosis.
255
In the late 1970s, ___ divided prokaryotes into two major groups (___ / ___) based upon ___.
Woese; Bacteria; Archaea; ribosomal RNA sequences.
256
Genome Trakr (established by FDA) traces ___.
Outbreaks caused by closely related strains.
257
Rye mold ___ (ergot) produces a hallucinogenic toxin and purified drug ___.
Claviceps purpurea; ergotamine.
258
Prions cause ___.
Mad cow disease.
259
Wuchereria bancrofti is transmitted by ___ (elephantitis).
Mosquitoes.
260
Parasitic fungi have ___ to protrude into host cells and saprophytic fungi have ___ to anchor to substrates.
Haustoria; rhizoids.
261
___ is the concentration of phage in the original sample.
Titer.
262
Genotypes focus on ___.
Differences in DNA sequences.
263
Citrate test.
Determines if citrate can be used as a sole carbon source.
264
Oxidase test.
Rapid test that detects activity of cytochrome c oxidase (component of electron transport chain).
265
The smallest virus is ___ and the largest is ___.
10 nanometer; 800 nanometer (Megaviridae).
266
___ inhabit the human/animal intestinal tracts.
Enterococcus.
267
β-hemolytic ___ is a pathogenic Streptococcus species.
S. pyogenes.
268
Nitrogen fixation is the ___.
Conversion of N2 to ammonia.
269
2 notable pathogenic Mycobacterium include:
1. M. tuberculosis.
2. M/ leprae.
270
Virus families end in ___.
"-viridae".
271
Lactose fermenters (like E. coli) are termed ___ and are indicators of ___.
Coliforms; fecal pollution.
272
Potato blight results in a ___ loss.
$10 billion/year.
273
The reproductive structures of zygomycetes are called ___.
Sporangia.
274
M. tuberculosis can be identified with ___.
Acid-fast staining.
275
Aerobic chemoorganotrophs include what 6 types of organisms?
1. Micrococcus.
2. Mycobacterium.
3. Pseudomonas.
4. Corynebacterium.
5. Enterobacteriaceae.
6. Vibrio.
276
What are the 3 ways human illnesses are caused?
1. Hypersensitivity reaction (allergy/asthma).
2. Vulvovaginal candidiasis growing in/on body causing mycosis.
3. Intoxication.
277
Catalase test.
Rapid test that detects the activity of catalase (H2O2 -> O2 + H2O).
278
Viruses have no ___.
Metabolism, replication, or motility.
279
Plasmodium are ___ that cause ___.
Apicomplexans; malaria.
280
Spirochaeta live in ___.
Mud/anaerobic waters.
281
What is it called when lysogen my show change in phenotype due to prophage DNA?
Lysogenic conversion.
282
What does WGS stand for?
Whole-genome sequencing.
283
What does NAATs stand for?
Nucleic acid amplification tests.
284
Anoxygenic phototrophs include what 2 types of organisms?
1. Purple bacteria.
2. Green bacteria.
285
Fungi includes ___.
Molds, yeasts, and mushrooms.
286
E. coli ferments ___ and forms ___ colonies on MacConkey agar.
Lactose; pink.
287
What are some characteristics of acute infections?
Rapid onset, short duration, and the immune system gradually eliminated the virus.
288
What are 3 diseases caused by fungi?
1. Athlete's foot.
2. Jock itch.
3. Cryptococcal meningitis.
289
The biochemical typing method is most commonly used to identify ___and groups of strains with a characteristic biochemical pattern is called a ___.
Various species of bacteria; biovar/biotype.
290
Most Pseudomonas are strict aerobes with ___ and are oxidase ___.
No fermentation; positive.
291
Diploid cells produce haploid cells that develop into haploid organisms (gametes) that can them form a diploid cell with a recombination of genetic material.
Meiosis.
292
The three-domain system replaces ___ five-kingdom system (___, ___, ___, ___, and ___).
Whittaker's; Monera; Protista; Fungi; Plantae; Animalia.
293
What are the 5 steps of the infection cycle?
1. Attachment.
2. Genome entry.
3. Synthesis.
4. Assembly.
5. Release-burst size.
294
What does RFLP stand for?
Restriction fragment length polymorphisms.
295
Propionibacterium are used to make ___.
Swiss cheese.
296
What Corynebacterium causes diphtheria?
C. diphtheroids.
297
Bacterial strains with ___ similarity are considered members of the same species.
>70%.
298
Entamoeba histolytica is a type of ___ that causes diarrhea.
Loboscan.
299
Obligate aerobes cannot ___.
Ferment.
300
Ireland's population fell by ___ after the famine.
25%.
301
Thermoplasma grow optimally at ___ and lyses at ___.
pH 2; pH 7.
302
Aflatoxins are produced by ___ species found in grains/peanuts and are ___.
Aspergillus; carcinogenic.
303
Serratia marcescens are often ___ at ___.
Red; 22C.
304
Cyst formation is caused by ___.
Lack of nutrients/O2.
305
___ is the science that characterizes and names organisms to arrange them into groups.
Taxonomy.
306
Filamentous phages are ___ phages that look like long fibers and cause productive infections where host cells are not killed but ___.
Single-stranded DNA; grow more slowly.
307
Mycorrhizas are a beneficial association with ___.
Plant roots.
308
Pandoraviruses were discovered in 2013 with a genome ___.
Twice the size of a mimivirus.
309
Asexual fungal spores are called ___ (___ in zygomycetes).
Conidia; sporangiospores.
310
The three-domain system includes ___, ___, and ___.
Bacteria; Archaea; Eukarya.
311
Flukes have two hosts: snails being ___ and mammals/other vertebrate being ___.
Intermediate; definitive.
312
Purple bacteria include ___.
Chromatium, Thiospirillum, and Thiodictyon.
313
Gonyaulax species produce potent neurotoxins ___ and ___.
Saxitoxin; gonyautoxin.
314
Approximately 438000 people died from ___ in 2005.
Malaria.
315
S. volutans stores phosphate as ___.
Volutan (metachromatic) granules.
316
Endospore-formers are most resistant to ___.
Environmental extremes.
317
How do aerobes contribute to anaerobic habitats?
Deplete O2.
318
The head end (___) of tapeworms attaches to the intestines of the host and the segments (___) contain male/female structures.
Scolex; proglottids.
319
___ (trematodes) have a flat leaf shape with suckers.
Flukes.
320
___ (dsDNA) is model for lytic phages as the process take 30 minutes.
T4 phage.
321
Phenylalanine deaminase test.
Detects enzymatic removal of amino group from phenylalanine.
322
Protozoa are historically grouped by means of ___.
Locomotion.
323
Gram staining distinguishes between ___/___ bacteria.
Gram-neg; Gram-pos.
324
Prions are resistant to ___.
Heat and chemical treatments.
325
The atmosphere was ___ for the first ___ that prokaryotes inhabited Earth.
Anoxic; ~1.5 billion years.
326
Silent viral genome is called a ___ which integrates into a host chromosome or replicates separately.
Provirus.
327
What are 2 examples of ammonium oxidizers?
1. Nitrosomonas.
2. Nitrosococcus.
328
Silent viral genomes ___ and can later be reactivated.
Cannot be eliminated.
329
Tumors are ___.
Abnormal growths.
330
Green bacteria use ___ to form ___ outside of the cell.
H2S; sulfur granules.
