Lab Practical Flashcards
(213 cards)
1
Q
What is #9 on the microscope diagram?
A
Base.
2
Q
What are the common types of motilities for protists?
A
Cilia, flagella, and pseudopodia.
3
Q
What are the sulfur reduction results for E. coli?
A
Negative (sulfur not reduced): no color change.
4
Q
A bean shaped cell is called ___.
A
Vibrio.
5
Q
Paramecium have what structures?
A
Macronucleus, cilia, vacuole, oral groove.
6
Q
Defined media are ___.
A
Chemically defined and exact ingredients are known.
7
Q
What is differential media?
A
Media that clearly differentiates one organism from another organisms
8
Q
What are the sulfur reduction results for P. mirabilis?
A
Positive (sulfur reduced): pink.
9
Q
What is body temperature in Celsius?
A
37°C.
10
Q
A positive catalase test is indicated by ___.
A
Bubbles.
11
Q
Gram-negative cells are ___.
A
Pink.
12
Q
Stacked clusters of bacilli are ___.
A
Palisades.
13
Q
What does it mean to perform a simple stain?
A
Only a single stain is used to just make the organisms visible under light.
14
Q
What is the difference between cilia and flagella?
A
Flagellum is a single hair while cilia are multiple hairs.
15
Q
___ undergoes β-hemolysis.
A
Streptococcus pyogenes.
16
Q
Phenol red is ___ below pH 6.8, ___ at pH 7.4-8.4, and ___ at pH >8.4.
A
Yellow; red; pink.
17
Q
Paired cells are ___.
A
Diplo.
18
Q
What is a pathogen?
A
Organisms that always causes infections and diseases.
19
Q
Citrate tests see if citrate can be used as a ___.
A
Sole carbon source.
20
Q
What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative cellular wall components.
A
Gram-positive cells have a thick peptidoglycan layer while Gram-negative cells have a thin peptidoglycan layer.
21
Q
Why is penicillin not effective in inhibiting Escherichia coli?
A
Escherichia coli produces β-lactamases that break down penicillin.
22
Q
What BSL level is our lab?
A
BSL - 2.
23
Q
___ undergoes α-hemolysis.
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
24
Q
Where would contaminated broken glass go?
A
Sharps container.
25
What does β-hemolysis look like?
A clearing (yellow) zone around colonies.
26
The Gram reaction of Staphylococcus aureus is ___.
Gram-positive.
27
A phenol red result of K/- indicates ___.
Pink color/no gas in Durham tube.
28
What are the indole results for P. mirabilis?
Negative (no tryptophanase production): no color change.
29
What is #1 on the microscope diagram?
Ocular lenses.
30
Pathogens are ___ (require complex nutrient sources) and will only grow on ___.
Fastidious; enriched media.
31
If you ended up with a few colonies growing inside the zone of inhibition, what would be the explanation for that?
Either some sort of contamination or the bacteria grew a resistance.
32
Pseudopodia look like ___.
Coral.
33
How do you calculate total magnification?
TM = Objective * Ocular.
34
Neutral red dye is ___ at pH <6.8 and ___ at pH >6.8.
Red; yellow.
35
What is #2 on the microscope diagram?
Revolving nosepiece.
36
What does ZOI stand for?
Zone of inhibition.
37
What are the motility results for P. mirabilis?
Not determined: blackened.
38
What is resolution?
How sharp an image is.
39
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for indole SIM tests?
Reagent: Kovac's reagent.
40
What is the source of inoculation for the sheep blood agar exercise?
Throat.
41
What are the MAC results for E. aerogenes?
Good growth (not inhibited by crystal violet/bile) and pink/red (produces acid from lactose fermentation).
42
What does α-hemolysis look like?
A green zone around colonies.
43
What does sediment mean?
Sample sank to the bottom of broth.
44
What are the motility results for E. aerogenes?
Positive (motile): hazy around inoculation.
45
Eukaryotic cells are ___.
Unicellular/multicellular.
46
What does SIM stand for?
Sulfur reduction, indole, and motility.
47
Catalase tests test if ___.
Catalase is produced to convert H2O2 to water and gaseous oxygen.
48
Crystal violet and bile salts are used for ___.
MacConkey agar (MAC).
49
The negative staining technique stains ___.
The background.
50
γ-hemolysis is the ___ of red blood cells.
Lack of lysis.
51
What is #10 on the microscope diagram?
Fine focus.
52
What are the 5 growth patterns of broth?
1. Clear.
2. Turbid.
3. Flocculent.
4. Pellicle.
5. Sediment.
53
What are the 8 colony elevations?
1. Convex (slight lift).
2. Umbonate (nipple).
3. Plateau (horizontal harmonica).
4. Flat (paper).
5. Raised (slab of concrete).
6. Raised, spreading edge (fedora).
7. Flat, raised margin (two hills).
8. Growth into medium.
54
Gram-positive cells are ___.
Purple.
55
Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is an example of an ___ growth media used for ___.
Enriched selective/differential; detecting Enterobacteriaceae.
56
What are the MAC results for E. coli?
Good growth (not inhibited by crystal violet/bile) and pink/red (produces acid from lactose fermentation).
57
Amoeba have what structures?
Nucleus, pseudopod.
58
Most bacteria are ___ and live of ___.
Saprophytes; dead/decaying matter.
59
Antiseptics are used on ___.
Living surfaces.
60
A positive motility SIM test is indicated by ___.
A haziness around the line of inoculation.
61
Why is your microscope considered a compound binocular microscope?
Uses both ocular and objective lenses.
62
The Gram reaction of Staphylococcus epidermidis is ___.
Gram-positive.
63
What are the citrate results for E. aerogenes?
Positive (citrate utilized): no color change, growth.
64
What are the urease results for P. mirabilis?
Positive (urea hydrolysis): pink.
65
What 3 factors can effect colony pigments?
1. Time.
2. Temperature.
3. Nutrients.
66
What does MIC stand for?
Minimum inhibitory concentration.
67
What are the EMB results for E. aerogenes?
Good growth (not inhibited by eosin/methylene blue) and pink/mucoid (produces acid from lactose fermentation).
68
A confluent lawn is a ___ of bacterial growth.
Uniform spread.
69
What is #11 on the microscope diagram?
Coarse focus.
70
What are the motility results for E. coli?
Positive (motile): hazy around inoculation.
71
A round cell is called ___.
Coccus.
72
Mannitol salt agar (MSA) is especially useful for differentiating ___.
Staphylococcus.
73
MacConkey agar (MAC) is good for identifying members of ___.
Enterobacteriaceae.
74
What does bacteriostatic mean?
Drugs inhibit the growth of bacteria.
75
What do you do in lab that contributes to your aseptic technique?
Washing your hands and wearing proper PPE (personal protective equipment) to prevent contact contamination.
76
What is hemolysis.
The breaking down of RBCs.
77
Prokaryotic cells don't have ___.
Nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.
78
What does heat-fixing do?
Adheres the sample to the slide so it is not easily washed away.
79
What are the EMB results for S. epidermidis?
No growth (inhibited by eosin/methylene blue) and colorless (does not ferment lactose).
80
Parasitism ___.
Harms the host.
81
What are the 4 terms used for describing broth growth patterns?
1. Turbid (hazy).
2. Flocculent (flakey throughout).
3. Pellicle (flakey at top).
4. Sediment (flakey at bottom).
82
The Gram reaction of Enterobacter aerogenes is ___.
Gram-negative.
83
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for oxidase tests?
Reagent: TMPD.
84
The indole part of SIM tests test if ___.
Tryptophanase hydrolyzes tryptophan to pyruvate.
85
What are the MAC results for S. epidermidis?
No growth (inhibited by crystal violet/bile) and not red/pink (does not ferment lactose).
86
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for phenol red broths?
pH indicator: phenol red.
87
A positive sulfur reduction SIM test is indicated by ___.
Black media color.
88
What is working distance?
Distance between the lens and the stage/organism.
89
Complex media are ___ and contain ingredients like ___.
Non-chemically defined; milk proteins, blood/yeast extracts.
90
What are the tubes used in citrate tests?
Simmons citrate tubes.
91
What type of inoculating tool was used for the cytochrome c oxidase test?
A disposable plastic inoculating loop.
92
β-hemolysis is the ___ of red blood cells.
Complete lysis.
93
Blood agar is differential for ___ cocci such as ___.
Gram-positive; Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Enterococcus.
94
A phenol red result of A/- indicates ___.
Yellow color/no gas in Durham tube.
95
The dyes ___ and ___ in eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is used to differentiate lactose fermenters from non-fermenters.
Eosin Y; methylene blue.
96
What are two ways we can sterilize in lab?
1. Steam sterilizing (autoclaving).
2. Using a bacti-cinerator to heat inoculating tools.
97
What are the indole results for E. coli?
Positive (produces tryptophanase): pink reagent.
98
What are 2 examples of disinfectants?
1. Bleach.
2. Lysol.
99
A negative citrate test is indicated by ___.
No color change AND no growth.
100
What is the limit of resolution (resolving power)?
How far apart two point must be to see them as separate.
101
A negative oxidase test is indicated by ___
No color change within 20 seconds.
102
What does a mucoid consistency look like?
Sticky.
103
Is mannitol salt agar (MSA) selective or differential?
Both.
104
A positive citrate test is indicated by ___.
A blue color AND growth, or just growth.
105
A slightly squiggly cell is called ___.
Spiral.
106
What is #8 on the microscope diagram?
Lamp.
107
Irregular clusters of cocci cells are ___.
Staph.
108
What is #4 on the microscope diagram?
Stage.
109
What are the urease results for E. coli?
Negative (no urea hydrolysis): yellow.
110
A star shaped cell is called ___.
Stella.
111
Negative dyes contain negatively charged ___ in which bacterial surfaces ___, remaining unstained against a stained background.
Acidic chromogen; repel.
112
What are 3 examples of symbiotic relationships?
1. Parasitism.
2. Commensalism.
3. Mutualism.
113
What are the sulfur reduction results for E. aerogenes?
Negative (sulfur not reduced): no color change.
114
What are the 5 colony margins?
1. Smooth, entire.
2. Irregular (erose).
3. Lobate (arial view of mountain).
4. Filamentous (filiform).
5. Rhizoid.
115
What is selective media?
Media that selects for one organism and inhibits the growth of another.
116
What are the 5 terms used for describing slant growth patterns?
1.Filiform (smooth, even growth) and translucent.
2. Friable (crumbled) and opaque.
3. Effuse (spread out) and translucent.
4. Echinulate (prickly) and opaque.
5. Rhizoid (fuzzy) and opaque.
117
What is #3 on the microscope diagram?
Objective lenses.
118
Urea hydrolysis tests test if enzyme ___ is produced to ___ to form ___.
Urease; catabolize urea; ammonia and carbon dioxide.
119
What does turbid mean?
Hazy.
120
What is another name for the antimicrobial susceptibility test?
Disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) method.
121
A negative catalase test is indicated by ___.
No bubbles.
122
What does a butyrous consistency look like?
Milky or melted butter.
123
Nutrient broth contains ___ and ___.
Peptone; beef extract.
124
When the stage moves toward you, the image moves ___.
Away.
125
What are the MSA results for E. coli?
No growth (inhibited by NaCl) and red (does not ferment mannitol).
126
What are the citrate results for E. coli?
Negative (citrate not utilized): no color change, no growth.
127
What are the MSA results for S. epidermidis?
Good growth (not inhibited by NaCl) and red (does not ferment mannitol).
128
A negative indole SIM test is indicated by ___.
No color change of Kovac's reagent within a few minutes.
129
What is parfocal?
The ability of one objective lens being in focus and then the next lens also being in focus.
130
A positive oxidase test is indicated by ___.
A purple/dark blue color change within 20 seconds.
131
Gram-positive cells have a ___ to ___ the stain.
Thick peptidoglycan layer; hold.
132
The motility part of SIM tests test if ___.
Bacterium can move.
133
What are the MSA results for S. aureus?
Good growth (not inhibited by NaCl) and yellow/halo (produced acid from mannitol fermentation).
134
What are bactericidals?
Drugs that kill bacteria.
135
What does γ-hemolysis look like?
No zone around colonies.
136
What ingredients make selective media?
Antibiotics, dyes, salts, pH levels.
137
A negative sulfur reductions SIM test is indicated by ___.
No media color change.
138
What are the 5 colony shapes?
1. Round.
2. Irregular.
3. Spindle.
4. Filamentous (dandelion poof; branches out from center).
5. Rhizoid (tree branches and sticks and twigs).
139
___ undergoes γ-hemolysis.
Staphylococcus epidermidis.
140
A very squiggly cell is called ___.
Spirochete.
141
What makes sheep blood agar differential?
The hemolysis of 5% blood.
142
Rugose texture resembles ___.
Brains.
143
The sulfur reduction part of SIM tests test if ___.
Sulfur can be reduced to H2S
144
A chain of cells are called ___.
Strep.
145
Mannitol salt agar (MSA) is selective for ___.
Staphylococcus, Bacillus, Enterococcus, and Micrococcus.
146
Bacillus cereus is ___ and ___ in color.
Gram-positive; purple.
147
What is ubiquity?
Microorganisms are everywhere and can be isolated from anywhere.
148
What is an opportunistic pathogen?
Organisms that sometimes cause infections/diseases, mainly in immuno-compromised systems.
149
What charge does a basic stain have?
Positive.
150
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for urea hydrolysis tests?
pH indicator: phenol red.
151
A rod cell is called ___.
Bacillus.
152
What categories are addressed when describing isolated colonies on plated media?
Colony shape, margin, and elevation.
153
What does flocculent mean?
Sample floating throughout broth.
154
What does pellicle mean?
Sample floating at the top of broth.
155
What agar is used for antimicrobial tests/disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) methods?
Mueller-Hinton agar.
156
Bile salts and crystal violet inhibit the growth of ___ bacteria.
Gram-positive.
157
A round, rod cell is called ___.
Coccobacillus.
158
A negative urea hydrolysis test is indicated by ___.
An orange or yellow color/no color change.
159
What ingredients make differential media?
Color/pH indicators and sugars.
160
4 cocci cells are a ___.
Tetrad.
161
The Gram reaction of Escherichia coli is ___.
Gram-negative.
162
What is #12 on the microscope diagram?
Arm.
163
Mutualism ___.
Mutually beneficial.
164
If a culture cannot grow on MacConkey and/or EMB, it is most likely what?
Gram-positive.
165
Disinfectants are used on ___.
Nonliving surfaces.
166
What are the citrate results for P. mirabilis?
Negative (citrate not utilized): no color change, no growth.
167
Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is selective for ___ bacteria and ___ Gram-positive bacteria.
Gram-negative; inhibits.
168
The Gram reaction of Serratia marcescens is ___.
Gram-negative.
169
What is #7 on the microscope diagram?
Condenser.
170
Why are bacterial cells not stained in the negative staining technique?
The stain and bacteria have the same charge ( - ).
171
How would Staphylococcus aureus appear when grown on mannitol salt agar?
Plenty of growth with yellow growth or halo.
172
Gram- negative cells have a ___ that the stain can easily be ___.
Thin peptidoglycan layer; rinsed out of.
173
MacConkey agar (MAC) is an example of an ___ growth media used for ___.
Enriched selective/differential; detecting coliforms.
174
Agar is ___ and purified from ___.
Polysaccharide; seaweed.
175
What is #6 on the microscope diagram?
Iris diaphragm.
176
When the stage moves to the right, the image moves to the ___.
Left.
177
As long as a citrate test has growth, it is ___.
Positive.
178
What does BSL stand for?
Biosafety level.
179
Resolution ___ as limit of resolution (resolving power) ___.
Increases; decreases.
180
What are the EMB results for E. coli?
Good growth (not inhibited by eosin/methylene blue) and dark/purple-black (produces acid from lactose fermentation).
181
What are the urease results for E. aerogenes?
Negative (no urea hydrolysis): orange.
182
A worm shaped cell is called ___.
Filamentous.
183
How can temperature impact microbial growth?
Color change.
184
What are the indole results for E. aerogenes?
Negative (no tryptophanase production): no color change.
185
The Gram reaction of Bacillus cereus is ___.
Gram-positive.
186
Phenol red tests test for ___.
Carbohydrate (dextrose(glucose), lactose, sucrose) fermentation.
187
What are 2 examples of antiseptics?
1. Hydrogen peroxide.
2. Isopropyl alcohol.
188
Resolution ___ as magnification ___.
Decreases; increases.
189
A negative motility SIM test is indicated by ___.
Only the line of inoculation is hazy.
190
A phenol red result of A/G indicates ___.
Yellow color/gas in Durham tube.
191
Commensalism ___.
Helps the microbe and leaves the host unaffected.
192
8 cocci cells in a cube structure are ___.
Sarcina.
193
What is #5 on the microscope diagram?
Slide holder/clip.
194
What does TMPD stand for?
Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine.
195
Euglena have what structures?
Blurry flagellum, eye spot, chloroplast.
196
What is considered room temperature?
25°C.
197
How do you measure if a bacterium is susceptible, intermediate, or resistant to a particular drug?
Measuring the diameter of the zone of inhibition in mm.
198
Saccharomyces look like ___.
Little eggs.
199
Oxidase tests test if ___.
Cytochrome c oxidase is present.
200
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for citrate tests?
pH indicator: bromothymol blue.
201
Mannitol salt agar (MSA) is an ___.
Enriched media.
202
What indicates a positive result for the production of acid and gas (A/G) end products in the phenol red fermentation broth tubes?
A yellow color change and a bubble in the Durham tube.
203
Glucose minimal salts media are is an example of ___.
Defined media.
204
A positive urea hydrolysis test is indicated by ___.
A bright pink color.
205
α-hemolysis is the ___ of red blood cells.
Incomplete lysis.
206
What is the pH indicator for MacConkey agar (MAC)?
Neutral red dye.
207
The Gram reaction of Micrococcus luteus is ___.
Gram-positive.
208
Irregular shaped cells are ___.
Pleomorphic.
209
What are germicides?
Substances that reduce microbial levels on surfaces.
210
A phenol red result of -/- indicates ___.
No color change (red)/no gas in Durham tube.
211
Prokaryotic cells are ___ with ___.
Unicellular; ribosomes.
212
A positive indole SIM test is indicated by ___.
A bright pink color change of Kovac's reagent within a few minutes.
213
What is the pH indicator and/or reagent used for catalase tests?
Reagent: H2O2.
